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178 Cards in this Set
- Front
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Which of the following is true about progestins?
a. are not produced in males b. increase HDL and decrease LDL c. attenuate the increased risk of endometrial cancer associated with estrogen use d. progesterone, a natural progestin, is widely used in oral contraceptives e. commonly induces weight loss 2003 quiz8 q5 |
c. attenuate the increased risk of endometrial cancer associated with estrogen use
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Oral contraceptives have a positive effect on cancer prevention in which of the following organs?
a. vagina b. fallopian tube c. endometrium d. cervix e. large bowel 2003 quiz8 q6 |
c. endometrium
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Which of the following side effects may be associated with overuse of anabolic steroids?
a. testicular atrophy b. infertility c. gynecomastia d. psychotic symptoms e. all of the above 2003 quiz8 q7 |
e. all of the above
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Tamoxifen, a selective estrogen receptor modulator, has antiestrogenic action in which of the following organs?
a. mammary tissue b. endometrium c. bone d. plasma lipids e. all of the above 2003 quiz8 q8 |
a. mammary tissue
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All of the following are adverse effects associated with the use of oral contraceptive agents except:
a. edema b. breast tenderness c. nausea d. increased frequency of migraine headache e. increased risk of ovarian cancer 2002 quiz9 q7 |
e. increased risk of ovarian cancer
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Which one of the following is a synthetic estrogen used in oral contraceptives?
a. mestranol b. norgestrel c. clomiphene d. estradiol e. norethindrone 2002 quiz9 q8 |
a. mestranol
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Estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women:
a. restores bone loss accompanying osteoporosis b. may cause atrophic vaginitis c. may induce sleepless [sic] d. is most effective if instituted at the early signs of menopause e. requires higher doses than are required with oral contraceptive therapy 2002 quiz9 q9 |
d. is most effective if instituted at the early signs of menopause
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The major use of androgens is for:
a. anemia b. osteoporosis c. short stature d. replacement therapy for men with impaired testosterone production e. increase of lean body mass 2002 quiz9 q10 |
d. replacement therapy for men with impaired testosterone production
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Estrogen has negative feedback to production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone EXCEPT for ___:
a. LH surge b. ovulation c. both d. none of the above 2002 quiz9 q11 |
a. LH surge
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Estrogens should not be used in patients with the following condition?
a. Estrogen –dependent neoplasms b. undiagnosed genital bleeding c. liver disease d. thromboembolic disorder e. all of the above 2006 quiz8 q1 |
e. all of the above
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All of the following are adverse effects associated with the use of oral contraceptive agents EXCEPT:
a. breast tenderness b. edema c. nausea d. increased frequency of migraine headaches e. Increased risk of ovarian CA 2006 quiz8 q2 |
e. increased risk of ovarian cancer
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Progesterone:
a. is not produced in males b. increases HDL and decreases LDL c. attenuates the increased risk of endometrial cancer associated with estrogen use c. is more effective than estrogens when used as oral contraceptives d. b and c e. all of the above 2006 quiz8 q3 |
c. attenuates the increased risk of endometrial cancer associated with estrogen use
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Which of the following statements is (are) correct about sex hormones?
a. Brain development in the absence of sex hormones follows female lines b. Sexual differentiation of the brain can be permanently altered by the presence or absence of sex hormones at a key stage in development c. Estrogens and androgens increase sexual activity in the appropriate sex d. B and C e. all of the above 2006 quiz8 q4 |
e. all of the above
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All of the following statements about glucocorticoids are correct EXCEPT:
a. They may produce peptic ulcers b. they are useful in the treatment of asthma c. they exert their effect by binding to receptors in the cell membrane d. they are used to treat Addison’s disease e. they may produce hypertension 2006 quiz8 q5 |
c. they exert their effect by binding to receptors in the cell membrane
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Which of the following is (are) effects of prolonged glucocorticoid excess?
a. Increased abdominal fat b. thin arms and legs c. euphoria d. moon face and buffalo hump e. all of the above 2006 quiz8 q6 |
e. all of the above
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Which one of the following statements is correct about testosterone?
a. circulating testosterone is tightly bound to albumin b. testosterone is enzymatically converted to 5 alpha-dihydrotestosterone in all the target tissues c. 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone has greater affinity for the androgen receptor than testosterone d. estrogen is the precursor for the synthesis of testosterone 2006 quiz8 q7 |
c. 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone has greater affinity for the androgen receptor than testosterone
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Of all the Corticosteroid s listed below, which pair exhibits the widest margin between least and greatest sodium retaining property, respectively?
I. Hydrocortisone II. Corticosterone III. Fludrocortisone IV. Budesonide a. I & II b. II & III c. III & I d. IV & III e. IV & I 2006 quiz8 q8 |
d. IV and III
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Which of the following problems have been identified as associated with some of the herbal products?
a. misidentification b. adulteration c. contamination d. a and c e. all of the above 2003 quiz9 q1 |
e. all of the above
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding garlic?
a. allicin is an odorless, sulfur-containing amino acid derivative present in garlic b. Allicin is a potent antibiotic, but is highly odiferous and unstable c. Garlic is very safe as a dietary supplement and causes no adverse reaction even following excessive usage d. all of the above 2003 quiz9 q2 |
b. Allicin is a potent antibiotic, but is highly odiferous and unstable
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Which of the following is not the identified active constituent in Ginkgo?
a. bilobalide b. ginkolides c. ginkgolic acid d. all of the above 2003 quiz9 q3 |
c. ginkgolic acid
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This herb generally is used for depression and seasonal affective disorder:
a. kava b. ephedra c. Milk Thistle d. St. John’s wort e. Saw Palmetto 2006 quiz9 q1 |
d. St. John’s wort
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This herb is used for anxiety, stress and insomnia:
a. kava b. ephedra c. Milk Thistle d. St. John’s wort e. Saw Palmetto 2006 quiz9 q2 |
a. kava
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Misuse and overdose of this herb have resulted in heart attack, stroke, and death:
a. kava b. ephedra c. Milk Thistle d. St. John’s wort e. Saw Palmetto 2006 quiz9 q3 |
b. ephedra
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This herb is used primarily to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy:
a. kava b. ephedra c. Milk Thistle d. St. John’s wort e. Saw Palmetto 2006 quiz9 q4 |
e. Saw Palmetto
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This herb is used primarily to manage chronic hepatitis:
a. kava b. ephedra c. Milk Thistle d. St. John’s wort e. Saw Palmetto 2006 quiz9 q5 |
c. Milk Thistle
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding garlic?
