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85 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are two instruments used to complete a family assessment.
Genograms and Ecomaps
All providers are highly knowledgeable
Parental naive trust
The dynamics or interactions of family members with each other and their greater society directly impacts
Child Health
Children's care occurs within the context of
The family
Children with a BMI greater than 95% are said to be
Obese
Development and cranial nerves 2-12 are usually assessed at every visit. True or False
True
What are the two leading causes of death among adolescents?
Firearms & motor vehicle crashes
What is the main leading cause of death in infants to 12 months?
Congenital malformations
The acronym BUDS stands for ___ and must be included in the pediatric history.
B-Bowels
U- Urine
D- Diet
S- Sleep
Absence of a red reflex may suggest
a cataract
White reflex instead of red reflex suggest
retinal blastoma
In the car seat rule infants and children 20 lbs are less need to sit ___ in a car seat?
Backwards
Lead poisoning can cause
Brain damage
What age should lead poisoning should be screened at?
9 to 12 months & 24 months
Height, weight and head circumference should be assessed until age
2 to 3
Unusual head shape caused by premature closure of suture lines
Craniosynostosis
To be a successful healthcare provider one must provide culturally competent care
True
A set of acquired patterns of behavior that is transmitted to those who are a part of it usually based in ethnicity, religion, class and geography
Culture
What are the 11 Gordon's Functional health patterns?
Health beliefs and behavior; Activity; Elimination; Sleep; Nutrition; Self perception; Sexuality; coping; Role relationships; values and beliefs
Angry like reaction
Disenchantment
Red reflexes is examined through age
six
Children with a BMI in the 85th to 95th % are said to be
overweight
Parental trust must be earned
guarded alliance
The acronym HEADSS used to assess the psychosocial behaviors in adolescents stands for
H- Home
E- Education, eating, employment
A- Activities with peers
D- Drugs, depression
S- Sex, Suicidality, safety
Providers are often culture bound by their own experiences in their families of origin as well as the families they subsequently create. True or False
True
The process of changing from one set of expected behaviors in a social system to another
Role Transition
The behaviors of young parents, both fathers and mothers are influenced significantly by generational beliefs and practices within families of origin
Intergenerational Learning
Most stage-based theories of development focus primarily on:
A. The continuity of development
B. The discontinuity of development
C. Persistence of inherent personality characteristics
D. The influence of context on development
B
The common practice of using "time-outs" with young children is a direct application of:
A. Operant conditioning
B Classical conditioning
C. Separation-individuation
D. Maturantional reinforcement
A
Good communtication between families, schools, and primary care providers is an example of which ecological concept?
A. Microsystem
B. Mesosystem
C. Exosystem
D. Macrosystem
B
Which of the following findings would be most likely associated with asymmetric intrauterine growth retardation:
A. Weight, length and head circumference ranging from 3rd to 5th percentile
B. Heavy maternal smoking throughout pregnancy
C. Weight at 3rd percentile and length at 25th
D. Gestational Diabetes
C
Early reflexive responses that are not related to survival include all but:
A. Babinski
B. Moro
C. Swimming
D. Rooting
D
The most likely weight of a one-year-old child whose weight at birth was 6 1/2 pounds would be:
A. 19-20 pounds
B. 13-14 pounds
C. 25-26 pounds
D. Impossible to estimate
A
One of the major psychosocial tasks of infancy is:
A. Development of secure attachment
B. Separation-individuation
C. Symbiosis
D. Regulation
A
Which developmental theory best explains the multifactorial etiology of failure-to-thrive?
