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200 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Many organizations claim that using project management provides advantages, such as ________.
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a. higher profit margins
*b. all of these choices c. improved customer relations d. shorter development times |
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According to the Project Management Institute, a(n) ________ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
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*a. project
b. program c. product d. operation |
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If the vice president of sales initiates a project to improve direct product sales using the Internet, he or she might be the ________.
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a. project manager
b. Project Management Professional (PMP) c. program manager *d. project sponsor |
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To create a successful project, a project manager must consider scope, time, and cost and balance these often-competing goals. This is sometimes referred to in project management as the ________.
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a. quadruple constraint
b. project portfolio c. critical path *d. triple constraint |
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________ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents of the project.
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*a. Stakeholders
b. Program managers c. Human resource personnel d. Project managers |
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Project ________ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully.
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a. time
b. cost *c. scope d. quality |
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Project ________ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken.
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a. cost
b. time c. scope *d. quality |
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Project ________ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information.
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a. procurement
b. human resource c. risk *d. communications |
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Project ________ management involves acquiring goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.
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a. communications b. risk c. human resource *d. procurement |
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Project ________ management is an overarching function that affects and is affected by all of the other knowledge areas.
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*a. integration
b. procurement c. cost d. scope |
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Motivation techniques, empathic listening, team building exercises, resource histograms, and project management charts are examples of the tools and techniques project managers can use in project ________ management.
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a. integration
b. quality *c. human resource d. scope |
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In many organizations, project managers also support an emerging business strategy of project ________ management, in which organizations group and manage projects as a portfolio of investments that contributed to the entire enterprise's success.
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*a. portfolio
b. scope c. procurement d. integration |
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Which of the following helps projects succeed?
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*a. executive support
b. flexible basic requirements c. broad scope d. customized software infrastructure |
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Which IT project portfolio category helps transform business?
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a. growth
*b. venture c. core d. mature |
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Generally, a ________ focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives, while inspiring people to reach those goals.
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a. sponsor
b. stakeholder *c. leader d. manager |
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Generally, a ________ often deals with the day-to-day details of meeting specific goals.
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a. leader
*b. manager c. stakeholder d. sponsor |
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A ________ is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format.
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a. critical path
*b. Gantt chart c. resource histogram d. network diagram |
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Members of the Navy Polaris missile/submarine project first used ________ in 1958 to help managers model the relationships among project tasks.
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a. network diagrams
b. resource histograms c. critical paths d. Gantt charts |
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By August 2008, there were roughly how many certified Project Management Professionals (PMPs)?
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*a. 295,000
b. 125,000 c. 184,000 d. 105,000 |
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Microsoft Project is the most widely used project management software today and is an example of a ________ tool.
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a. low-end
b. high-end c. diagramming *d. midrange |
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To handle complex situations effectively, project managers need to take a holistic view of a project and understand how it relates to the larger organization. ________ describes this holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization.
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*a. systems thinking
b. systems management c. systems philosophy d. systems analysis |
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________ addresses the business, technological, and organizational issues associated with creating, maintaining, and making a change to a system.
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a. Systems philosophy
*b. Systems management c. Systems analysis d. Systems thinking |
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Which of the following best describes a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of the system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs?
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a. systems thinking
b. systems philosophy *c. systems analysis d. systems management |
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Which of the following is an overall model for thinking about things as systems?
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a. systems management
b. systems analysis c. systems thinking *d. systems philosophy |
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The idea of addressing the three spheres of systems management - business, ________, and technology - can have a huge impact on selecting and managing projects successfully.
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a. quality
*b. organization c. scope d. cost |
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Which organizational frame is very rational and focuses on coordination and control?
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a. political frame
*b. structural frame c. human resources frame d. symbolic frame |
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The ________ frame recognizes that there are often mismatches between the needs of the organization and the needs of individuals and groups and works to resolve any potential problems.
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a. structural
b. political c. symbolic *d. human resources |
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What is most important about any event in an organization is not what actually happened, but what it means. This philosophy describes the ________ frame.
