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93 Cards in this Set

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what factors to consider when selecting antimicrobial (6)
1. sensitivity to agent
2. severity and site of infection
3. safety of agent: renal and hepatic function
4. age, pregnancy, etc of patient
5. cost of therapy
6. antibiogram of the institution and specifically unit specific antibiogram (MRSA?)
WBC ranges:
NORMAL?
AFTER infection?
Normal:
4000-10000 cells/mm3

Infection:
30000-60000 cells/mm3
what will Sulfonamides cause in NEONATES?

what will Chloramphenicol cause in NEONATES?
NEONATES:

1. Sulfonamides causes KERNICTERUS

2. Chloroamphenicol causes GRAY BABY SYNDROME
Cephalosporin vs Penicillin?

when to prescribe in relation to hypersensitivity
Cephalosporin can be given in delayed reaction

if immediate type reactions with penicillin occur, CEPHALOSPORINS ARE NOT GIVEN
ISONIAZID in elderly patients
elderly patients hepatic toxicity may manifest with administration of ISONAZID
what condition would elevate the risk of a patient acquiring hemolytic anemia
if the patient have an inherited metabolic abnormality such as G6PDH deficiency

ISONIAZID can cause PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY
CNS TOXICITY for antimicrobials
can be a problem when dose is not adjusted for renal dysfunction

1. penicillins
2. cephalosporins
3. quinolones
4. imipenem
HEMATOLOGICAL TOXICITY for antimicrobials
1. Nafcillin (neutropenia)
2. Piperacillin (platelet dysfunction)
3. Cefotetan (hypoprothrombinemia)
4. Chloroamphenicol (bone marrow suppression)
5. Trimethoprim (megaloblastic anemia)
what is empirical therapy
critically ill patients need immediate administration of drugs covering infections of both gram positive and negative organisms
what are the advantages and disadvantages of combo therapy
Advantages:
1. synergism
2. broadening
3. emergence of resistance

Disadvantages:
1. competing drug interactions
2. additive toxicities
what is the mechanism of action for penicillin
1. inhibit cross linking step in the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
2. combine with and inactivate TRANSPEPTIDASE
3. BACTERICIDAL
4. penicillin more effective against GRAM POSITIVE
what is the difference between gram positive and gram negative
POSITIVE:
1. thicker cell wall

NEGATIVE:
1. thinner cell wall
2. contains outer cell membranes (lipopolysaccharides)
penicillin treat...(6)
1. Syphilis
2. Actinomycosis
3. Diphtheria
4. Clostridium
5. Anthrax
6. Listeria
difference between penicillin V and penicillin G
1. Penicillin V is more stable in acidic environments and is the oral form of penicillin (against anaerobes)
2. Penicillin V has POOR bioavailibility

BOTH:
1. food interferes with absorption, take ~1hr BEFORE meals and 2-3 hrs AFTER meals
2. PROBENECID prolongs the duration due to proximal renal tubule mech.
3. ~99% of PG and PV are eliminated via kidneys
what are the prophylactic uses of penicillins
1. streptococcal infections
2. rheumatic fever recurrences
3. gonorrheal opthalmia neonatorium
4. Sx procedures in pts. with VALVULAR DISEASES
5. OPERATIONS
what is the drug of choice for LISTERIA
aerobic gram positive bacilli: LISTERIA

AMPICILLIN!!!
what is...
Augmentin
Unasyn
Zosyn
1. Augmentin:
Amoxicillin/Clavulanic Acid

2. Unasyn:
Ampicillin/Sulbactam

3. Zosyn
Piperacillin/Tazobactam
what is the adverse effect of Piperacillin
PLATELET DYSFUNCTION
what drug is the key features of the first generation cephalosporins? which drug?
1. can be penicillin G substitutes that is resistant to staphyococcal penicillinase
2. Protease, E.coli and Klebsiella pneu...(PEcK drugs)