A. Organismic-maturational theory
B. Social learning theory
C. Transactional theory
D. Psychoanalytic theory
C
Most healthy infants are able to reach, grasp and hold onto a rattle or other small toy by about:
A. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 8 months
D. 10 months
B
The pincer grasp is a fine motor skill that involves the ability to pick up a small object such as a raisin of piece of cereal with the thumb and forefinger that usually is mastered around:
A. 4 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 16 months
C
The majority of American infamts are able to walk by about:
A. 11 months
B. 12 months
C. 13 months
D. 14 months
D
A young child should have a first dental screening by:
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. School entry
B
You would be concerned about the language development of a child who:
A. Repeats simple phrases at 32 months
B. Stutters when excited or tired at 42 months
C. Has a vocabulary of 10 words at 12 months
D. Pronounces words that are not understandable at 36 months
D
The most common temperamental profile is:
A. Easy
B. Difficult
C. Slow-to-warm-up
D. Intermediate
A
The underlying emotion of an insecurely attached (avoidant) relationship is:
A. Ambivalence
B. Deprivation
C. Anger
D. Conditional love
C
The stage of cognitive development that Piaget described as characteristic of the way preschoolers think is the:
A. Preoperational stage
B. Mental combinations stage
C. Tertiary circular function stage
D. Sensorimotor stage
A
A preschool boy whose parents have separated and are beginning divorce procedures:
A. May think that he caused the divorce by misbehaving
B. Should not be told of the impending divorce until the parents are sure of their decision
C. Is likely to experience gender identity confusion
D. Should be able to make a decision about which parent he prefers living with
A
Which behavior would you expect to decrease during the preschool years?
A. Rough-and-tumble play
D. Instrumental aggression
C. Hostile aggression
D. Cooperative play
B
A preschool child who says that the sky is blue because it is his favorite color is illustrating the concept of:
A. Symbolic thinking
B. Egocentrism
C. Centration
D. Imaginary audience
B
Which of the following strategies would not be appropriate to include as part of your management of a 9 year old boy who is obese?
A. Referral to nutritionist for weight reduction plan
B. Increase physical excercise
C. Behavior modification strategies to deal with stress and/or reinforce treatment plan
D. Involve family in management program
A
Which of the following issues or concepts is relevant to the school-aged child?
A. Operational thinking
B. Initiative
C. Concrete operations
D. Separation-individuation
C
The first physical sign indicating the onset of female puberty is:
A. Sparsely distributed fine, pale pubic hairs
B. Breast buds
C. Menarche
D. Peak height velocity
B
Which of the following findings would be helpful in distinguishing obesity vs. large body frame in an adolescent who is concerned with her weight?
A. Tricep skinfold measurement
B. Weight-for-height ratio
C. Body mass index
D. Percent of ideal body weight
C
The most common form of child abuse seen in pediatric primary care is:
A. Burns
B. Fractures
C. Soft tissue injuries
D. Shaken baby syndrome
C
A differential diagnosis for child abuse would include all of the following except:
A. Birth marks
B. Unintentional injury
C. Inadequate parenting
D. Prader-Willi syndrome
D
Which of the following symptoms are not typical of a child with ADHD?
A. Easily distracted
B. Difficulty playing quietly
C. Doesn't follow directions
D. Frequently angry and resentful
D
Which of the following clinical findings would not suggest an eating disorder with a purging component?
A. Sore Throat
B. Brittle Nails
C. Constipation
D. Finger Calluses
B
Which of the following situations does not necessarily warrant immediate mental health assessment and/or referral?
A. 13 year old girl who has been "down" for the last month with varied somatic complaints
B. 9 year old boy whose parents recently separated and filed for a divorce and seems to be doing well
C.16 year old girl who has a history of long-standing depression but seems to be doing well in school
D. 15 year old boy who expresses suicidal thoughts
B
Which of the following is not a test for visual acuity?
A. HOTV
B. Allen figures
C. Snellen chart
D. ELM
D
The preferred method for tuberculosis screening is:
A. Mantoux
B. MPT
C. HOTV
D. DASE
A
Which adolescent would be at greatest risk for developing anorexia nervosa?
A. 12 year old female who just had her first period
B. 14 year old gymnast
C. 16 year old male runner
D. 18 year old female college student
B
Which of the following substances is associated with pupillary constriction?
A. Amphetamines
B. LSD
C. Heroin
D. Nicotine
C
A newborn infant who was recently tested and failed the evoked otoacoustic emissions audiometry (EOAE) prior to discharge should be referred for:
A. Pure tone audiometry
B. Complete diagnostic evaluation
C. Auditory brainstem response
D. Repeat EOAE within 3 months
C
A risk factor that is common to many psychosocial pediatric problems including failure to thrive, conduct or oppositional disorders, and childhood depression is:
A. Maternal depression or other psychiatric disorder
B. Substance abuse
C. Prematurity
D. History of sexual abuse
A
Which of the following diagnoses is not more common among males?