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a. structural
b. human resources *c. symbolic d. political |
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A ________ organizational structure is the hierarchy most people think of when picturing an organizational chart.
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a. project
*b. functional c. political d. matrix |
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An organization that uses a ________ organizational structure earns revenue primarily from performing projects for other groups under contract. These companies often hire people specifically to work on particular projects.
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a. functional
*b. project c. political d. matrix |
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Project managers in ________ organizational structures have staff from various functional areas working on their projects.
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*a. matrix
b. political c. project d. functional |
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In organizational culture, the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment describes a ________.
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a. conflict tolerance approach
*b. open-systems focus c. risk tolerance approach d. means-ends orientation |
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Some projects have a senior manager called a ________ who acts as a key proponent for a project.
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a. project manager
b. stakeholder c. sponsor *d. champion |
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A ________ is a collection of project phases.
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a. predictive life cycle
*b. project life cycle c. product life cycle d. systems development life cycle |
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In the ________ life cycle phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders.
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a. concept
*b. implementation c. close-out d. development |
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In a ________ life cycle, the project team spends a large portion of the project effort attempting to clarify the requirements of the entire system and then producing a design.
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a. project
b. product *c. predictive d. systems development |
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Important attributes of the ________ life cycle model are that the projects are mission driven and component based, using time-based cycles to meet target dates.
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a. systems development
*b. Adaptive Software Development (ASD) c. predictive d. agile software development |
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The waterfall, spiral, incremental build, prototype, and Rapid Application Development (RAD) models are examples of a ________ life cycle model.
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*a. predictive
b. Scrum c. Adaptive Software development (ASD) d. agile software development |
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Known as phase exits or kill points, ________ are very important for keeping projects on track and determining if they should be continued, redirected, or terminated.
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*a. management reviews
b. stakeholder reviews c. sponsor evaluations d. feasibility evaluations |
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Which of the following is a Web-based conferencing tool that a multinational organization can use to record demos that can be stored in the organization's wiki?
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a. XPlanner
b. Skype *c. WebEx d. TRAC |
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Project management ________ progress from initiation activities to planning activities, executing activities, monitoring and controlling activities, and closing activities.
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a. methodologies
b. knowledge areas *c. process groups d. life cycles |
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Which project management process group includes devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project address the organization's needs?
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a. closing
*b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling |
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Examples of the ________ project management process group include acquiring and developing the project team, performing quality assurance, distributing information, managing stakeholder expectations, and conducting procurements.
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*a. executing
b. closing c. initiating d. planning |
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________ processes take place during each phase of a project. Therefore, you cannot equate process groups with project phases.
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a. Closing
b. Executing *c. Initiating d. Planning |
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A common ________ process is performance reporting, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track.
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a. executing
b. closing c. planning *d. monitoring and controlling |
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Archiving project files, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project are all activities often involved in which project management process group?
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*a. closing
b. monitoring and controlling c. planning d. executing |
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The level of activity and length of each process group varies for every project. Normally, the ________ processes require the most resources and time, followed by the planning processes.
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a. planning
*b. executing c. closing d. monitoring and controlling |
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The ________ processes are usually the shortest and require the least amount of resources and time.
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a. monitoring and controlling
b. executing and closing c. initiating and planning *d. initiating and closing |
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Research suggests that companies working to implement best practices should spend at least ________ percent of project time in initiating and planning.
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a. 50
b. 40 *c. 20 d. 30 |
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If changes to the project objectives or plans are required, ________ processes ensure that these changes are made efficiently and effectively to meet stakeholder needs and expectations.
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a. executing
*b. monitoring and controlling c. initiating d. planning |
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The majority of project management processes occur as part of the ________ process group.
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a. monitoring and controlling
b. closing c. initiating *d. planning |
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A ________ describes how things should be done, and different organizations often have different ways of doing things.
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a. life cycle
*b. methodology c. PMBOK Guide d. Rational Unified Process (RUP) |
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Which of the following is an iterative software development process that focuses on team productivity and delivers software best practices to all team members?
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a. Scrum
b. extreme programming (XP) c. agile software development *d. Rational Unified Process (RUP) |
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An organization may initiate information technology projects for several reasons, but the most important reason is to ________.