a. Allicin is an odorless, sulfur-containing amino acid derivative present in garlic b. Allicin is a potent antibiotic, but is highly smelly and unstable c. Garlic causes no adverse reactions, even following excessive usage d. Warfarin’s effect may be reduced due to the use of garlic as a dietary supplement e. all of the above 2006 quiz9 q6 |
b. Allicin is a potent antibiotic, but is highly smelly and unstable
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding Panax ginseng?
a. it has been widely used as a “yin” tonic in Chinese herbal formulas b. it is derived from the flower of the plant c. it is used primarily to prevent and treat the common cold d. its active constituents have stimulatory and inhibitory effects on the CNS e. all of the above 2006 quiz9 q7 |
d. its active constituents have stimulatory and inhibitory effects on the CNS
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Which of the following problems have been associated with herbal products?
a. misidentification b. adulteration c. contamination d. a and c e. all of the above 2006 quiz9 q8 |
e. all of the above
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This herb is used primarily to treat headaches:
a. echinacea b. feverfew c. garlic d. ginkgo e. ginseng 2004 quiz10 q1 |
b. feverfew
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This herb is used primarily to prevent and treat the common cold:
a. echinacea b. feverfew c. garlic d. ginkgo e. ginseng 2004 quiz10 q2 |
a. echinacea
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The active constituents in this herb improve the brain function by increasing cerebral blood flow:
a. echinacea b. feverfew c. garlic d. ginkgo e. ginseng 2004 quiz10 q3 |
d. ginkgo
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The active constituents in this herb have stimulatory and inhibitory effects on the CNS:
a. echinacea b. feverfew c. garlic d. ginkgo e. ginseng 2004 quiz10 q4 |
e. ginseng
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This herb is used primarily to treat hyperlipidemia, hypertension and atherosclerosis:
a. echinacea b. feverfew c. garlic d. ginkgo e. ginseng 2004 quiz10 q5 |
c. garlic
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Theoretically, patients with which of the following disorders should not consume echinacea?
a. AIDS b. tuberculosis c. multiple sclerosis d. autoimmune diseases e. all of the above 2004 quiz10 q6 |
e. all of the above
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The following herbal medicines should be discontinued prior to surgery except:
a. garlic b. ginseng c. echinacea d. kava 2004 quiz10 q7 |
c. echinacea
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St. John’s wort can interact with which of the following medications due to induction of cytochrome p450 and other mechanisms?
a. theophylline b. HIV protease inhibitors c. SSRIs d. oral contraceptives e. all of the above 2004 quiz10 q8 |
e. all of the above
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Which part of Saw Palmetto has been used for medical purposes?
a. leaf b. stem c. berry d. root 2004 quiz10 q9 |
c. berry
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Which of the following herbal products is also known as “herbal ecstasy”?
a. kava b. mahuang c. St. John’s wort d. ginkgo 2004 quiz10 q10 |
b. mahuang
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Leptin is produced by the:
a. hypothalamus b. stomach c. fat d. liver e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q2 |
c. fat
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The physiologic function of leptin is to:
a. decrease NPY b. decrease feeding c. decrease size and number of fat cells d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q3 |
e. all of the above
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The principal pharmacologic mechanism for action of anorectic agents is via enhanced CNS:
a. serotonergic activity b. noradrenergic activity c. dopaminergic activity d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q4 |
d. a and b
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Anorectic agents:
a. increase release of leptin b. decrease release of NPY c. cause satiation d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q5 |
c. cause satiation
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ADHD results from:
a. familial/genetic causes b. environmental intoxicants c. obstetrical complications d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q6 |
e. all of the above
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Neurochemically, ADHD results from imbalance in ____ systems:
a. glutaminergic/dopaminergic b. norepinephrine/dopamine c. dopamine/serotonin d. norepinephrine/serotonin e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q7 |
b. norepinephrine/dopamine
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May be useful in management of tics associated with Tourette’s syndrome:
a. clonidine b. atomoxetine c. methylphenidate d. bupropion e. pemoline 2005 exam4 q8 |
a. clonidine
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Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor:
a. clonidine b. atomoxetine c. methylphenidate d. bupropion e. pemoline 2005 exam4 q9 |
b. atomoxetine
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May cause sedation:
a. clonidine b. atomoxetine c. methylphenidate d. bupropion e. pemoline 2005 exam4 q10 |
a. clonidine
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Associated with higher incidence of convulsion that other ADHD meds:
a. clonidine b. atomoxetine c. methylphenidate d. bupropion e. pemoline 2005 exam4 q11 |
d. bupropion
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Drug of choice for treatment of ADHD:
a. clonidine b. atomoxetine c. methylphenidate d. bupropion e. pemoline 2005 exam4 q12 |
c. methylphenidate
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Associated with life-threatening hepatic failure:
a. clonidine b. atomoxetine c. methylphenidate d. bupropion e. pemoline 2005 exam4 q13 |
e. pemoline
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Abrupt discontinuation may lead to rebound hypertension:
a. clonidine b. atomoxetine c. methylphenidate d. bupropion e. pemoline 2005 exam4 q14 |
a. clonidine
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Counter indicated or contraindicated with MAOIs or SSRIs:
a. clonidine b. atomoxetine c. methylphenidate d. bupropion e. pemoline 2005 exam4 q15 |
b. atomoxetine
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This herb is used primarily to treat migraine headaches:
a. echinacea b. feverfew c. garlic d. ginkgo e. ginseng 2005 exam4 q16 |
b. feverfew
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This herb is used primarily to prevent and treat the common cold:
a. echinacea b. feverfew c. garlic d. ginkgo e. ginseng 2005 exam4 q17 |
a. echinacea
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The active constituents in this herb improve the brain function by increasing cerebral blood flow:
a. echinacea b. feverfew c. garlic d. ginkgo e. ginseng 2005 exam4 q18 |
d. ginkgo
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The active constituents in this herb have stimulatory and inhibitory effects on the CNS:
a. echinacea b. feverfew c. garlic d. ginkgo e. ginseng 2005 exam4 q19 |
e. ginseng
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This herb is used primarily to treat hyperlipidemia, hypertension and atherosclerosis:
a. echinacea b. feverfew c. garlic d. ginkgo e. ginseng 2005 exam4 q20 |
c. garlic
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This herb generally is used for depression and seasonal affective disorder:
a. kava b. ephedra c. milk thistle d. St. John’s wort e. Saw Palmetto 2005 exam4 q21 |
d. St. John’s wort
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This herb is used for anxiety, stress and insomnia:
a. kava b. ephedra c. milk thistle d. St. John’s wort e. Saw Palmetto 2005 exam4 q22 |
a. kava
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Misuse and overdose of this herb have resulted in heart attack, stroke, psychosis and death:
a. kava b. ephedra c. milk thistle d. St. John’s wort e. Saw Palmetto 2005 exam4 q23 |
b. ephedra
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This herb is used primarily to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy:
a. kava b. ephedra c. milk thistle d. St. John’s wort e. Saw Palmetto 2005 exam4 q24 |
e. Saw Palmetto
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This herb is used primarily to manage various liver diseases:
a. kava b. ephedra c. milk thistle d. St. John’s wort e. Saw Palmetto 2005 exam4 q25 |
c. milk thistle
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Which of the following is used as a marker of standardization for currently marketed St. John’s wort products?