A. ADHD
B. Conduct Disorders
C. Suicide
D. FTT
D
Newborn genetic screening is required in all or most states for all of the following disorders except:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. PKU
C. Galactosemia
D. Cystic Fibrosis
D
The diagnostic criteria for Autistic disorders includes which of the following?
A. Speech delay, ataxia, mental retardation
B. Impairments in social interactions, interpersonal communication and staring spells
C. Mental retardation, impairments in social interactions and stereotypical restricted pattern of interests and activities
D. Impairments in social interactions, in interpersonal communication and stereotypical restricted pattern of interest and activities
D
In addition to specific academic skill deficits, learning disabilities are commonly associated with which of the following characteristics?
A. Perceptual-motor impairments, normal motor function
B. Perceptual motor impairment, impulsiveness
C. Perceptual motor impairments, Down Syndrome
D. Lack of impulsiveness, perceptual motor impairment
B
Sixteen-yer-old Sarah makes the following statement to you during a health visit. Which of the following pieces of information should not be kept confidential?
A. "I have been sexually active with three of my boyfriends."
B. "I sometimes smoke marijuana."
C. "I want to get pregnant."
D. "Sometimes I feel like ending my life."
D
In performing a physical examination on a nine-month-old infant, which of the following development fears would not be appropriate for you to consider?
A. Stranger anxiety
B. Pain
C. Separation from parents
D. Bodily harm
D
When performing a physical examination on a toddler, which of the following body parts would you examine last?
A. Heart and lungs
B. Abdomen and genitals
C. Ears and throat
D. Hips and extremities
C
Role play with equipment during the course of a physical examination would be most beneficial with which of the following age groups?
A. Toddlers
B. Preschoolers
C. Young school-age children
D. Older school-age children
B
Providing reassurance of "normalcy" during the course of an examination would be most important for:
A. Preschool Children
B. Young school-age children
C. Older school-age children
D. Adolescents
D
Which of the following would not elevate the pulse of a child?
A. Fever
B. Anemia
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Excercise
C
Which of the following sounds should be considered the diastolic blood pressure in children under 13 years of age?
A. The muffling sound (Korotkoff IV)
B. The disappearance of sound (Korotkoff V)
C. Korotkoff sound I
D. Korotkoff sound II
A
Blood pressure should be measured at well child visits, beginning at age:
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
B
A wide pulse pressure that results from a high systolic blood pressure is usually not due to which of the following?
A. Fever
B. Exercise
C. Excitement
D. A patent ductus arteriosus
D
Head and chest circumferences should be equal at:
A. 6 months of age
B. 1 year of age
C. 2 years of age
D. 3 years of age
B
The anterior fontanel usually closes by:
A. 2 months of age
B. 6 months of age
C. 18 months of age
D. 24 months of age
C
Diffuse edema of the soft tissue of the scalp which usually crosses suture lines in the newborn is:
A. Bossing
B. Caput succedaneum
C. Cephalohematoma
D. Macrocephaly
B
An infant should no longer have a head lag when pulled from the supine to sitting position at what age?
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
C
"Boggy" nasal mucous membranes with serous drainage upon examination usually suggests:
A. Sinusitis
B. Polyps
C. URI
D. Allergic rhinitis
D
A White instead of red reflex upon eye examination of a 1-year -old child would suggest:
A. An accommodative error
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Papilledema
D. Retinal detachment
B
A cobblestone appearance of the palpebral conjunctiva usually indicates:
A. Bacterial infection
B. Chemical irritation
C. Viral infection
D. Severe allergy
D
An eye that deviates in when covered but returns to midline when uncovered is an:
A. Esophoria
B. Exophoria
C. Esotropia
D. Exotropia
A
Pain produced by manipulation of the auricle or pressure on the tragus suggests:
A. Acute otitis media
B. Otitis externa
C. Otitis media with effusion
D. Mastoiditis
B
Hypernasal voice and snoring in a child is suggestive of:
A. Polyps of the larynx
B. Nasopharyngeal tumor
C. Hypertrophied adenoids
D. Cleft palate
C
Physiological splitting of the second heart sound during inspiration in a child:
A. Is normal
B. Should be evaluated with an EKG
C. Suggests an ASD
D. Should be referred to a cardiologist
A