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a. gain customer loyalty
*b. support business objectives c. increase profits d. improve product quality |
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A business case often includes which of the following?
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a. schedule estimates
b. preliminary project requirements c. critical assumptions and constraints *d. all of these choices |
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Which of the following is an output of project initiation?
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*a. project charter
b. finalized Gantt chart c. defined task resources d. work breakdown structure |
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Which of the following is a common output of the planning process?
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a. Identifying key stakeholders.
b. Creating the procurement management plan. c. Assigning the project manager. *d. Creating the project management plan. |
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Which of the following is a common output of the closing process?
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*a. a lessons-learned report
b. a cost estimate c. change requests d. quality control updates |
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The ________ process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end.
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*a. closing
b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling |
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Which of the following is an output of the monitoring and controlling processes?
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a. the project charter
b. qualified sellers list c. the stakeholders register *d. change requests |
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Project ________ management involves coordinating all of the other project management knowledge areas throughout a project's life cycle.
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*a. integration
b. quality c. time d. scope |
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Which of the following primary processes of integration management involves identifying, evaluating, and managing changes throughout the project life cycle?
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a. Developing the project management plan.
*b. Performing integrated change control. c. Monitoring and controlling the project work. d. Directing and managing project execution. |
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Which of the following primary processes of integration management involves carrying out the project management plan by performing the activities included in it?
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a. Performing integrated change control.
*b. Directing and managing project execution. c. Monitoring and controlling the project work. d. Developing the preliminary project scope statement. |
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Which of the following primary processes of integration management involves overseeing activities to meet the performance objectives of the project?
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a. Directing and managing project execution.
b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement. *c. Monitoring and controlling the project work. d. Performing integrated change control. |
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________ management involves identifying and managing the points of interaction between various elements of the project.
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a. Configuration
b. Scope c. Integration *d. Interface |
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Which of the following involves determining long-term objectives by analyzing the strengths and weaknesses of an organization, studying opportunities and threats in the business environment, predicting future trends, and projecting the need for new products and services?
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a. project planning
b. project integration management *c. strategic planning d. configuration management |
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After identifying strategic goals, the next step in the planning process for selecting information technology projects is to perform a ________.
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a. net present value analysis
b. stakeholder analysis c. SWOT analysis *d. business area analysis |
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One method for selecting projects based on broad organizational needs is to determine whether they first meet three important criteria: need, ________, and will.
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a. schedule
*b. funding c. quality d. cost |
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It is often easier to get approval and funding for projects that address ________ because the organization must respond to these categories of projects to avoid hurting their business.
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a. problems, opportunities and directives
*b. problems or directives c. problems or opportunities d. opportunities or directives |
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An organization should consider only projects with a positive ________ if financial value is a key criterion for project selection.
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*a. net present value
b. cost of capital c. payback analysis d. cash flow |
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Which of the following describes benefits minus costs or income minus expenses?
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a. net present value
*b. cash flow c. cost of capital d. payback analysis |
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Which of the following is also called the capitalization rate or opportunity cost of capital?
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a. cash flow
b. net present value *c. discount rate d. discount factor |
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In net present value (NPV) analysis, the ________ is a multiplier for each year based on the discount rate and year.
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a. cost of capital
*b. discount factor c. cash flow d. discount rate |
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________ is the result of subtracting the project costs from the benefits and then dividing by the costs.
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*a. Return on investment (ROI)
b. Required rate of return c. Net present value (NPV) d. Internal rate of return (IRR) |
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You can determine a project's ________ by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of zero for the project.
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*a. internal rate of return (IRR)
b. net present value (NPV) c. required rate of return d. return on investment (ROI) |
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A ________ is a tool that provides a systematic process for selecting projects based on many criteria. These criteria can include factors such as meeting broad organizational need or addressing problems, opportunities, or directives.
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*a. weighted scoring model
b. change control board (CCB) c. discount rate d. balanced scorecard |
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A(n) ________ is a methodology that converts an organization's value drivers, such as customer service, innovation, operational efficiency, and financial performance, to a series of defined metrics.