3. CEFAZOLIN is the drug of choice in SURGICAL PROPHYLAXIS!!!
what are HENPEcK Drugs?
second generation cephalosporins
1. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Enterbacter aerogenes
3. Neisseria
4. Protease
5. E.coli
6. Klebsiella pneu
what is the major feature of third generation cephalosporins
1. expanded gram negative coverage
2. cross BBB
3. Ceftriaxone and Cefixime are first line drugs for N. gonorrhoeae
what TWO cephalosporins are excreted through BILIARY TRACT
1. Ceftriaxone
2. Cefoperazone

no dosage adjustment is necessary in renal insufficiency
what is significant about 4th gen. cephalosporins
CEFEPIME
1. more resistance to hydrolysis by chromosomal beta lactamases produced by Enterobacter.
what is significant about 5th gen cephalosporins
CEFTAROLINE:
1. treats MRSA, VRSA, VISA, hVISA
what is the main adverse reaction of CEPHALOSPORINS
1. DISULFIRAM like symptoms due to aldehyde accumulation with methyl thio tetrazole groups containing cephalosporins when ingested with alcohol
2. YOU VOMIT EVERYWHERE
what are beta lactamase inhibitors? (3)
1. Clavulanic acid
2. Sulbactam
3. Tazobactam

PROTECT PENCILLINS!!!
what is Primaxin?
adverse reactions?
CARBAPENEMS!!

1. Imipenem and Cilastatin
2. broadest spectrum of all the beta lactam antibiotics
3. excessive levels in patients with renal impairment can lead to SEIZURES
what is Aztreonam?
specifics?
MONOBACTAMS!!

1. free beta lactam ring
2. specific for gram NEGATIVE rods (enterobacteria)
3. LOW ALLERGIC REACTIONS
what is Vancomycin used to treat?
administration route?
adverse reactions?
1. used ORALLY to treat pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile
2. treat MRSA and MRSE
3. Otoxicity and Nephrotoxicity
what drug is approved as a SINGLE, ORAL dose for treatment of UNCOMPLICATED UTI in women
FOSFOMYCIN!!

safe during pregnancy!!
administration route for BACITRACIN
NEVER GIVE SYSTEMICALLY!!
NEPHROTOXIC!!!

therefore used only TOPICALLY for gram POSITIVE
what cell wall inhibitor is used to treat tuberculosis
CYCLOSERINE!!
2nd line drug
Tetracyclines
1. mechanism
2. resistance mechanism
3. absorption
4. excretion
1. binds to 30S ribosomal RNA
2. reduced permeability or INCREASE EFFLUX by an active transport protein pump
3. most absorption takes place from the stomach and the upper small intestine (MINOCYCLINE cross BBB in the absence of inflammation)
4. excreted through KIDNEYS (except doxycycline)
tetracyclines and kids
1. bind to calcium deposited in the newly formed teeth and bone of kids
2. malformation of teeth and bones in kids
what is Tigecycline?
what is good about it?
1. newest tetracycline drug
2. used to treat MRSA, MRSE, PRSP, and VRE
what is the most widely used class of drugs?
MACROLIDES
how are macrolides eliminated?
1. biliary tract (non renal)
2. good in elderly
what is the difference between azithromycin and erythromycin
azithromycin has a methyl sub nitrogen atom in the lactone ring of erythromycin.

1. improved acid stability
2. increased tissue penetration
3. broadened antimicrobial spectrum
mechanism for macrolides
1. binds to 50S ribosomal subunits of sensitive organisms
2. bacteriostatic
3. activity enhanced at BASIC pH
4. effective against gram POSITIVE
what are the TWO resistance mechanism against MACROLIDES
1. production of esterases for hydrolysis (NEG)
2. modification of ribosomal binding site of the drug by methylase enzyme that is macrolide inducible (POS)
what is ketolides good for??
what drugs should you know?
1. effective against some macrolide resistant bacteria, due to ability to bind on two ribosomal sites

2. TELITHROMYCIN used in URTI that is resistant to penicillin and erythromycin
what class of protein synthesis inhibitor is known to cause OTOTOXICITY?
AMINOGLYCOSIDES
1. auditory and vestibular nerve damage
2. toxicity increases with loop diuretics
what aminoglycoside is used as an isolation tool in culturing of organisms
GENTAMICIN
1. used to isolate streptococcus pneumoniae and strep. pyogenes due to high level of resistance
route of administration for aminoglycosides
INJECTION!!
gram NEGATIVE coverage
what is Spectinomycin used for
almost solely as an alternative treatment for gonorrhea in patients who are allergic to penicillin or when gonococci are resistant to other agents
application for neomycin and kanamycin
1. bowel sterilization
2. skin infection
application for streptomycin
1. TB
2. Plague
3. Brucellosis
4. Tularemia
5. Infective endocarditis
what aminoglycoside is used to clinically treat serious aerobic gram NEGATIVE bacteria
1. Gentamycin
2. Amikacin
3. Netilmicin
4. Tobramycin
protein synthesis inhibitor that is the second or tertiary choice for endocarditis (prophylaxis)

