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117 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1) Arrhythmias may result in:
a) Decrease in cardiac output
b) Tissue ischemia
c) Syncope
d) Sudden death
1) In general pts experiencing an arrhythmia may have a varying degree of symptoms
a) Asymptomatic
b) Mildly symptomatic (palpitations)
c) Moderately symptomatic (weak or heart failure)
d) Highly symptomatic (loss of consciousness or sudden death)
1) Antiarrhythmic drugs may be life saving in a pt experiencing what degree of symptoms?
a) moderately to highly symptomatic pts
1) Review of resting membrane potential
a) The membrane potential of the cardiac cells is determined by the concentration of Na+, K+, and Ca+ on either side of the membrane
b) These ions move across the membrane in response to Electrico-Chemical gradient
c) The typical cardiac cell resting membrane potential is ~80-95 mV
• Maintained by the NA/k ATPase and K+ channels
d) Inward rectifier K+ channels are open at negative transmembrane potentials (late phase 3&4)
• As a consequence, K+ can move across the resting membrane in response to the electrochemical gradient
• The concentration gradient is slightly > than the Electrical gradient at rest
e) Channel Level
• Closed --> Open --> Inactivated --> Closed
• The inactivated channels cannot open
f) Tissue level
• Excitable --> Excited --> Refractory --> excitable
• Refractory means that there is to many channels inactivated to depolarize
1) Increased Automaticity (of the SA node) can be caused by:
a) any change that decreases the time required for depolarization from the maximal diastolic potential to the threshold potential.
b) Increased automaticity occurs if the rate of diastolic depolarization (the slope of phase 4) in the SA node or in the latent pace maker is increased
c) **there is no resting membrane potential of the SA node…it just drifts positive until it reaches the threshold to create an action potential
1) Early After Depolarization (EAD) – are induced by
a) bradycardia (spread out QT interval)
1) Late After Depolarization (LAD)(aka DAD) – are induced by
a) tachycardia (shortened QT interval)
• Ca+ overload can lead to LAD
1) 3 Necessary events for Re-entry to occur
a) Obstacle to normal Action Potential Conduction
b) Unidirectional Block
c) Conduction time must exceed refractory period
1) Reentry is characterized by :
a) the retrograde conduction of impulse into previously depolarized tissue
b) It is usually characterized by the presence of a unidirectional conduction block in a bifurcating conduction pathway
1) Reentry In Ventricular Tissue,
a) the unidirectional block is often caused by decremental conduction of the impulse in the anterograde direction, with normal conduction of the impulse in the retrograde direction
1) Reentry in the AV node
a) is the most common electrophysiologic mechanism responsible for PSVT.
b) Reentry occurs when a premature atrial depolarization arrives at the AV node and finds that one pathway(B) is still refractory from the previous depolarization. The other pathway(a) however is able to conduct the impulse to the ventricle. Retrograde conduction of the impulse through pathway (B) leads to reentry of the atrium and results in tachycardia. In the AV node, the unidirectional block results from the (B) pathways longer refractory period, which blocks anterograde conduction but permits retrograde conduction after it has recovered its excitability
• The distal common pathway is still refractory so this has very little effect on the ventricles
1) In general, antiarrhythmic drugs can:
a) Decrease automaticity of ectopic pace makers
b) Reduce conduction and excitability more in depolarized tissue than in normal tissue
c) Increase the refractory period to a greater extent in depolarized tissue than in normal tissue
1) Mechanisms of available drugs
a) Class I = Block Na+ channels
• Broken down into 1a, ab, and 1C
b) Class II = Block sympathetic autonomic effects on the heart (BB)
c) Class III = Prolong the refractory period
• by prolonging the action potential,
• usually by K+ channel blockers
d) Class IV = Block Ca+ channels (CCB)
e) Others = digoxin, adenosine, Magnesium sulfate