a. hyperforin b. Hypericin c. pseudohypericin d. all of the above 2005 exam4 q27 |
b. hypericin
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Which of the following is (are) the potential adverse effects associated with use of St. John’s wort?
a. photosensitization b. dry mouth c. serotonin syndrome d. all of the above 2005 exam4 q28 |
d. all of the above
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The following herbal medicines should be discontinued prior to surgery except:
a. garlic b. ginseng c. echinacea d. kava 2005 exam4 q29 |
c. echinacea
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St. John’s wort can interact with which of the following medications due to induction of cytochrome p450 and other mechanisms?
a. HIV protease inhibitors b. SSRIs c. oral contraceptives d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q30 |
e. all of the above
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Which part of Saw Palmetto has been used for medical purpose?
a. leaf b. stem c. berry d. root 2005 exam4 q31 |
c. berry
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It has been shown that oral contraceptives reduce the risk of ___ and ___ cancers:
a. endometrial/cervical b. breast/ovarian c. ovarian/endometrial d. cervical/breast 2005 exam4 q33 |
c. ovarian/endometrial
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Estrogen induces the mid-cycle surge of LH secretion because of:
a. Its negative feedback to gonadotropin-releasing hormone b. Its sensitization of LH releasing cells to the action of GnRH c. both d. none of the above 2005 exam4 q34 |
b. Its sensitization of LH releasing cells to the action of GnRH
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Tamoxifen:
a. antagonist of progesterone receptor b. partial antagonist of progesterone receptor c. antagonist of estrogen receptor d. partial antagonist of estrogen receptor 2005 exam4 q35 |
d. partial antagonist of estrogen receptor
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Testosterone can be used for all the following clinical situations EXCEPT:
a. surgery b. obstructive sleep apnea c. osteoporosis d. cystic breast e. endometriosis 2005 exam4 q36 |
b. obstructive sleep apnea
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Which of the following factors may increase the adverse effects of oral contraceptives?
a. taking antibiotics b. smoking c. hypertension d. a & b e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q37 |
e. all of the above
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Oral contraceptives can prevent pregnancy by the following mechanisms except:
a. suppression of ovulation b. hostile cervical mucus condition c. hypoestrogenic state d. inactive endometrium e. reduction of gonadotropins 2005 exam4 q38 |
c. hypoestrogenic state
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of progesterone?
a. It has anti-androgenic effect b. It is an intermediary product in steroid synthesis c. It contains 21 Carbon atoms d. its major source during early pregnancy is from the corpus luteum e. It is a precursor of testosterone 2005 exam4 q39 |
a. It has anti-androgenic effect
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Testosterone is enzymatically converted to 5 alpha-dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in following target tissues:
a. testis and prostate b. muscle and kidney c. a & b d. all above 2005 exam4 q40 |
a. testis and prostate
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A 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor:
a. Ketoconazole b. finasteride c. flutamide d. clomiphene e. spironolactone 2005 exam4 q41 |
b. finasteride
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A competitive antagonist for androgen receptor:
a. Ketoconazole b. finasteride c. flutamide d. clomiphene e. spironolactone 2005 exam4 q42 |
c. flutamide
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Inhibits the synthesis of testosterone:
a. Ketoconazole b. finasteride c. flutamide d. clomiphene e. spironolactone 2005 exam4 q43 |
a. Ketoconazole
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A competitive inhibitor of aldosterone and 5-alpha dihydrotestosterone:
a. Ketoconazole b. finasteride c. flutamide d. clomiphene e. spironolactone 2005 exam4 q44 |
e. spironolactone
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An ovulation-inducing agent:
a. Ketoconazole b. finasteride c. flutamide d. clomiphene e. spironolactone 2005 exam4 q45 |
d. clomiphene
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The principal adrenal steroids are:
a. mineralocorticoids and testosterone b. Glucocorticoids and testosterone c. Mineralocorticoids and estrogen d. glucocorticoids and estrogen e. mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids 2005 exam4 q46 |
e. mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
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All of the following statements about glucocorticoids are correct except:
a. they may produce peptic ulcers b. they are useful in the treatment of refractory asthma c. they are contraindicated in glaucoma d. they are used in the treatment of Addison’s disease e. they exert their effect by binding to receptors in the cell membrane 2005 exam4 q47 |
e. they exert their effect by binding to receptors in the cell membrane
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The concentration of endogenous corticoids in the blood is:
a. High in the morning and low in midnight b. high at midnight and low in the morning c. consistent in day and night d. high in response to a threatening environment e. a and d 2005 exam4 q48 |
e. a and d
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Adrenal steroids are synthesized and released under the influence of:
a. ACTH b. CRF c. Exogenous glucocorticoids d. all of the above 2005 exam4 q49 |
d. all of the above
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Which of the following is (are) the manifestations of Cushing’s syndrome?
