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261 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Match the product and enzyme. HVA:
a. MAO b. COMT c. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase d. dopamine beta hydroxylase e. tyrosine hydroxylase 2007 exam3 q1 |
a. MAO
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Match the product and enzyme. Dopamine:
a. MAO b. COMT c. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase d. dopamine beta hydroxylase e. tyrosine hydroxylase 2007 exam3 q2 |
c. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase
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Match the product and enzyme. DOPA:
a. MAO b. COMT c. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase d. dopamine beta hydroxylase e. tyrosine hydroxylase 2007 exam3 q3 |
e. tyrosine hydroxylase
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Match the product and enzyme. NE:
a. MAO b. COMT c. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase d. dopamine beta hydroxylase e. tyrosine hydroxylase 2007 exam3 q4 |
d. dopamine beta hydroxylase
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Match the product and enzyme. 3-OMD:
a. MAO b. COMT c. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase d. dopamine beta hydroxylase e. tyrosine hydroxylase 2007 exam3 q5 |
b. COMT
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Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase:
a. apomorphine b. trihexyphenidyl c. selegiline d. carbidopa e. entacapone 2007 exam3 q6 |
d. carbidopa
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Inhibition of MAO-type B:
a. apomorphine b. trihexyphenidyl c. selegiline d. carbidopa e. entacapone 2007 exam3 q7 |
c. selegiline
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Inhibition of COMT:
a. apomorphine b. trihexyphenidyl c. selegiline d. carbidopa e. entacapone 2007 exam3 q8 |
e. entacapone
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Blockade of muscarinic receptors and inhibition of DA uptake:
a. apomorphine b. trihexyphenidyl c. selegiline d. carbidopa e. entacapone 2007 exam3 q9 |
b. trihexyphenidyl
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Dopamine receptor agonist:
a. apomorphine b. trihexyphenidyl c. selegiline d. carbidopa e. entacapone 2007 exam3 q10 |
a. apomorphine
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Match the following drugs and contraindications. Use selections only once.
Drugs: L-dopa benztropine bromocriptine selegiline (MAOI) (L-dopa + carbidopa + tolcapone) Contraindications: tranylcypromine (MAOI) melanoma glaucoma meperidine vasospastic disease 2007 exam3 q11-15 |
11. tranylcypromine (MAOI) : (L-dopa + carbidopa + tolcapone)
12. melanoma : L-dopa 13. glaucoma : benztropine 14. meperidine : selegiline (MAOI) 15. vasospastic disease : bromocriptine |
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Administration of Sinemet may increase:
a. Production of 3-OMD b. Dyskinesias c. Production of cardiovascular and gastrointestinal side effects d. a and b e. All of the above 2007 exam3 q16 |
d. a and b
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T/F: Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the ventral tegmentum is a key neuropathological finding upon autopsy of Alzheimer’s patients.
2007 exam3 q17 |
False
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T/F: Degeneration of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus Basalis of Meynert is a key neuropathological finding upon autopsy of Alzheimer’s patients.
2007 exam3 q18 |
True
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T/F: Deposition of Beta amyloid and neurofibrillary tangles in cortex is a key neuropathological finding upon autopsy of Alzheimer’s patients.
2007 exam3 q19 |
True
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T/F: Degeneration of glutaminergic neurons projecting to the cortex and hippocampus is a key neuropathological finding upon autopsy of Alzheimer’s patients.
2007 exam3 q20 |
False
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T/F: Deposition of melanin in the substantia nigra is a key neuropathological finding upon autopsy of Alzheimer’s patients.