1) Steps in the management of atrial flutter / fibrillation and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)
a) Step 1
• Carotid sinus massage / valsalva maneuver
b) Steps 2,3,4 (Can be used in any order)
• Drugs to slow ventricular rate
(1) -----Esmolol
(2) -----CCB
(3) -----Digoxin
(4) -----Adenosine
• Drugs to convert atrial rhythm
(1) -----Ibutilide
(2) -----Defetilide
(3) -----Soralol
• Electroversion (shock them) if drugs don’t work, or as 1st choice

c) Step 5
• Long term management
(1) -----Amiodarone
(2) -----Sotalol
(3) -----Flecainide
d) Step 6
• Catheter
• surgical oblation
• Pacemaker
1) Steps in the management of ventricular arrhythmias
a) Steps 1 &2 (in any order)
• Drugs to convert rhythm
(1) -----Amiodarone (possibly with epinephrine)
(2) -----Procainamide
• Electricoconversion (shock them) if the drugs don’t work or as 1st choice
b) Step 3
• Long term management
(1) -----Amiodarone
(2) -----Sotalol
(3) -----Flecainide
c) Step 4
• Catheter
• Surgical oblation
• Pacemaker
-----Implantable cardioverter –defibulator
1) What drugs are included in class 1A
a) Quinidine
b) Dispyramide
c) Procainamide
1) What drugs are included in class 1B
a) Lidocaine
b) Mexiletine
c) Tocainide
1) What drugs are included in class 1C
a) Flecainide
b) Propafenone
1) What drugs are included in class II
a) BB
• Esmolol
• Propranlol
• Metoprolol
• Carvedilol
1) What drugs are included in class III
a) Amiodarone
b) Dofetilide
c) Ibutilide
d) Sotalol
1) What drugs are included in class IV
a) Non- dihydropyridine Ca+ channel blockers
• Verapamil
• Diltiazem
1) What “other” drugs are used as antiarrhythmics? (not in a class)
a) Adenosine
b) Digoxin
c) Magnesium Sulfate
1) MOA of Quinidine
a) Block Na+ Channels
• Has the highest affinity for the Na+ channel when it is open
1) Characteristic of class 1A
a) Decrease ectopic automaticity of the AV node
b) Prolongs QRS duration
• By slowing phase 0 depolarization
c) Prolongs QT interval
• By slowing phase 3 repolarization
d) Rate of disassociation = Slow
• The slower it disassociates the more it affects HR
e) Therefore class 1A slows conduction and increases refractory periods, thereby increasing the QRS duration and the QT interval. They are primarily used for the long term suppression of arrhythmias
1) DOA of Quinidine
a) 7 hours
1) Elimination half life of Quinidine
a) 6 hours
1) Can Quinidine be used during pregnancy?
a) yes
1) Adverse effects of Quinidine
a) Cardiac
• Leads to normal sinus rhythm but 2-3x increase in mortality
• Can cause torsade de pointes
• Not used frequently
b) Non cardiac
• Diarrhea
• Nausea
• Vomiting
• Headache
• Dizziness
• Tinnitus
c) Drug interactions
• Increases digoxin plasma levels (possibility for digoxin toxicity)
1) MOA of Dispyramide
a) Block Na+ Channels
• Has the highest affinity for the Na+ channel when it is open
1) DOA of Dispyramide
a) 6 hours
1) Elimination half life of Dispyramide
a) 7 hours
1) MOA of Procainamide
a) Block Na+ Channels
• Has the highest affinity for the Na+ channel when it is open
1) DOA of Procainamide
a) 5 hours
1) Elimination half life of Procainamide
a) 3.5 hours
1) Adverse Effects of Procainamide
a) Cardiac (Similar to quinidine)
• Leads to normal sinus rhythm but 2-3x increase in mortality
• Can cause torsade de pointes
• Not used frequently
b) Non cardiac
• Long term use can lead to a Lupus erythematosus like syndrome (in 1/3 patients)
(1) -----Characterized by arthralgia and arthritis, pleuritis, and pericarditis
c) Not typically a first choice drug
1) Can Procainamide be used during pregnancy?
a) It Can be used Acutely during pregnancy
1) MOA of Lidocaine
a) Block Na+ Channels
• Has the highest affinity for the Na+ channel when it is Inactivated
1) Characteristic of class 1B
a) Decrease ectopic automaticity of the AV node
b) No change in QRS duration
c) No change / Decrease QT interval
• Has little effect on cardiac tissue but it can accelerate phase 3 repolarization (decreasing QT interval slightly)
d) Rate of disassociation = Rapid
• The slower it disassociates the more it affects HR
e) They have little effect on normal cardiac tissue and ECG findings, but they can decrease the QT interval slightly.