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*a. balanced scorecard
b. weighted scoring model c. change control board (CCB) d. internal rate of return (IRR) |
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After top management decides on which projects to pursue, it needs to create and distribute documentation to authorize project initiation. This documentation can take many forms, but one common form is the ________.
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a. project management plan
b. scope statement *c. project charter d. team contract |
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A ________ consists of an approved project management plan plus approved changes.
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a. project charter
b. scope statement c. weighted scoring model *d. baseline |
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________ involves identifying, evaluating, and managing changes throughout the project life cycle.
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*a. Integrated change control
b. Configuration management c. A change control system d. A change control board (CCB) |
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One of the most important and most difficult aspects of project management is defining the ________ of the project.
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a. business objectives
b. budget *c. scope d. outputs |
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________ can be product-related, such as a piece of hardware or software, or process-related, such as a planning document or meeting minutes.
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a. Prototypes
b. Project scope management *c. Deliverables d. Scope statements |
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Which of the following processes of project scope management involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them?
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a. scope verification
*b. collecting requirements c. scope definition d. creating the WBS |
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Which of the following processes of project scope management involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components?
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a. scope verification
b. scope control *c. creating the WBS d. scope definition |
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Key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables of the project during the ________ process of project scope management.
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a. scope control
*b. scope verification c. creating the WBS d. scope definition |
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Which of the following processes of project scope management involves reviewing the project charter and preliminary scope statement created during the initiation process and adding more information during the planning process as requirements are developed and change requests are approved?
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a. creating the WBS
b. scope verification *c. scope definition d. scope control |
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________ is the first step in project scope management and is often the most difficult.
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a. Defining scope
b. Estimating costs *c. Collecting requirements d. Scheduling milestones |
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The project scope statement, stakeholder requirements documentation, and organizational process assets are the primary inputs for creating a ________.
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*a. work breakdown structure
b. work package c. scope baseline d. prototype |
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A ________ represents the lowest level of work that the project manager is using to monitor and control the project.
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a. milestone
b. work breakdown structure *c. work package d. scope baseline |
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One approach for constructing a WBS is the ________, in which you use a similar project's WBS as a starting point.
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*a. analogy approach
b. bottom-up approach c. top-down approach d. mind-mapping approach |
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In which approach to creating a WBS do team members first identify as many specific tasks related to the project as possible?
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a. analogy approach
b. top-down approach c. mind-mapping approach *d. bottom-up approach |
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Most project managers consider the ________ of WBS construction to be conventional: You start with the largest items of the project and break them into their subordinate items.
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*a. top-down approach
b. mind-mapping approach c. analogy approach d. bottom-up approach |
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Instead of writing tasks down in a list or immediately trying to create a structure for tasks, the ________ allows people to write and even draw pictures of ideas in a nonlinear format.
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a. analogy approach
b. top-down approach c. bottom-up approach *d. mind-mapping approach |
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Which of the following is a basic principle that applies to creating any good WBS and its WBS dictionary?
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*a. A WBS item is the responsibility of only one individual, even though many people may be working on it.
b. Project team members should rarely be involved in developing the WBS. c. A unit of work should appear at several places in the WBS. d. The work content of a WBS item is the sum of the WBS items above it. |
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The approved project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary form the ________.
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a. scope verification
b. project management plan *c. scope baseline d. work package |
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Even when the project scope is fairly well defined, many information technology projects suffer from ________, which is the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger.
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a. scope verification
b. kill points c. scope control *d. scope creep |
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The project management plan, requirements documentation, the requirements traceability matrix, and validated deliverables are the main inputs for ________.
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a. scope control
b. scope creep *c. scope verification d. the work breakdown structure |
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________ is the difference between planned and actual performance.
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*a. Variance
b. Decomposition c. Scope creep d. Scope baseline |
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________ uses highly organized and intensive workshops to bring together project stakeholders - the sponsor, users, business analysts, programmers, and so on - to jointly define and design information systems.
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a. Mind mapping
*b. Joint Application Design (JAD) c. Prototyping d. The bottom-up approach |
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________ is a process for identifying and modeling business events, who initiated them, and how the system should respond to them.