2007 exam3 q21 |
False
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A rational combination of drugs for treatment of Alzheimer’s disease is:
a. Tacrine & Memantine b. Galantamine & Memantine c. Tacrine & Donepezil d. a and b e. all of the above 2007 exam3 q22 |
d. a and b
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The etiology of schizophrenia is highly correlated with:
a. Upregulation of D2 receptors b. Upregulation of D1 receptors c. Downregulation of glutamate receptors d. a and b e. a and c 2007 exam3 q23 |
a. upregulation of D2 receptors
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This atypical antipsychotic drug is promoted as a partial agonist of the D2 receptor.
a. Paliparidone b. Apripiprazole c. Olanzapine d. Quetiapine e. a and b 2007 exam3 q24 |
b. apripiprazole
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Referring to the phenothiazine class of antipsychotic drugs:
a. They are more effective against positive symptoms than negative symptoms b. There is little or no difference in the efficacy of individual drugs within the class. c. Drugs within the class differ in the spectrum of side effects due to differences in receptor selectivity. d. A and b e. All of the above 2007 exam3 q25 |
e. all of the above
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Antipsychotic drug-induced amenorrhea, galactorrhea and gynecomastia result from blockade of ______receptors.
a. D1 b. D2 c. 5HT2 d. H1 e. Alpha1 2007 exam3 q26 |
COME BACK TO THIS ONE (D2 and/or alpha1)
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The issue of Tardive Dyskinesia is best managed by:
a. Administration of benztropine b. Scopolamine patch c. Occasional administration of dantrolene d. Administration of sustained release L-dopa/carbidopa e. Prevention 2007 exam3 q27 |
e. prevention
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The triad of signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is:
a. bradykinesia, tremor, akathesia b. Hypothermia, hypotension, hypoglycemia c. Hyperthermia, hypertension, EPS d. Hyperthermia, hypertension, hyperglycemia 2007 exam3 q28 |
c. hyperthermia, hypertension, EPS
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Increased muscle tension (EPS) associated with early administration of antipsychotic drugs may be treated with:
a. Benztropine b. Diphenhydramine c. Dantrolene d. a and b e. All of the above 2007 exam3 q29 |
d. a and b
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The incretin effect may be thought of as (two of the following)
a. the difference in blood sugar levels with different glucose loads b. the amount of insulin produced as a result of incretin release c. the process by which the pancreas produces insulin d. the difference in insulin response to oral and IV glucose loads e. the rate of fall of glucose in response to an injection of incretin 2007 exam3 q32 |
Accepted answers:
b. the amount of insulin produced as a result of incretin release and d. the difference in insulin response to oral and IV glucose loads |
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Which of the following is NOT true about exenatide (Byetta)?
a. it is derived from the saliva of the Gila monster b. It is associated with a feeling of fullness and nausea c. it is administered orally once a day upon rising d. it is somewhat resistant to DPP-IV metabolism e. it may preserve pancreatic beta-cell function and increase beta-cell mass 2007 exam3 q33 |
c. it is administered orally once a day upon rising
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Exenatide (Byetta) shares which of the following glucoregulatory actions with glucagon-like peptide=1 (GLP-1)?
a. enhances glucose-dependent insulin secretion b. suppresses inappropriate glucagon secretion c. slows gastric emptying and reduces food intake d. a and c e. all of the above 2007 exam3 q34 |
e. all of the above
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Sitagliptin is the first dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor to be marketed in the world. It has been associated with which of the following?
a. weight gain of 5-10 poundsin the first year of therapy b. a lower incidence of hypoglycemia than most sulfonylurease c. skin problems in clinical trials that were not seen in animal studies d. an inhibition in the degradation of GIP, but not GLP-1 e. all of the above 2007 exam3 q35 |
b. a lower incidence of hypoglycemia than most sulfonylureas
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Which antidiabetic drug has the most beneficial effect on atherosclerosis and the dyslipidemia associated with type 2 diabetes mellitus?
a. metformin (Glucophage) b. rosiglitazone (Avandia) c. repaglinide (Prandin) d. exenatide (Byetta) e. acarbose (Precose) 2007 exam3 q36 |
b. rosiglitazone (Avandia)
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The risk of lactic acidosis is increased in an elderly type 2 diabetes mellitus patient with impaired renal function and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who is taking the following drug:
a. metformin (Glucophage) b. rosiglitazone (Avandia) c. repaglinide (Prandin) d. exenatide (Byetta) e. acarbose (Precose) 2007 exam3 q37 |
a. metformin (Glucophage)
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Which of the following drugs does not reduce insulin resistance?