a. hypertension b. muscle wasting c. increased susceptibility to infection d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q50 |
e. all of the above
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The secretion of aldosterone is stimulated by:
a. high K+ b. low Na+ c. angiotensin II d. ACTH e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q51 |
e. all of the above
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Addison’s disease is due to hyposecretion of:
a. glucocorticoids b. mineralocorticoids c. Both d. none of the above 2005 exam4 q52 |
c. both
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the manifestation of aldosteronism is (are):
a. hypertension b. edema c. hypotension d. a and b e. b and c 2005 exam4 q53 |
d. a and b
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All of the following about the use of anticholinergic drugs to treat peptic ulcer disease (PUD) are correct except:
a. the drugs cause a lot of unpleasant side effects in therapeutic doses b. the drugs decrease basal gastric acid (H+) secretion by 50% or less c. muscarinic receptors are just one of the receptor types that mediate gastric acid secretion d. the drugs, especially quaternary ammonium compounds like propantheline (Pro-Banthine), have erratic and/or unpredictable gastrointestinal absorption e. the drugs cause increased GI motility and accelerate stomach emptying 2005 exam4 q54 |
e. the drugs cause increased GI motility and accelerate stomach emptying
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May cause toxicity if used chronically in an elderly patient because of systemic absorption:
a. gastric Chief cells b. CaCO3 c. gastric parietal (Oxyntic) cells d. Mg (OH)2 e. gastric superficial epithelial cells 2005 exam4 q55 |
d. Mg(OH)2
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Secretes pepsin into the gastric lumen:
a. gastric Chief cells b. CaCO3 c. gastric parietal (Oxyntic) cells d. Mg (OH)2 e. gastric superficial epithelial cells 2005 exam4 q56 |
a. gastric Chief cells
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Famotidine (Pepcid) competitively antagonizes a cAMP-dependent pathway here:
a. gastric Chief cells b. CaCO3 c. gastric parietal (Oxyntic) cells d. Mg (OH)2 e. gastric superficial epithelial cells 2005 exam4 q57 |
c. gastric parietal (Oxyntic) cells
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Secretion from ___ is mimicked to a degree by sucralfate (Carafate):
a. gastric Chief cells b. CaCO3 c. gastric parietal (Oxyntic) cells d. Mg (OH)2 e. gastric superficial epithelial cells 2005 exam4 q58 |
e. gastric superficial epithelial cells
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Often used in combination products because it tends to be constipating with chronic use:
a. gastric Chief cells b. CaCO3 c. gastric parietal (Oxyntic) cells d. Mg (OH)2 e. gastric superficial epithelial cells 2005 exam4 q59 |
b. CaCO3
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This chemical is a receptor (5HT3) antagonist which can be used to treat the severe nausea and vomiting that may be caused by chemotherapeutic agents:
a. diphenidol (Vontrol) b. meclizine (Bonine; others) c. ondansetron (Zofran) d. rabeprazole (Aciphex) e. cimetidine (Tagamet) 2005 exam4 q60 |
c. ondansetron (Zofran)
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This chemical may prevent NSAID-induced gastric ulcers because of inhibition of cAMP production and gastric acid secretion; contraindicated in pregnant women:
a. pantoprazole (Protonix) b. erythromycin c. misoprostol (Cytotec) d. granisetron (Kytril) e. diphenoxylate (Lomotil; Login; others) 2005 exam4 q61 |
c. misoprostol (Cytotec)
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A dopamine receptor (D2) antagonist that can be used for a prokinetic effect or an antiemetic effect
a. cyclizine (Marazine) b. metoclopramide (Reglan; Octamide) c. ranitidine (Zantac) d. lactulose (Chronulac; others) e. lansoprazole (Prevacid) 2005 exam4 q62 |
b. metoclopramide (Reglan; Octamide)
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“Irreversibly” antagonizes the enzyme responsible for gastric acid secretion:
a. cyclizine (Marazine) b. metoclopramide (Reglan; Octamide) c. ranitidine (Zantac) d. lactulose (Chronulac; others) e. lansoprazole (Prevacid) 2005 exam4 q63 |
e. lansoprazole (Prevacid)
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A receptor (H2) antagonist that is often used to treat the Zollinger-Ellison hypersecretion syndrome:
a. cyclizine (Marazine) b. metoclopramide (Reglan; Octamide) c. ranitidine (Zantac) d. lactulose (Chronulac; others) e. lansoprazole (Prevacid) 2005 exam4 q64 |
c. ranitidine (Zantac)
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A receptor (H1) antagonist that may be useful to prevent motion sickness or morning sickness
a. cyclizine (Marazine) b. metoclopramide (Reglan; Octamide) c. ranitidine (Zantac) d. lactulose (Chronulac; others) e. lansoprazole (Prevacid) 2005 exam4 q65 |
a. cyclizine (Marazine)
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Metabolized by bacteria in the human colon to a variety of acids such as lactic acid, acetic acid, etc:
a. cyclizine (Marazine) b. metoclopramide (Reglan; Octamide) c. ranitidine (Zantac) d. lactulose (Chronulac; others) e. lansoprazole (Prevacid) 2005 exam4 q66 |
d. lactulose (Chronulac; others)
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A bulk-forming, class I agent, that increases the mass of colonic contents in humans:
a. mineral oil b. senna c. psyllium husk (i.e., Metamucil) d. castor oil in a low dose (i.e., 4-5 mL) e. nazatidine (Axid) 2005 exam4 q67 |
c. psyllium husk (i.e., Metamucil)
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Has a “strong” effect to decrease GI motility and propulsive movements; “Long” half life of elimination of about 10-15 hours:
a. Bi+++ salts (i.e., Pepto-Bismol) b. docusate sodium (Dulcolax) c. loperamide (Immodium) d. bisacodyl (Dulcolax) e. sodium phosphates 2005 exam4 q68 |
c. loperamide (Immodium)
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Show efficacy for “traveler’s diarrhea” because it may have some antibacterial activity:
a. Bi+++ salts (i.e., Pepto-Bismol) b. docusate sodium (Dulcolax) c. loperamide (Immodium) d. bisacodyl (Dulcolax) e. sodium phosphates 2005 exam4 q69 |
a. Bi+++ salts (i.e., Pepto-Bismol)
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High doses are used to “clean” out the bowel before surgery or a diagnostic procedure because of an effect to retain water in the GI tract:
a. Bi+++ salts (i.e., Pepto-Bismol) b. docusate sodium (Dulcolax) c. loperamide (Immodium) d. bisacodyl (Dulcolax) e. sodium phosphates 2005 exam4 q70 |
e. sodium phosphates
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A wetting agent (emollient) which facilitates the penetration of water into bowel contents to result in a “stool softening” effect:
a. Bi+++ salts (i.e., Pepto-Bismol) b. docusate sodium (Dulcolax) c. loperamide (Immodium) d. bisacodyl (Dulcolax) e. sodium phosphates 2005 exam4 q71 |
b. docusate sodium (Dulcolax)
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May result in a mild stimulation of the enteric nervous system in the colon to increase peristalsis and treat constipation
a. Bi+++ salts (i.e., Pepto-Bismol) b. docusate sodium (Dulcolax) c. loperamide (Immodium) d. bisacodyl (Dulcolax) e. sodium phosphates 2005 exam4 q72 |
d. bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
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Cheap, rapid-acting antacid with high buffering capacity; single doses > 1 g can cause rebound acid secretion; chronic use can lead to the milk-alkali-syndrome (especially with excessive use of dairy products) and constipation; 8 grams per day dosage limit.