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*a. Use case modeling
b. Mind mapping c. Joint Application Design (JAD) d. Prototyping |
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Which of the following processes of project time management involves identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities?
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a. activity definition
*b. activity sequencing c. activity resource estimating d. activity duration estimating |
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Activity resource requirements, a resource breakdown structure, requested changes, and updates to the activity attributes and resource calendars are the main outputs of ________.
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a. activity duration estimating
*b. activity resource estimating c. activity sequencing d. activity definition |
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Which of the following processes of project time management involves identifying the specific activities that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables?
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a. activity sequencing
b. activity duration estimating c. activity resource estimating *d. activity definition |
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Which of the following processes of project time management involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities?
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*a. activity duration estimating
b. activity sequencing c. activity definition d. activity resource estimating |
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A(n) ________ on a project is a significant event that normally has no duration.
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a. dependency
*b. milestone c. activity attribute d. activity list |
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A project team might follow good practice and not start the detailed design of a new information system until the users sign off on all of the analysis work. This is an example of a(n) ________ dependency.
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a. finish-to-finish
b. mandatory c. external *d. discretionary |
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A(n) ________ dependency is inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project and is sometimes referred to as hard logic.
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a. discretionary
*b. mandatory c. finish-to-finish d. external |
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A _______ is a schematic display of the logical relationships among, or sequencing of, project activities.
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a. tracking Gantt chart
*b. network diagram c. Gantt chart d. critical path |
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Which of the following describes a relationship where the "from" activity must be finished before the "to" activity can be finished?
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a. start-to-finish
b. start-to-start c. finish-to-start *d. finish-to-finish |
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On several information technology projects, a group of activities all start simultaneously, such as the many tasks that occur when a new system goes live. This is an example of which type of relationship?
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*a. start-to-start
b. start-to-finish c. finish-to-start d. finish-to-finish |
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A ________ is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type.
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a. work breakdown structure
b. tracking Gantt chart c. schedule baseline *d. resource breakdown structure |
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The planned schedule dates for activities are called the ________.
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*a. baseline dates
b. schedule baselines c. nodes d. milestones |
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________ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration.
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*a. Critical path method (CPM)
b. Activity sequencing c. Critical chain scheduling d. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) |
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________ describes the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities.
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a. Fast tracking
*b. Free slack c. Total slack d. Crashing |
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In critical path analysis, a ________ determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.
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*a. forward pass
b. late start date c. late finish date d. backward pass |
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Which of the following involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence?
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a. crashing
b. multitasking *c. fast tracking d. bursting |
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________ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date.
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*a. Critical chain scheduling
b. Activity duration estimating c. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) d. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) |
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There are many issues involved in controlling changes to project schedules. It is important first to ensure that the project schedule is ________.
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a. reliable
b. flexible *c. realistic d. detailed and specific |
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________ states that work expands to fill the time allowed.
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a. Theory of Constraints (TOC)
b. Murphy's Law *c. Parkinson's Law d. PERT |
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________ occurs when a resource works on more than one task at a time.
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a. Fast tracking
b. Merging c. Crashing *d. Multitasking |
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________ means a product can be used as it was intended.
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a. Functionality
b. Conformance to requirements c. Design of experiments *d. Fitness for use |
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Which process of project quality management involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards?
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*a. quality assurance
b. quality control c. system testing d. quality planning |
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In project quality management, ________ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.
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a. system testing
b. quality assurance c. quality planning *d. quality control |
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Most information technology products cannot reach 100 percent ________, but stakeholders must define what their expectations are.
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a. performance
b. functionality *c. reliability d. maintainability |
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________ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use.
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a. Reliability
*b. Performance c. Functionality d. Maintainability |
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________ is the degree to which a system performs its intended functions.
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a. Maintainability
b. Reliability c. Performance *d. Functionality |
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Which of the following generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization?