ADVERSE EFFECT??
CLINDAMYCIN

may cause SUPER INFECTION
what is the mechanism of sulfonamides
1. antimetabolites
2. inhibit DPS, responsibile for incorporating PABA into the immediate precursor of FOLIC ACID
3. bacteria that can synthesize their own folic acid is affected
4. bacteria that can utilize pre-formed folate are not affected
what is recommended to be given with sulfonamides
TRIMETHOPRIM
1. inhibit dihydrofolate reductase
2. thus inhibiting thymidine synthesis

sulfonamides/trimethoprim combo causes sequential block of FOLIC ACID SYNTHESIS
what DNA synthesis inhibitor COMBO is used to treat pneumocytosis carinii pneumonia
ORAL TMP-SMZ
1. trimethoprim
2. sulfmethoxazole

*IV TMP-SMZ to treat P.carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients.
what DNA synthesis inhibitor COMBO is used to treat MALARIA
1. Proguanil
2. Atovaquone

active metabolite cycloguanil, which selectively inhibits the bifunctional dihydrofolate reductase thymidylate synthetase enzyme of plasmodia
which Fluoroquinolone is the drug of choice for UTI
CIPROFLOXACIN
NORFLOXACIN
what are the contraindications for Fluoroquinolones
1. pregnancy
2. children
3. should not exercise during treatment (tendonitis/rupture)
adverse reaction of penicillin
1. Steven Johnsons
2. Larygl Spasms
what is Melarsoprol IV used for?
mechanism?
treatment of Trypanosoma Cruzi
1. trivalent arsenical that binds to inhibits parasitic enzymes especially sulfhydryl groups
what is a formulation of Eflorithine that is used for hairy bitches
VANIQA
1. topical formulation is available for reducing unwanted facial hair in bitches
NIFURTIMOX
class?
mechanism?
benefits?
1. antiprotozoal agents
2. produces intracellular free radical that kills the organism
3. used in chronic stages of the disease with minimal effects
what two notable drugs are used to treat Giardiasis?

Mech?
1. Metronidazole:
binds to proteins and DNA of the flagellate

2. Tinidazole:
disrupts DNA tertiary structure and inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
what two notable drugs are used to treat Trichomoniasis?

Mech?
1. Metronidazole:
binds to proteins and DNA of the flagellate

2. Tinidazole:
disrupts DNA tertiary structure and inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
at what stage is it best to treat Amebiasis (amebic dysentery)?

what drug do you use to treat this stage?
LUMINAL

IODOQUINOL:
alternative for asymptomatic carriers, can cause MYELO-OPTIC NEUROPATHY
what is used to treat systemic amebiasis?

mechanism?
contraindications?
1. Emetine
2. Dehydroemetine

mech: block chain elongation of proteins (IM route)

contraindication: pregnancy and cardiotoxicity
what antiprotozoal drugs are used to treat toxoplasmosis
1. Pyrimethamine and Sulfonamide (FANSIDER)
2. Atovaquone (also in AIDS pts to treat P.carinii pneumonia)
what is used in conjunction with Pyrimethamine and Sulfonamide to protect against folate deficiency
LEUCOVORIN is administered to protect against folate deficiency
what anti-malaria drug is used for PREVENTION
Mefloquine:
used orally in Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum
what is QUININE
1. reserve drug for blood schizonticide for chloroquinine resistant falciparum
2. NOT active against exoerythrocytic forms
3. affect DNA synthesis
Mebendazole
1. mech
2. usage
1. mech: a benzimidazole, inhibits microtubule synthesis of the parasite (expelled in feces)
2. round worms, pinworms, hookworms, whipworms
Thiabendazole
1. mech
2. usage
1. mech: broad spectrum anthelmintic against STRONGYLOIDES

affects parasitic microtubular aggregation
what is used against Wucheria bancrofti (elephantiasis)
Diethylcarbamazine (Hetrazan):
1. effective against microfilariae
2. NOT adult worms in lymph nodes
what is used against Trematodes, Cestodes and Blood Flukes
Praziquantal (treats all species)
1. increases calcium permeability of the membranes and paralyses worm musculature