a. Mg(OH)2 b. NaHCO3 c. CaCO3 d. Al(OH)3 2001 exam4 q53 |
c. CaCO3
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Poor neutralizing power requires high doses; Can be nauseating; Chronic or excessive use can lead to constipation and depletion of body stores of inorganic phosphates:
a. Mg(OH)2 b. NaHCO3 c. CaCO3 d. Al(OH)3 2001 exam4 q54 |
d. Al(OH)3
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Rapid acting and strong antacid; chronic or excessive use can cause diarrhea; patients with reduced renal function may develop neurotoxicity during chronic, excessive use:
a. Mg(OH)2 b. NaHCO3 c. CaCO3 d. Al(OH)3 2001 exam4 q55 |
a. Mg(OH)2
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All of the following are correct about the chronic use of an antacid to treat peptic ulcer disease (PUD) except:
a. the dose and dosing intervals are designed to prevent pain, not to relieve pain b. a double dose is recommended at bedtime to counteract the nighttime increase in basal H+ secretion c. the goal is to neutralize stomach contents to a pH > 7 because at this pH all of the H+ is neutralized d. many OTC antacid products contain two (and sometimes three) antacid chemicals to balance laxative and constipating effects, to reduce the dose of each chemical to minimize toxicity, and improve compliance e. long-term use can lead to changes in bowel function and electrolyte and acid/base disturbances 2001 exam4 q56 |
c. the goal is to neutralize stomach contents to a pH > 7 because at this pH all of the H+ is neutralized
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Histamine receptor (H2) antagonist; eliminated by renal excretion, so very little potential for inhibition of drug metabolism; no gender-related adverse reactions during chronic use; structure is a combination of two other chemicals of same class:
a. omeprazole (Prilosec) b. cimetidine (Tagamet) c. misoprostol (Cytotec) d. nizatidine (Axid) e. ranitidine (Zantac) 2001 exam4 q57 |
d. nizatidine (Axid)
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Dosage formulation is designed to release drug into the pH>6 environment of proximal small intestine; irreversibly inhibits enzymes of the proton pump in gastric parietal cells
a. lansoprozole (Prevacid) b. famotidine (Pepcid) c. misoprostol (Cytotec) d. nizatidine (Axid) e. sucralfate (Carafate) 2001 exam4 q58 |
a. lansoprazole (Prevacid)
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An 8-week limit for the duration of chronic use to treat PUD is recommended to avoid hypergastrinemia and suppression of the H+ barrier to bacterial entry because of a pronounced decrease of gastric H+ secretion:
a. pantoprazole (Protonix) b. famotidine (Pepcid) c. misoprostol (Cytotec) d. nizatidine (Axid) e. ondansetron (Zofran) 2001 exam4 q59 |
a. pantoprazole (Protonix)
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Used orally or intravenously to efficaciously prevent (or treat) serious nausea and vomiting such as that associated with chemotherapy; blocks serotonin (5-HT3) receptors:
a. cyclizine (Marezine) and dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) b. scopolamine c. ondansetron (Zofran) and granisetron (Kytril) d. dronabinol (Marinol) and nabilone (Cesamet) e. lorazepam (Ativan) and diazepam (Valium) 2001 exam4 q60 |
c. ondansetron (Zofran) and granisetron (Kytril)
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Absorbs toxins and irritating chemicals contributing to milder forms of perhaps chronic diarrhea; mild antimicrobial activity; established efficacy for the prevention or treatment of “traveler’s diarrhea”:
a. diphenoxylate (Lomotil, others) b. bismuth subsalicylate (PeptoBismol) c. bisocodyl (Dulcolax) d. docusate sodium (dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate; Colace; Doxinate) e. magnesium sulfate (Epsom salts) 2001 exam4 q61 |
b. bismuth subsalicylate (PeptoBismol)
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“Wetting agent”; anionic surfactant which decreases the surface tension of bowel contents to facilitate the penetration of H2O; not a true laxative, but a stool softener; cannot be used with mineral oil because it increases the systemic absorption of the oil; class 1 agent:
a. diphenoxylate (Lomotil, others) b. bismuth subsalicylate (PeptoBismol) c. bisocodyl (Dulcolax) d. docusate sodium (dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate; Colace; Doxinate) e. magnesium sulfate (Epsom salts) 2001 exam4 q62 |
d. docusate sodium (dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate; Colace; Doxinate)
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Poorly absorbed when taken orally; retains by osmotic attraction about 400 mL of H2O per 15 grams, which leads to rapid distention of small and large bowel, which stimulates propulsive movements resulting in prompt and thorough evacuation (catharsis); class 3 agent:
a. diphenoxylate (Lomotil, others) b. bismuth subsalicylate (PeptoBismol) c. bisocodyl (Dulcolax) d. docusate sodium (dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate; Colace; Doxinate) e. magnesium sulfate (Epsom salts) 2001 exam4 q63 |
e. magnesium sulfate (Epsom salts)
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Often referred to as a “stimulant laxative”; works in about 8 hours (taken in pm for relief in the am); works similar to phenolphthalein; class 2 agent:
a. diphenoxylate (Lomotil, others) b. bismuth subsalicylate (PeptoBismol) c. bisacodyl (Dulcolax) d. docusate sodium (dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate; Colace; Doxinate) e. magnesium sulfate (Epsom salts) 2001 exam4 q64 |
c. bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
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Decreases propulsive movements and decreases non-propulsive movements of the GI tract; delays transit time of intestinal contents; opioid-like chemical; non-therapeutic amount of atropine included in dosage formulation to discourage abuse:
a. diphenoxylate (Lomotil, others) b. bismuth subsalicylate (PeptoBismol) c. bisocodyl (Dulcolax) d. docusate sodium (dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate; Colace; Doxinate) e. magnesium sulfate (Epsom salts) 2001 exam4 q65 |
a. diphenoxylate (Lomotil, others)
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All of the following are correct about the use of antacids to facilitate healing of a peptic ulcer except:
a. gastric pH should not be increased higher than about 3.5 to prevent acid rebound b. they should be used as needed to prevent the pain caused by the ulcer c. they should be used as needed to treat the pain caused by an ulcer d. a double dose is often recommended at bedtime to neutralize the increased nocturnal basal acid secretion e. a dose is taken about one hour after meals to neutralize the acid secretion in response to food 2000 exam4 q57 |