1) ROA Lidocaine
a) Only IV
• Lidocaine has to be administered IV for the Tx of acute ventricular arrhythmias (not first choice drug)
1) Elimination half life of Lidocaine
a) 1.5 hours
1) Adverse effects of Lidocaine
a) Cardiac
• Relatively few side effects compared to class I drugs
• May worsen ventricular arrhythmias in some patients
b) Non cardiac
• Parasthesias (pin and needle sensation)
• Tremor
• Nausea
• Lightheadedness
• Slurred speech
c) Convulsions
1) MOA of Mexiletine
a) Block Na+ Channels
• Has the highest affinity for the Na+ channel when it is Inactivated
1) Clinical use of Mexiletine
a) Mexiletine and Tocainide, oral congeners of lidocaine, have been used for long term prophylaxis
1) DOA of Mexiletine
a) 10 hours
1) Elimination half life of Mexiletine
a) 11 hours
1) Adverse effects of Mexiletine
a) Cardiac
• Relatively few side effects compared to class I drugs
• May worsen ventricular arrhythmias in some patients
b) Non cardiac
• Parasthesias (pin and needle sensation)
• Tremor
• Nausea
• Lightheadedness
• Slurred speech
c) Convulsions
1) MOA of Tocainide
a) Block Na+ Channels
• Has the highest affinity for the Na+ channel when it is Inactivated
1) Clinical use of Tocainide
a) Mexiletine and Tocainide, oral congeners of lidocaine, have been used for long term prophylaxis
1) DOA of Tocainide
a) 12 hours
1) Elimination half life of Tocainide
a) 12 hours
1) Adverse effects of Tocainide
a) Cardiac
• Relatively few side effects compared to class I drugs
• May worsen ventricular arrhythmias in some patients
b) Non cardiac
• Parasthesias (pin and needle sensation)
• Tremor
• Nausea
• Lightheadedness
• Slurred speech
• Convulsions
c) ***Tocainide can cause agranulocytosis (can lead to hospitalization style pneumonia)
1) MOA of Flecainide
a) Block Na+ Channels
• Has the highest affinity for the Na+ channel when it is open
1) Characteristic of class 1C
a) Decrease ectopic automaticity of the AV node
b) Prolongs QRS duration (markedly increased)
• Has the greatest effect on slowing phase 0 depolarization
c) Prolongs QT interval (some but not much)
• Slows phase 3 repolarization
d) Rate of disassociation = Very Slow
• The slower it disassociates the more it affects HR
e) They have greater effect than other Na+ channel blockers on cardiac conduction but have little effect on the action potential duration
1) Flecainide and propafenone are used to tx _______________
a) supraventricular arrhythmias and life threatening arrhythmias
1) DOA of Flecainide
a) 21 hours
1) Elimination half life of Flecainide
a) 14 hours
1) Adverse Effects of Flecainide
a) bronchospasm
b) seizure
1) Can Flecainide be used during pregnancy?
a) Flecainide can be used during pregnancy and is a 1st line choice for fetal SVT
1) MOA of Propafenone
a) Block Na+ Channels
b) Has the highest affinity for the Na+ channel when it is open
1) DOA of Propafenone
a) 10 hours
1) Elimination Half Life of Propafenone
a) 6 hours
1) Adverse effects of Propafenone
a) Agranulocytosis
b) Anemia
1) Which BB can be used as antiarrhythmics?
a) Esmolol
b) Propranlol
c) Metoprolol
d) Carvedilol
1) Class II specific information
a) Beta blockers
b) Used to tx supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias
c) Reduce sudden death in myocardial infarction
d) The only drugs that reduce mortality in asymptomatic patients (or not increase mortality rate)
e) Class II and class Iv drugs slow phase 5 depolarization in the SA node and increase the PP interval. They also slow the AV node conduction velocity and increase the PR interval.
