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30 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What article of the Constitution provides that
the executive power shall be vested in a
President of the United States?
1. V
2. II
3. III
4. IV
(2) Article II, section 1, of the Constitution
provides that executive power shall be vested
in a President of the United States
Which of the following is the most senior
officer in the armed forces?
1. Commandant of the Marine Corps
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
4. Secretary of Defense
(3) The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff,
while so serving, holds the grade of general or
admiral and outranks all other officers of the
armed forces.
Who serves as the spokesman for the
commanders of the unified combatant
commands?
1. Commander of the U.S. Joint Forces
Command
2. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
3. Secretary of the Army
4. Secretary of the Air Force
(2) Subject to the authority, direction, and
control of the SECDEF, the Chairman of the
Joint Chiefs of Staff serves as the spokesman
for the commanders of the unified combatant
commands especially on the operational
requirements of their commands.
What office monitors and evaluates
congressional proceedings and actions that
affect the Department of the Navy?
1. Office of Information
2. Office of the General Counsel of the Navy
3. Office of Program Appraisal
4. Office of Legislative Affairs
(4) The naval officer who heads the Office of
Legislative Affairs also monitors and
evaluates congressional proceedings and
actions affecting the DoN
The Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy is
assigned to what immediate office?
1. Chief of Naval Personnel
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Secretary of the Navy
4. Assistant Secretary of the Navy
(2) The MCPON’s assignment is to the
immediate office of the CNO. The MCPON
serves as the senior enlisted representative of
the Navy and acts as the primary enlisted
adviser to the CNO.
The U. S. Naval Forces Central Command’s
area of responsibility includes which of the
following areas?
1. Mediterranean
2. Middle East
3. Continental United States
4. South America
(2) As of June 1998, the U.S. Naval Forces
Central Command’s area of responsibility
consists of the Arabian Gulf and most of the
Middle East.
The Pacific Fleet’s area of responsibility
includes which of the following areas?
1. Southeast Asia
2. Arctic Ocean
3. U. S. west coast
4. Both 2 and 3 above
(4) The U.S. Navy’s Pacific Fleet covers more
than 50% of the Earth’s surface,
encompassing just over 1 million square
miles. Pacific Fleet ships are at sea in the
Pacific, Indian, and Arctic oceans from the
west cost of the United States to the Arabian
Gulf.
What command plans the amount of
education and training needed by Navy
personnel to meet manpower requirements?
1. CHNAVPERS
2. CNET
3. DIRSSP
4. COMNAVDOCCOM
(1) CHNAVPERS plans the amount of
education and training needed by Navy
personnel, including that of the Naval Reserve
to meet manpower requirements determined
by the Chief of Naval Operations
What command acquires and disposes of real
estate for the Navy and manages Navy family
housing?
1. COMNAVSEASYSCOM
2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM
3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
(3) COMNAVFACENGCOM acquires and
disposes of real estate for the Navy and
manages Navy family housing.
What command is responsible for shore-based
education and training of Navy, certain
Marine Corps, and other personnel?
1. CHNAVPERS
2. BUMED
3. DIRSSP
4. CNET
(4) CNET is responsible for assigned
shore-based education and training of Navy,
certain Marine Corps, and other personnel.
Education and training efforts support the
naval shore establishment, Naval Reserve
program, and interservice training programs
What command enhances the war-fighting
capability of the Navy and Marines by arming
our Sailors, Marines, and civilians with the
knowledge they need to save lives and
preserve resources?
1. COMNAVSAFECEN
2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
3. COMNAVSPACECOM
4. ONI
(1) COMNAVSAFECEN arms our Sailors,
Marines, and civilians with the knowledge
they need to save lives and preserve
resources. This mission is accomplished by
investigating and advocating new methods,
technology, and initiatives to improve the
safety process
The objective of any safety program is to
improve operational readiness.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. The objective of any safety program
is to improve operational readiness by
reducing personnel deaths and injuries and by
decreasing material loss and damage
Who is responsible for mishap prevention
training and maintaining appropriate records?