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a. statistical sampling
b. conformance *c. benchmarking d. quality audits |
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________ often results in requested changes and validated defect repair, resulting from recommended defect repair or corrective or preventive actions. It can be very expensive, so the project manager must strive to do a good job of quality planning and quality assurance to avoid this need.
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a. Acceptance decisions
*b. Rework c. Pareto analysis d. Process adjustments |
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Which of the following corrects or prevents further quality problems based on quality control measures?
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*a. process adjustments
b. Pareto analysis c. acceptance decisions d. rework |
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Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called DMAIC, which stands for ________.
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a. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Conform
*b. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control c. Defect, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control d. Define, Measure, Accept, Improve, Control |
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Which of the following is a principle of Six Sigma?
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a. Six Sigma is not an operating philosophy, but is simply a program or a discipline to organizations who have benefited from it.
b. Using Six Sigma principles is a departmental commitment. c. Six Sigma training normally follows a holistic approach: everyone is trained together, regardless of their role in the organization. *d. Organizations that successfully implement Six Sigma principles have the ability and willingness to adopt two seemingly contrary objectives at the same time. |
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Which of the following is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the mean or average value of the population (the data being analyzed)?
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a. mean
b. yield c. standard deviation *d. normal distribution |
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A ________ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time.
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a. maturity model
*b. control chart c. Pareto diagram d. benchmark |
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Which of the following occurs between unit and system testing to test functionally grouped components?
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a. system testing
*b. integration testing c. unit testing d. user acceptance testing |
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________ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system.
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a. System testing
*b. User acceptance testing c. Unit testing d. Integration testing |
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________ is best known for his 1972 book Guide to Quality Control. He developed the concept of quality circles and pioneered the use of fishbone diagrams.
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a. Juran
b. Crosby c. Demming *d. Ishikawa |
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American industry did not recognize the theories of ________ until Japanese manufacturers started producing products that seriously challenged American products, particularly in the auto industry.
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a. Ishikawa
*b. Demming c. Crosby d. Juran |
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The cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range is called ________.
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*a. appraisal cost
b. prevention cost c. internal failure cost d. external failure cost |
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Which of the following refers to a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer?
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a. internal failure cost
*b. external failure cost c. appraisal cost d. prevention cost |
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At which level of the Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) does a process have the basic infrastructure in place to support it?
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a. quantitatively managed level
*b. managed level c. performed level d. optimizing level |
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Project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates are key outputs of which process of human resource management?
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a. managing the project team
*b. acquiring the project team c. human resource planning d. developing the project team |
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Which of the following processes of human resource management involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships?
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a. acquiring the project team
*b. human resource planning c. managing the project team d. developing the project team |
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________ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance.
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a. Acquiring the project team
*b. Developing the project team c. Managing the project team d. Human resource planning |
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Which of the following processes of human resource management involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance?
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a. human resource planning
*b. managing the project team c. acquiring the project team d. developing the project team |
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________ causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.
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a. Legitimate power
b. Extrinsic motivation c. Coercive power *d. Intrinsic motivation |
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________ states that people's behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.
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a. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
b. McCleland's Acquired-Needs Theory *c. Maslow's hierarchy of needs d. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y |
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According to ________, people are motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition. Motivators include achievement, recognition, the work itself, responsibility, advancement, and growth.
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a. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y
*b. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory c. Maslow's hierarchy of needs d. McCleland's Acquired-Needs Theory |
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According to ________, some managers follow the set of assumptions that workers dislike and avoid work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives. Other managers assume that individuals do not inherently dislike work, but consider it as natural as play or rest.
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a. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
*b. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y c. Maslow's hierarchy of needs d. McCleland's Acquired-Needs Theory |
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Which of the following types of power involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do?
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a. expert power
*b. coercive power c. reward power d. referent power |
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People hold someone with ________ in very high regard and will do what they say based on their regard for the person.
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a. legitimate power
b. coercive power c. expert power *d. referent power |
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If top management gives project managers organizational authority, project managers can use ________ in several situations, such as making key decisions without involving the project team.
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*a. legitimate power
b. coercive power c. reward power d. expert power |
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________ is the concept that the whole is equal to more than the sum of its parts.