c. they should be used as needed to treat the pain caused by an ulcer
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Select the antacid chemical that is cheap, has rapid and high H+ buffering capacity, and can cause the milk-alkali syndrome and constipation during prolonged use; maximum of 8 grams/day
a. NaHCO3 b. CaCO3 c. Al(OH)3 d. Mg(OH)2 2000 exam4 q58 |
b. CaCO3
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In an acid environment, it breaks down to a chemical that “coats” and protects an ulcer from the corrosive effects of H+ and pepsin:
a. omeprazole (Prilosec) b. nizatidine (Axid) c. sucralfate (Carafate) d. the quaternary ammonium compound propantheline (Pro-Banthine) 2000 exam4 q59 |
c. sucralfate (Carafate)
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At a sufficient dose, it can almost completely stop gastric acid secretion by irreversibly inhibiting the gastric parietal cell proton pump; there is concern that its long term use may lead to hyperplasia of gastric parietal cells, and bacterial colonization of the gastric mucosal surface:
a. omeprazole (Prilosec) b. nizatidine (Axid) c. sucralfate (Carafate) d. the quaternary ammonium compound propantheline (Pro-Banthine) 2000 exam4 q60 |
a. omeprazole (Prilosec)
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Capable of decreasing gastric acid secretion by up to only 35% by antagonizing receptors involved with the control of the proton pump, but only at doses having adverse effects on many physiological functions:
a. omeprazole (Prilosec) b. nizatidine (Axid) c. sucralfate (Carafate) d. the quaternary ammonium compound propantheline (Pro-Banthine) 2000 exam4 q61 |
d. the quaternary ammonium compound propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
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Capable of decreasing gastric acid secretion by up to 75% by antagonizing receptors involved with the control of the proton pump; its structure is a combination of the molecular moieties of two other drugs of the same pharmacological class:
a. omeprazole (Prilosec) b. nizatidine (Axid) c. sucralfate (Carafate) d. the quaternary ammonium compound propantheline (Pro-Banthine) 2000 exam4 q62 |
b. nizatidine (Axid)
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Prostaglandin derivative labeled for the prevention of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers (not NSAID-induced duodenal ulcers); enhances mucosal defense mechanisms such as increased mucus and HCO3 secretion and accelerates cell healing:
a. pantoprazole (Protonix) b. famotidine (Pepcid) c. sucralfate (Carafate) d. misoprostol (Cytotec) 2000 exam4 q63 |
d. misoprostol (Cytotec)
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Select the pharmacological treatment modality used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD):
a. enhance esophageal mucosal resistance (i.e., sucralfate) b. stimulate gastric emptying (i.e., metoclopramide) c. increase lower esophageal sphincter pressure (i.e., bethanechol) d. reduce gastric acid secretion (i.e., H2 receptor antagonists) e. all of the above 2000 exam4 q64 |
e. all of the above
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T/F: pantoprazole (Protonix) is a recently approved proton pump inhibitor which can be used intravenously to treat the dangerous hypersecretion Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
2000 exam4 q65 |
True
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Select the antiemetic compound that is highly effective to treat (primarily to prevent) the nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy:
a. dimenhydrinate (Dramamine; H1 antagonist) b. scopolamine c. ondansetron (Zofran; 5HT3 antagonist) d. chlorpromazine (Thorazine, a phenothiazine) e. diazepam (Valium) 2000 exam4 q66 |
c. ondansetron (Zofran; 5-HT3 antagonist)
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Purified carbohydrate from fruit; “gentle” action to coat bowel mucosa; for milder cases of diarrhea
a. polycarbophil b. Bi++ c. pectin d. diphenoxylate (Lomotil) 2000 exam4 q67 |
c. pectin
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A semi-synthetic resin that can adsorb 60-100 times its weight in water; can also be used as a laxative to treat constipation:
a. polycarbophil b. Bi++ c. pectin d. diphenoxylate (Lomotil) 2000 exam4 q68 |
a. polycarbophil
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Highly effective antimotility compound that acts on opiate receptors in the bowel to decrease propulsive movements and increase nonpropulsive movements of the bowel; effective for severe diarrhea
a. polycarbophil b. Bi++ c. pectin d. diphenoxylate (Lomotil) 2000 exam4 q69 |
d. diphenoxylate (Lomotil)
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Has antibacterial effects; proven efficacy to treat “traveler’s diarrhea”:
a. polycarbophil b. Bi++ c. pectin d. diphenoxylate (Lomotil) 2000 exam4 q70 |
b. Bi++
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Class I; may take 1-30 days for noticeable effectiveness; increases bulk of bowel contents to mildly stimulate propulsive movements of the bowel:
a. phenolphthalein (Modane) and bisacodyl (Dulcolax) b. castor oil c. dietary fiber; psyllium husk (Metamucil) d. docusate sodium (Colace) e. lactulose (Chronulac) 2000 exam4 q71 |
c. dietary fiber; psyllium husk (Metamucil)
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Class 2; 6-8 hours required for effectiveness; may mildly stimulate neuroplexus of the colon to enhance propulsive movements:
a. phenolphthalein (Modane) and bisacodyl (Dulcolax) b. castor oil c. dietary fiber; psyllium husk (Metamucil) d. docusate sodium (Colace) e. lactulose (Chronulac) 2000 exam4 q72 |
a. phenolphthalein (Modane) and bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
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Class 1; not metabolized by humans; metabolized by colonic bacteria to low molecular weight acids that have an osmotic effect to increase bulk of colon contents; prescription only in USA:
a. phenolphthalein (Modane) and bisacodyl (Dulcolax) b. castor oil c. dietary fiber; psyllium husk (Metamucil) d. docusate sodium (Colace) e. lactulose (Chronulac) 2000 exam4 q73 |
e. lactulose (Chronulac)
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Class 1; wetting agent; anionic surfactant that decreases surface tension of colonic contents; “stool softener”; should not be used with mineral oil:
a. phenolphthalein (Modane) and bisacodyl (Dulcolax) b. castor oil c. dietary fiber; psyllium husk (Metamucil) d. docusate sodium (Colace) e. lactulose (Chronulac) 2000 exam4 q74 |
d. docusate sodium (Colace)
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Class 3; in sufficient dose, promotes a thorough and complete evacuation of entire intestinal tract; Ricinoleic acid is active chemical:
a. phenolphthalein (Modane) and bisacodyl (Dulcolax) b. castor oil c. dietary fiber; psyllium husk (Metamucil) d. docusate sodium (Colace) e. lactulose (Chronulac) 2000 exam4 q75 |
b. castor oil
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T/F: prostaglandin derivatives such as misoprostol (Cytotec) are labeled for the prevention of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers because they enhance mucosal defense mechanisms in the stomach:
unknown year (1999?) question 15 |
True
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Poorly absorbed when taken orally; retains by osmotic attraction about 400 ml of H2O per 15 grams which leads to rapid distention of small and large bowel, stimulating propulsive movements resulting in prompt and thorough evacuation (i.e., catharsis); class 3 agent:
a. diphenoxylate (Lomotil; others) b. bismuth subsalicylate (i.e., PeptoBismol) c. omeprazole (Prilosec) d. bisacodyl (Dulcolax) e. magnesium sulfate (Epsom salts) unknown year (1999?) question 17 |
e. magnesium sulfate (Epsom salts)
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Cheap, rapid-acting antacid with high buffering capacity; single doses > 1 gram can cause rebound acid secretion; chronic use can lead to constipation and the milk-alkali syndrome (especially with excessive use of dairy products); 8 grams per day dosage limit for chronic use:
a. Mg(OH)3 b. NaHCO3 c. CaCO3 d. Al(OH)3 2001 quiz11 q1 |
c. CaCO3
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Prostaglandin derivative; effectiveness for the treatment of PUD includes increased mucus and HCO3 secretion; increased mucosal blood flow and accelerated cell healing; contraindicated in women of child-bearing potential
a. omeprazole (Prilosec) b. cimetidine (Tagamet) c. misoprostol (Cytotec) d. nizatidine (Axid) e. sucralfate (Carafate) 2001 quiz11 q2 |
c. misoprostol (Cytotec)
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Histamine receptor (H2) antagonist; eliminated by renal excretion, so very little potential for inhibition of drug metabolism; no gender-related adverse reactions during chronic use; Structure is a combination of two other chemicals of same class:
a. omeprazole (Prilosec) b. cimetidine (Tagamet) c. misoprostol (Cytotec) d. nizatidine (Axid) e. sucralfate (Carafate) 2001 quiz11 q3 |
d. nizatidine (Axid)
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Taken orally in a 1 gram dose one hour before meals, this drug releases a highly reactive anion that binds to the protein exudates of a gastric ulcer, covering it with a protective coating that protects the ulcer from corrosive chemicals for 4-5 hours; cannot be taken within one hour of an antacid:
a. omeprazole (Prilosec) b. cimetidine (Tagamet) c. misoprostol (Cytotec) d. nizatidine (Axid) e. sucralfate (Carafate) 2001 quiz11 q4 |
e. sucralfate (Carafate)
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Dosage formulation is designed to release drug into the proximal small intestine, where the pH is > 6; it is then absorbed and transported by the blood to the parietal cells of the stomach, where it is activated in the acid environment; a single dose can potentially completely stop gastric acid secretion for many hours:
a. omeprazole (Prilosec) b. cimetidine (Tagamet) c. misoprostol (Cytotec) d. nizatidine (Axid) e. sucralfate (Carafate) 2001 quiz11 q5 |
a. omeprazole (Prilosec)
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Recently approved drug (February 2001); irreversibly inhibits enzymes involved with gastric acid secretion; active S-isomer of a drug of the same class:
a. omeprazole (Prilosec) b. lansoprazole (Prevacid) c. pantoprazole (Protonix) d. esomeprazole (Nexium) 2001 quiz11 q6 |
d. esomeprazole (Nexium)
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All of the following are correct except:
a. pharmacological strategies designed to heal a gastric or duodenal ulcer, or to prevent the recurrence of an ulcer, are often targeted at the approximate two-fold nighttime increase in basal gastric acid secretion b. when an antacid is used to heal a gastric or duodenal ulcer, the dose and dosing intervals are designed to prevent pain, not to relieve pain c. cholinergic antagonists (i.e., Propantheline, Pro-Banthine) are not very effective for the treatment of most cases of PUD because of their limited ability to block gastric acid secretion and their frequent side effects d. When an antacid is used to heal a gastric or duodenal ulcer, each dose should be sufficient to neutralize the pH of stomach contents to above pH 6 e. most OTC antacid products contain two (sometimes three) antacid chemicals to balance laxative and constipating effects, and to reduce the dose of each chemical 1999 exam4 q9 |
d. When an antacid is used to heal a gastric or duodenal ulcer, each dose should be sufficient to neutralize the pH of stomach contents to above pH 6
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Effectiveness for the treatment of PUD includes increased mucus and HCO3 secretion, increased mucosal blood flow and accelerated cell healing:
a. lansoprazole (Prevacid) b. cimetidine (Tagamet) c. misoprostol (Cytotec) d. famotidine (Pepcid) e. sucralfate (Carafate) 1999 exam4 q10 |
c. misoprostol (Cytotec)
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Histamine receptor (H2) antagonist; primarily eliminated by renal excretion so minimal potential for the inhibition of drug metabolism; no gender-related adverse reactions:
a. lansoprazole (Prevacid) b. cimetidine (Tagamet) c. misoprostol (Cytotec) d. famotidine (Pepcid) e. sucralfate (Carafate) 1999 exam4 q11 |
d. famotidine (Pepcid)
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It is secreted from anterior pituitary and regulated by the level of glucocorticoids in the blood:
a. metyrapone b. Aminoglutethimide c. spironolactone d. ACTH e. CRF 2008 quiz10 q1 |
d. ACTH
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It prevents the hydroxylation at C11 and thus the formation of hydrocortisone and corticosterone:
a. metyrapone b. Aminoglutethimide c. spironolactone d. ACTH e. CRF 2008 quiz10 q2 |
a. metyrapone
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It is a competitive antagonist of aldosterone and prevents mineralocorticoid effects:
a. metyrapone b. Aminoglutethimide c. spironolactone d. ACTH e. CRF 2008 quiz10 q3 |
c. spironolactone
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It is secreted from the hypothalamus and regulated by the level of glucocorticoids in the blood:
a. metyrapone b. Aminoglutethimide c. spironolactone d. ACTH e. CRF 2008 quiz10 q4 |
e. CRF
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Which of the following is a partial estrogen agonist used to induce ovulation?