• Decrease HR (PRIMARY EFFECT)
• Increase PR interval
• No change in QRS or QT interval
1) MOA of Amiodarone
a) Blocks K+ channels (slowing repolarization)
• Enhancing inward currents (e.g. Na+)
1) Class III specific information
a) Prolong Action potential duration
b) Increases QT interval
• Markedly prolong phase 3
• They have no effect on phase 0 – therefore they do not change the QRS interval
1) Electricophysical properties of Amiodarone
a) Increase refractory period of AV node
b) Increase refractory period of the His purkinje system and ventricle
c) **Increase the PR interval
d) Increase the QT interval
e) Potent inhibitor of abnormal automaticity
1) Onset of action of Amiodarone
a) 2 weeks
1) DOA of Amiodarone
a) 4 weeks
1) Elimination half life of Amiodarone
a) 40 days
1) Amiodarone has _______class activity
a) class I, II, III, and IV
• Its biggest effect is on class III activity
1) Therapeutic uses of Amiodarone
a) Avoid during pregnancy
b) Oral for long term suppression of atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
c) IV administration for terminating acute ventricular arrhythmias
d) This is one of the few drugs that prolongs QT interval w/o triggering torsade
1) Adverse effects of Amiodarone
a) Blue gray skin discoloration
b) Thyroid abnormalities
• Both hyper and hypo
c) Neurological effects
• Parasthesias
• Tremor
• Ataxia
• Headaches
d) Pulmonary fibrosis
• Cough
• Dyspnea
• Decreased CO2 diffusion
1) Drug interactions of Amiodarone
a) Decreased clearance of many drugs
• Warfarin
• Quinidine
• Procainamide
• Flecainide
• Digoxin (digoxin toxicity)
1) MOA of Dofetilide
a) Blocks K+ channels (slowing repolarization)
• Potent blocker of Ikr
• Enhancing inward currents (e.g. Na+)
1) Electricophysical properties of Dofetilide
a) Increase refractory period of AV node
b) Increase refractory period of the His purkinje system and ventricle
c) ***No change in the PR interval
d) Increase the QT interval
1) Onset of action of Dofetilide
a) 1 hour
1) DOA of Dofetilide
a) 12 hours
1) Elimination half life of Dofetilide
a) 10 hours
1) Clinical use of Dofetilide
a) Potent blocker of Ikr that is used to maintain sinus rhythm after cardioversion of atrial fibrillation or flutter
b) Increases QT interval
• Dose must be titrated to avoid excess QT interval prolongation
c) Can cause torsade de pointes
1) MOA of Ibutilide
a) Blocks K+ channels (slowing repolarization)
• Enhancing inward currents (e.g. Na+)
1) Electricophysical properties of Ibutilide
a) Increase refractory period of AV node
b) Increase refractory period of the His purkinje system and ventricle
c) ***No change / Increase the PR interval
d) Increase the QT interval
1) Onset of action of Ibutilide
a) 5 min
1) DOA of Ibutilide
a) N/A
b) IV only
1) Elimination half life of Ibutilide
a) = 6 hours
1) Can Ibutilide be used during pregnancy?
a) Avoid during pregnancy
1) Clinical use of Ibutilide
a) Use IV to convert pts with atrial flutter or fibrillations to normal sinus rhythm
b) Slows repolarization and prolongs cardiac action potentials
c) Can cause torsade de pointes
1) MOA of Sotalol
a) Blocks K+ channels (slowing repolarization)
• Enhancing inward currents (e.g. Na+)
1) Sotalol belongs to what class of antiarrhythmics?