a. metformin (Glucophage) b. rosiglitazone (Avandia) c. pioglitazone (Actos) d. glipizide (Glucotrol) e. none of the above; they all reduce insulin resistance 2007 exam3 q38 |
d. glipizide (Glucotrol)
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The following insulin preparation does NOT produce a peak action, but instead produces a relatively constant action over 24 hours:
a. insulin Lispro b. insulin aspart c. insulin glargine d. NPH insulin e. extended zinc insulin (Ultralente) 2007 exam3 q39 |
c. insulin glargine
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The following is true of pramlintide (Symlin):
a. it is a synthetic analog of amylin b. it decreases postprandial glucose levels c. it suppresses glucagon release and suppresses appetite d. it is injected subcutaneously prior to meals e. all of the above 2007 exam3 q40 |
e. all of the above
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The following drugs require functioning beta cells in the islets of Langerhans to be effective in treating type 2 DM patients except:
a. repaglinide (Prandin) b. tolbutamide c. glyburide (Micronase) d. metformin (Glucophage) e. sitagliptin (Januvia) 2007 exam3 q41 |
d. metformin (Glucophage)
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Thiazolidinediones as a drug class used in therapy of type 2 diabetes mellitus have the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. they require several months to achieve the maximum effect due to a mechanism that involves gene regulation b. they have a tendency to cause fluid retention/edema c. they usually are associated with weight gain d. they have a high risk for hepatotoxicity and require hepatic testing as long as the drug is taken e. none of the above; they are all correct 2007 exam3 q42 |
d. they have a high risk for hepatotoxicity and require hepatic testing as long as the drug is taken
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T/F: Combination therapy in patients with type 2 DM is not needed since it adds expense to the treatment costs, and since most patients achieve success with a drug from just one class plus insulin. Once therapy has been shown to be successful, there is no need to add drugs to this regimen.
2007 exam3 q43 |
False
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Match the following cancer chemotherapeutic agents with the most appropriate cell proliferation-independent adverse event:
Agents cisplatin cyclophosphamide doxorubicin vincristine Adverse events a. cardiotoxicity b. nephrotoxicity c. hemorrhagic cystitis d. neurotoxicity 2007 exam3 q44-47 |
cisplatin / nephrotoxicity
cyclophosphamide / hemorrhagic cystitis doxorubicin / cardiotoxicity vincristine / neurotoxicity |
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Cell-cycle specific or cell cycle-nonspecific? Taxanes.
2007 exam3 q48 |
Cell-cycle specific
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Cell-cycle specific or cell cycle-nonspecific? Alkylating agents.
2007 exam3 q49 |
Cell-cycle nonspecific
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Cell-cycle specific or cell cycle-nonspecific? Platinum analogs.
2007 exam3 q50 |
Cell-cycle nonspecific
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Cell-cycle specific or cell cycle-nonspecific? Antimetabolites.
2007 exam3 q51 |
Cell-cycle specific
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Cell-cycle specific or cell cycle-nonspecific? Vinca alkaloids.
2007 exam3 q52 |
Cell-cycle specific
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Cyclophosphamide:
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q53 |
a. alkylating agent
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Doxorubicin:
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q54 |
c. topoisomerase inhibitor
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5-fluorouracil:
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q55 |
b. antimetabolite
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Etoposide:
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q56 |
c. topoisomerase inhibitor
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Vincristine:
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q57 |
d. antimicrotubule agent
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Mechlorethamine:
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q58 |
a. alkylating agent
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Tamoxifen:
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q59 |
e. hormonal agent
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Paclitaxel:
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q60 |
d. antimicrotubule agent
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Methotrexate:
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q61 |
b. antimetabolite
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Topotecan:
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q62 |
c. topoisomerase inhibitor
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Cytarabine (Ara-C):
a. alkylating agent b. antimetabolite c. topoisomerase inhibitor d. antimicrotubule agent e. hormonal agent 2007 exam3 q63 |
b. antimetabolite
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Cytarabine (Ara-C) is classified as a:
a. folic acid antagonist b. purine analogue c. pyrimidine analogue d. adenosine deaminase inhibitor 2007 exam3 q64 |
c. pyrimidine analogue
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Anthracyclines exert their cytotoxic effect by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT:
a. DNA intercalation b. inhibition of RNA synthesis c. inhibition of DNA synthesis d. alkylation of DNA e. topoisomerase inhibition 2007 exam3 q65 |
d. alkylation of DNA
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T/F: Topoisomerase inhibitors are most active in M phase of the cell cycle.