a. estriol b. ethinylestradiol c. clomiphene d. estradiol 2008 quiz10 q5 |
c. clomiphene
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Regarding the endometrium change during the menstrual cycle, estrogen controls the _____ phase of the endometrium and progesterone controls the ___ phase:
a. proliferative / secretory b. secretory / proliferative c. none of the above |
a. proliferative / secretory
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The MAJOR use of androgens is for:
a. anemia b. osteoporosis c. short stature d. replacement therapy for men with impaired testosterone production e. increase of lean body mass 2008 quiz10 q7 |
d. replacement therapy for men with impaired testosterone production
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Which of the following may affect the efficacy of oral contraceptives?
a. missing doses b. taking antibiotics c. drinking alcohol d. a and b e. b and c 2008 quiz10 q8 |
d. a and b
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Which of the following is an ADHD subtype?
a. predominantly hyperactive-impulsive type b. combined (mixed) type c. predominantly inattentive type d. all of the answers are correct ADHD quiz q1 |
d. all of the answers are correct
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of ADHD?
a. easily distracted by external stimuli b. proficient in organizing tasks and activities c. interrupts or intrudes on others d. runs or climbs excessively ADHD quiz q2 |
b. proficient in organizing tasks and activities
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The differential diagnosis of ADHD includes:
a. hypoglycemia b. obstructive sleep apnea c. iron deficiency anemia d. all of the answers are correct ADHD quiz q3 |
d. all of the answers are correct
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Conduct disorder (CD) in a patient with ADHD is considered:
a. a mood disorder b. a recurrent pattern of negativistic behavior c. the most serious of the comorbidities d. a learning disorder ADHD quiz q4 |
c. the most serious of the comorbidities
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The prevalence of CD in children with ADHD is:
a. 10 to 40% b. 19 to 44% c. 20 to 40% d. 50 to 60% ADHD quiz q5 |
a. 10 to 40%
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Other psychological sequelae considered to be comorbid with ADHD include:
a. substance abuse b. poor judgment c. antisocial behavior d. all of the answers are correct ADHD quiz q6 |
d. all of the answers are correct
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The ADHD treatment plan should:
a. address individual target symptoms b. guide management c. be modified as necessary d. all of the answers are correct ADHD quiz q7 |
d. all of the answers are correct
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Based on clinical evidence, the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) guidelines for the treatment of ADHD strongly recommend that:
a. The clinician should only recommend behavioral therapy b. the clinician should only recommend stimulant medication c. the clinician should recommend stimulant medication and/or behavioral therapy as appropriate d. the clinician should recommend antipsychotic medication therapy ADHD quiz q8 |
c. the clinician should recommend stimulant medication and/or behavioral therapy as appropriate
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Symptoms likely to respond to medication therapy include:
a. inattention b. impulsivity c. hyperactivity d. all of the answers are correct ADHD quiz q9 |
d. all of the answers are correct
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Of the pharmacologic options available for the treatment of ADHD, which statement is true regarding stimulants?
a. they are the least studied class of medications b. they are considered first-line agents c. they are not commonly used d. they are the least effective agents ADHD quiz q10 |
b. they are considered first-line agents
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Extended-release formulations provide more consistent and stable benefits because:
a. they cause problems with in-school dosing b. they provide medication coverage for homework hours c. they cause problems with storage d. they do not provide medication coverage for after school activities ADHD quiz q11 |
b. they provide medication coverage for homework hours
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Which of the following parameters predicts optimal stimulant dosing or timing?
a. weight b. age c. gender d. none of the answers are correct ADHD quiz q12 |
d. none of the answers are correct
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Which of the following is not related to optimal stimulant dosing in the treatment of ADHD?
a. coverage throughout the day is a goal b. a drug holiday on the weekend is recommended c. the drug should be taken seven days per week during initiation and through titration until the desired effect is obtained d. none of the answers are correct ADHD quiz q13 |
b. a drug holiday on the weekend is recommended
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According to a meta-analysis of over 1,000 patients on substance use disorder (SUD) outcomes, stimulant treatment of ADHD:
a. increased the potential for addiction b. reduced the risk for later SUD by half c. increased the risk of later SUD by half d. all of the answers are correct AHDH quiz q14 |
b. reduced the risk for later SUD by half
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The new methylphenidate transdermal system (MTS) with DOT matrix patch technology:
a. is the first non-oral treatment for ADHD b. requires growth monitoring c. is FDA-approved for the treatment of ADHD in children aged 6-12 years d. all of the answers are correct ADHD quiz q15 |
d. all of the answers are correct
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Which of the following is an FDA-approved, nonstimulant option for the treatment of ADHD?
a. amphetamine b. atomoxetine c. dextroamphetamines d. methylphenidate ADHD quiz q16 |
b. atomoxetine
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Ongoing communication to monitor the progress and effectiveness of specific interventions for ADHD should include all of the following except:
a. involving parents, teachers, and other school-based professionals b. being optional and kept minimal c. being a clinical practice guideline of the AAP d. caregivers who interact with the patient may provide insight and information ADHD quiz q17 |
b. being optional and kept minimal
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Behavioral interventions that may be used to help manage ADHD include:
a. counseling b. positive reinforcement c. instituting a daily schedule d. all of the answers are correct ADHD quiz q18 |
d. all of the answers are correct
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Which of the following is not considered a rule for improving therapeutic adherence?
a. provide a complex dosage regimen b. get all interested parties on board with the treatment plan c. assess parents for ADHD d. be proactive ADHD quiz q19 |
a. provide a complex dosage regimen
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The clinician as an advocate:
a. creates confusion b. empowers families c.keeps families in the dark d. confounds families about available resources ADHD quiz q20 |
b. empowers families
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