CONTRAINDICATED in cysticercosis of the eye!!
what antifungal is a DNA base analog?

mechanism
FLUCYTOSINE
1. gets deaminated to a potent ANTIMETABOLITE and inhibits thymidylate synthase enzyme
2. FUNGISTATIC
3. oral used for systemic candidiasis and cryptococcal infections
what is the difference between amphotericin B and nystatin
1. Amphotericin B is used SYSTEMICALLY
2. Nystatin is NOT systemic, only ORALLY!!
what is the clinical application for Nystatin
1. Candida infection of the mucosa, skin, intestinal tract and vagina
2. Topical Nystatin is the drug of choice for oral moniliasis, thrush, denture stomatits
what is Griseofulvin used for
SYSTEMIC DRUG that treat disease of skin, hair and nails

effective against:
1. Microsporum
2. Epidermophyton
3. Trichophyton

*NO EFFECT ON ANY OTHERS
what is the mechanism for Griseofulvin
1. inhibits mitosis by disrupting spindle formation
2. fungistatic
what two drugs are not purine/pyrimidine analogues
1. Foscarnet: phosphate analog
2. Fomivirsen: anti-sense drug
what antiviral is a fusion inhibitor
what antiviral is an entry inhibitor
fusion inhibitor:
ENFUVIRTIDE

entry inhibitor:
MARAVIROC
what is an aerosol approved drug that is used in the US for RSV bronchilitis and pneumonia in hospitalized children
RIBAVIREN
what primarily treats influenza A? (2)
mechanism?
1. Amantadine
2. Rimantadine

inhibits replication of influenza A (probably at absorption) endocytosis and uncoating that precedes primary transcription
what drugs (2) can treat influenza A and B?
mechanism?
1. Zanamivir (intranasal)
2. Oseltamivir (pro-drug, ORAL)

inhibit viral glycoprotein neuraminidase
what is PalivizuMAB
human monoclonal ab against the F glycoprotein on the surface of RSV
what four drugs are approved for treating HBV
1. Lamivudine
2. Adefovir
3. Telbivudine
4. Entecavir
what drug is approved to treat HPV?

mechanism
IMIQUIMOD
1. immune response modifier
2. induces mRNA encoding cytokines (interferon alpha) at the treatment site
3. DOES NOT eradicate HPV, just treat symptoms
what are the FOUR first line drugs to treat tuberculosis
Pyrazinamide
Isoniazid
Ethambutol
Rifampin
what is Isoniazid used for?
mech?
BEST treatment of tuberculosis
1. inhibition of synthesis of enzymes needed for mycolic acid synthesis
2. mediated via oxygen dependent pathways (catalase peroxidase reaction)
3. BACTERIOSTATIC
what is RIFAMPIN used for?
mech?
BACTERIOCIDAL treats TB and LEPROSY
1. blocks bacterial RNA synthesis by binding to DNA dependent RNA polymerase
contraindication of RIFAMPIN
CANNOT use with PROTEASE INHIBITORS in HIV patients
what is the most effective drug against LEPROSY
DAPSONE!!!
1. folic acid synthesis inhibitor
what are the 3 primary mechanism for DNA synthesis inhibitions (basic)
1. folate synthesis inhibitors
2. folate reductase inhibitors
3. topoisomerase DNA Gyrase Enzyme Inhibitors
what FOUR drugs are indicated against staphylococci that are penicillinase producers
1. Dicloxacillin (very effective orally, thats what she said)
2. Cloxacillin
3. Oxacillin
4. Nafcillin
route of administration for AMOXICILLIN
ORAL
-achieves higher blood levels and lower incidence of diarrhea than penicillin
what cell wall inhibitor has the highest incidence of Steven Johnson syndrome
AMPICILLIN