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a. Mirroring
b. Rapport c. Empathic listening *d. Synergy |
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People tend to like people who are like themselves, and ________ helps you take on some of the other person's characteristics.
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a. synergy
b. rapport c. empathic listening *d. mirroring |
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A(n) ________ is a specific type of organizational chart that shows which organizational units are responsible for which work items.
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a. RACI chart
b. work breakdown structure (WBS) *c. organizational breakdown structure (OBS) d. responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) |
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Which of the following maps the work of the project as described in the WBS to the people responsible for performing the work as described in the OBS?
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a. resource histogram
b. staffing management plan c. RACI chart *d. responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) |
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Which of the following is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time?
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*a. resource histogram
b. RACI chart c. staffing management plan d. responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) |
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A(n) ________ describes when and how people will be added to and taken off the project team.
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a. responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
*b. staffing management plan c. RACI chart d. organizational breakdown structure (OBS) |
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Which of the following refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods?
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*a. resource loading
b. resource leveling c. overallocation d. resource histogram |
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What are the five stages of team development, according to the Tuckman model?
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a. Forming, Storming, Norming, Providing, Adjusting
b. Forming, Scheduling, Norming, Performing, Addressing c. Forming, Staffing, Naming, Performing, Adjourning *d. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning |
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According to the psychological types in the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), which of the following dimensions relates to the manner in which you gather information?
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a. extrovert/introvert (E/I)
*b. sensation/intuition (S/N) c. judgement/perception (J/P) d. thinking/feeling (T/F) |
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Which of the following processes of project communications management involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting?
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a. information distribution
*b. performance reporting c. communications planning d. managing stakeholder expectations |
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Which of the following processes of project communications management involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders?
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a. performance reporting
b. information distribution c. managing stakeholders expectations *d. communications planning |
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________ involves managing communications to satisfy the needs and expectations of project stakeholders and to resolve issues.
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a. Performance reporting
b. Communications planning *c. Managing stakeholder expectations d. Information distribution |
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________ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner.
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a. Communications planning
*b. Information distribution c. Managing stakeholders expectations d. Performance reporting |
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Because communication is so important on projects, every project should include a(n) ________, which is a document that guides project communications.
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a. information distribution plan
*b. communications management plan c. expectations management matrix d. communications infrastructure plan |
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Which of the following addresses where the project stands in terms of meeting scope, time, and cost goals?
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a. progress reports
b. performance reporting c. forecasts *d. status reports |
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________ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends.
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a. Progress reports
*b. Forecasts c. Status reports d. Performance reports |
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In the ________ conflict-handling mode, decision makers incorporate different viewpoints and insights to develop consensus and commitment.
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a. smoothing mode
b. withdrawal mode c. compromise mode *d. collaborating mode |
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Which of the following is the least desirable conflict-handling mode, because project managers retreat from an actual or potential disagreement?
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a. smoothing mode
*b. withdrawal mode c. confrontation mode d. forcing mode |
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When using the ________, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements.
|
*a. confrontation mode
b. smoothing mode c. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode |
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Managers who are very competitive or autocratic in their management style might favor the ________ approach to conflict handling.
|
a. confrontation mode
b. withdrawal mode *c. forcing mode d. smoothing mode |
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When using the ________, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement.
|
a. confrontation mode
b. forcing mode c. withdrawal mode *d. smoothing mode |
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Project team members may become stagnant or develop ________ if there are no conflicting viewpoints on various aspects of a project.
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a. rapport
b. mirroring c. synergy *d. groupthink |
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Which of the following is a guideline to help improve time spent at meetings?
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a. Make sure everyone involved on the project is in attendance.
*b. Determine if a meeting can be avoided. c. Handouts and visual aids can confuse the presentation and are inefficient. d. Don't be too specific about what should happen as a result of the meeting. |
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Which of the following is a guideline that will help you use e-mail more effectively?
|
a. Even if you can call someone or have a meeting, it is always better to send an e-mail because it's more efficient.
b. Make sure you 'reply to all' when responding to e-mail. c. Delete all your e-mail as soon as you respond to it to prevent a cluttered Inbox. *d. The body of the e-mail should be as clear and concise as possible and you should always reread your e-mail before you send it. |
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Which of the following is a reflective statement documenting important things the project team has learned from working on the project?
|
a. project archive
b. status report c. blog *d. lessons-learned report |
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________ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project.
|
*a. Project archives
b. Lessons-learned reports c. Status reports d. Blogs |
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________ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period.