a) This drug has both Class II activity ( beta blocking) and Class III activity
• He mentions it in the class III section though
• Slows repolarization and prolongs action potential
1) Electricophysical properties of Sotalol
a) Increase refractory period of AV node
b) Increase refractory period of the His purkinje system and ventricle
c) ***Increase the PR interval
d) Increase the QT interval
1) Onset of action of Sotalol
a) 2 hour
1) DOA of Sotalol
a) 15 hours
1) Elimination half life of Sotalol
a) 12 hours
1) Clinical use of Sotalol
a) Used for chronic suppression of supracentricular and ventricular arrhythmias
b) Can cause torsade de pointes
c) Can cause bronchospasm (therefore it has some B2 blocking activity as well)
1) What Non- dihydropyridine Ca+ channel blockers are used as antiarrhythmics?
a) Verapamil
b) Diltiazem
1) Non- dihydropyridine Ca+ channel blockers are used to treat what types of arrhythmias?
a) Treats reentrant supraventricular tachycardia
b) It also protect the ventricles in atrial flutter and fibrillations
1) Of the 2 CCB used for antiarrhythmics which one is preferred for pregnancy?
a) verapamil is preferred during pregnancy
1) Onset of action, DOA, and elimination half life for verapamil
a) Onset of action of = 2 hours
b) DOA = 9 hours
c) Elimination half life = 5 hours
1) Specific electrophysiologic properties for Class IV drugs
a) Decrease automaticity of the AV node
b) Decrease conduction velocity in the AV node
c) Increase refractory period in the AV node
• Thereby terminating the AV node reentry that is responsible for the supraventricular tachycardia
d) Decrease HR
e) Increase PR interval
• By slowing the AV node conduction velocity
f) No change in QRS or QT
g) Slow phase 4 depolarization markedly prolonging the PP interval
1) Onset of action, DOA, and elimination half life for Diltiazem
a) Onset of action = 2 hours
b) DOA = 8 hours
c) Elimination half life = 5 hours
1) What are the 3 “other” drugs used as antiarrhythmics?
a) Adenosine
b) Digoxin
c) Magnesium Sulfate
1) Effects of Adenosine on the ECG
a) Increase HR
b) Increase PR interval
c) No effect on QRS or QT
1) ROA of Adenosine
a) IV only
1) Onset of action, DOA, and elimination half life of Adenosine
a) Onset of action = 30 seconds
b) DOA = 1.5 min
c) Elimination half life = <10 seconds
1) Does adenosine get excreted in the urine?
a) Does not get excreted…it is used up in the cells to make ATP
1) Clinical use of Adenosine
a) Administered as a rapid IV bolus to terminate acute supraventricular tachycardia
b) Increases refractory period of AV node
c) DOC for prompt conversion of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
d) Can use during pregnancy
1) Adverse effects of Adenosine
a) They go away quickly
• Flushing
• Bronchospasm
• Headache
• Hypotension
• Nausea
1) MOA of Digoxin
a) Inhibits Na/K ATPase  increased K+ efflux
1) Cardiac effects of Digoxin
a) Positive ionotropic and negative chronotropic effect (doesn’t cause bradycardia like BB)
1) Can Digoxin be used during pregnancy?
a) Can use drug during pregnancy
1) Effects of Digoxin on the ECG
a) Decrease HR
b) Increase PR interval
c) No effect on QRS
d) ***Decrease QT
1) Onset of action, DOA, and elimination half life of Digoxin
a) Onset of action = 1 hour
b) DOA= 24 hours
c) Elimination half life = 35 hours
1) Effects of Magnesium Sulfate on the ECG
a) No effect on HR
b) No effect on PR
c) No effect on QRS
d) No effect on QT
1) ROA of Magnesium Sulfate
a) IV only
1) Onset of action of Magnesium Sulfate
a) <5 min
1) Is Magnesium Sulfate excreted in the urine?
a) 100% of the excess is excreted away in the urine
1) Clinical use of Magnesium Sulfate
a) Given IV to suppress drug induced arrhythmias