1. Executive officer
2. Command master chief
3. Division safety petty officer
4. All hands
(3) The division safety petty officer is
responsible for conducting assigned division
mishap prevention training and maintaining
appropriate records
What is the purpose of the command safety
council?
1. Mandate safety policy
2. Enforce safety policy
3. Develop recommendations on safety
policy
4. Conduct safety training
(3) On the command level, the safety council
convenes monthly to develop
recommendations for policy on safety matters
and to analyze progress of the overall safety
program.
Which of the following items promotes safety
awareness?
1. Posters
2. Caution signs
3. Inspections
4. All of the above
(4) You can promote safety through the use of
posters, periodic safety patrols or inspections,
and through the use of warning and caution
signs
The number of tag-out logs required depends
on the size of the ship.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. The number of tag-out logs required
depends on the ship size. For instance, larger
ships may require a separate log for each
department while a minesweeper may only
require one tag-out log for the whole ship.
After the tags are cleared and the record sheet
is filled out, where should you place the
sheet?
1. At the front of the tag-out log
2. At the back of the tag-out log in the
cleared section
3. In the index/audit record
4. In the documentation file
(2) After the tags have been cleared and the
record sheet is properly filled out for the
removal of the tags, place the sheet in the
back of the tag-out log in the cleared section
for destruction at a later time.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
passed a regulation that requires all
civilian and military employees of the federal
government to comply with what regulation?
1. Hazardous Material Control and
Management
2. HazardMaterial and Refuse Management
3. Hazard Communication Standard
4. Hazardous and Toxic Material Disposal
(3) The Hazard Communication Standard was
passed to ensure the safety of every civilian
and military employee of the federal
government
When personnel are working with hazardous
material, supervisors are NOT responsible for
ensuring that approved personal protective
clothing and equipment are maintained.
1. True
2. False
2) False. As a supervisor you are responsible
for the welfare and safety of your personnel.
When handling HAZMAT, protective clothing
and equipment must be used and maintained
When working with solvents, which of the
following actions should you take?
1. Make sure the space in which you are
working does not have adequate
ventilation
2. Remove protective clothing if it gets too
hot
3. Leave spilled solvents on the deck
4. Check the labels on all containers of liquid
(4) Check the labels on all containers. In
dealing with the hazards involved in solvents,
you should always follow all safety
precautions that pertain to hazardous material
Most cleaning compounds do NOT contain
toxic substances.
1. True
2. False
(2) False. Most solvents are toxic, and with a
few exceptions, are flammable.
Absorbents used in cleaning, applying, or
packing hazardous materials will be treated
and disposed of using the same precautions
followed for the material they absorbed.
1. True
2. False
1) True. Absorbents used in cleaning,
applying, or packing HAZMATS should be
treated using the same precautions followed
for the hazardous material they absorbed.
MOPP procedures used to establish levels of
readiness for a chemical agent attack are
flexible.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. MOPP procedures allow the CO to
adapt the requirements for protective clothing
and equipment to the degree of the threat and
working conditions at any given time.
The command decision to implement each
level of MOPP must be the result of a risk
assessment.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. Risk is the assessed difference
between the threat level and the activation of
appropriate levels of shipboard
countermeasures.
The risk of a CBR threat can be categorized
into how many levels of probability?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
(4) There are four MOPP levels of
probability.
The term MOPP stands for Mission
Organization Protective Plan.
1. True
2. False
(2) False. MOPP stands for Mission Oriented
Protective Posture
Readiness condition III (wartime steaming) is
set during what MOPP level?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
(1) A collective activity during MOPP level 1
is to set readiness condition III.
Each decontamination station is divided into
how many parts?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
(2) Each decontamination station is divided
into two parts: (1) a contaminated or unclean
section and (2) a clean section.
The closure log is maintained at all times.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. The closure log is maintained at all
times, whether the ship is in port or under
way.
DCPOs are responsible for maintaining
damage control fittings and equipment.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. DCPOs are charged with ensuring
that the material condition of spaces assigned
to them is maintained according to the
command’s damage control, fire fighting, and
defense procedures