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a. Status reports
*b. Progress reports c. Performance reports d. Forecasts |
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As the number of people communicating increases above ________, the number of communications channels increases rapidly.
|
*a. three
b. five c. four d. two |
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If a team of three people are working together on one particular project task, they have three communications channels. If you add two more people to their team, you would have ________ communications channels.
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a. fourteen
b. thirteen c. twelve *d. ten |
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A ________ person prefers outcomes that are more uncertain and is often willing to pay a penalty to take risks.
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*a. risk-seeking
b. risk-sharing c. risk-adverse d. risk-neutral |
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Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a ________ person. In other words, when more payoff or money is at stake, the person gains less satisfaction from the risk, or has lower tolerance for the risk.
|
a. risk-sharing
b. risk-neutral *c. risk-adverse d. risk-seeking |
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Which of the following processes of risk management involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives?
|
*a. risk response planning
b. quantitative risk analysis c. risk management planning d. qualitative risk analysis |
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Which of the following processes of risk management involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives?
|
a. qualitative risk analysis
b. risk response planning c. risk management planning *d. quantitative risk analysis |
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|
________ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence.
|
*a. Qualitative risk analysis
b. Quantitative risk analysis c. Risk management planning d. Risk response planning |
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A ________ summarizes how risk management will be performed on a particular project.
|
a. fallback plan
b. risk response plan c. contingency plan *d. risk management plan |
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________ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective.
|
a. Risk management plans
b. Contingency plans *c. Fallback plans d. Risk response plans |
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|
Which of the following is a technique by which a group attempts to generate ideas or find a solution for a specific problem by amassing ideas spontaneously and without judgement?
|
*a. brainstorming
b. Delphi technique c. risk tracking d. interviewing |
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|
Which of the following is used to derive a consensus among a panel of experts who make predictions about future developments?
|
*a. Delphi technique
b. interviewing c. risk tracking d. brainstorming |
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|
A(n) ________ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes, often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format.
|
*a. risk register
b. risk event c. flow chart d. influence diagram |
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|
Which of the following is a diagram that shows how different parts of a system interrelate, e.g., to show programming logic?
|
*a. flow charts
b. influence diagrams c. risk events d. risk registers |
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|
A(n) ________ lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other.
|
a. decision tree
b. influence diagram c. risk register *d. probability/impact matrix |
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|
Which of the following describe numbers that represent the overall risk of specific events, based on their probability of occurring and the consequences to the project if they do occur?
|
a. secondary risks
b. risk events c. triggers *d. risk factors |
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|
Which of the following involves establishing a periodic review of the project's most significant risk items with management and, optionally, with the customer?
|
a. probability/impact matrix
*b. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking c. sensitivity analysis d. Monte Carlo analysis |
|
|
A ________ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain.
|
a. watch list
b. Monte Carlo analysis c. sensitivity analysis *d. decision tree |
|
|
Which of the following simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results?
|
*a. Monte Carlo analysis
b. quantitative risk analysis c. qualitative risk analysis d. sensitivity analysis |
|
|
Which of the following response strategies for negative risks includes shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party?
|
a. risk mitigation
b. risk acceptance *c. risk transference d. risk avoidance |
|
|
Which of the following response strategies for negative risks includes reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence?
|
a. risk avoidance
b. risk transference c. risk acceptance *d. risk mitigation |
|
|
Which of the following response strategies for positive risk includes allocating ownership of the risk to another party?
|
*a. risk sharing
b. risk enhancement c. risk acceptance d. risk exploitation |
|
|
Which of the following response strategies for positive risk includes doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens?
|
a. risk acceptance
b. risk sharing *c. risk exploitation d. risk enhancement |