2007 exam3 q70 |
false
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T/F: Vinca alkaloids are most active in S phase of the cell cycle.
2007 exam3 q71 |
false
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T/F: Cancer chemotherapeutic drugs are effective due to the fact that cancer cells are mitotically dissimilar to normal cells in the patient
2007 exam3 q72 |
false
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T/F: Apoptosis is best defined as the formation of new blood vessels within the tumor.
2007 exam3 q73 |
false
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The general mechanisms of cytotoxic chemotherapy drugs include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Inhibition of Protein Synthesis b. Inhibition of Mitosis c. Inhibition of Cellular Differentiation d. Interference with RNA Synthesis e. Interference with DNA synthesis 2007 exam3 q74 |
c. inhibition of cellular differentiation
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The mechanism of action of the aromatase inhibitors is best described as:
a. Inhibition dihydrotestosterone binding to the androgen receptor b. Inhibition estradiol binding to the estrogen responsive element c. Inhibition of the formation of pregnenolone from cholesterol d. Inhibition of the formation of estradiol from testosterone e. Inhibition of luteinizing hormone release from the pituitary 2007 exam3 q75 |
d. inhibition of the formation of estradiol from testosterone
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What is the appropriate chemical designation for the above structure?
a. purine analogue b. pyrimidine analogue c. anthracycline d. alkylating agent 2007 exam3 q69 |
d. alkylating agent
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What is the appropriate chemical designation for the above structure?
a. purine analogue b. pyrimidine analogue c. anthracycline d. alkylating agent 2007 exam3 q68 |
c. anthracycline
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What is the appropriate chemical designation for the above structure?
a. purine analogue b. pyrimidine analogue c. anthracycline d. alkylating agent 2007 exam3 q67 |
b. pyrimidine analogue
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What is the appropriate chemical designation for the above structure?
a. purine analogue b. pyrimidine analogue c. anthracycline d. alkylating agent 2007 exam3 q66 |
a. purine analogue
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With respect to expected therapeutic effect the most potent drug above is:
a. Drug X b. Drug Y c. Drug Z d. They are equally potent e. Cannot be determined since they do not share common X and Y axes 2007 exam3 q30 |
c. Drug Z
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The drug with the greatest margin of safety (Certain Safety Factor) is:
a. Drug X b. Drug Y c. Drug Z 2007 exam3 q31 |
b. Drug Y
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Which of the above is the chemical structure of doxorubicin?
2006 exam3 q64 |
B is the chemical structure of doxorubicin
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The cardinal signs of PD include:
a. tremor b. rigidity c. bradykinesia d. a and b e. all of the above 2006 exam3 q1 |
e. all of the above
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The dopaminergic system is resilient since signs of PD do not ordinarily appear until approximately ___% of the dopamine neurons have been lost:
a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 e. 90 2006 exam3 q2 |
d. 75
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Aside from enhancing dopaminergic activity, currently the next most efficacious pharmacologic treatment of PD is:
a. blockade of glutaminergic neurotransmission b. blockade of cholinergic neurotransmission c. blockade of GABAergic neurotransmission transmission d. blockade of BDNF e. enhancement of noradrenergic neurotransmission 2006 exam3 q3 |
b. blockade of cholinergic neurotransmission
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Factors that may contribute to PD include:
a. lack of NADH b. iron deficiency c. decreased ability to auto-oxidize dopamine d. a and b e. all of the above 2006 exam3 q4 |
d. a and b
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Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase:
a. trihexyphenidyl b. apomorphine c. selegiline d. carbidopa e. entacapone 2006 exam3 q5 |
d. carbidopa
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Inhibition of MAO-type B:
a. trihexyphenidyl b. apomorphine c. selegiline d. carbidopa e. entacapone 2006 exam3 q6 |
c. selegiline
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Inhibition of COMT:
a. trihexyphenidyl b. apomorphine c. selegiline d. carbidopa e. entacapone 2006 exam3 q7 |
e. entacapone
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Dopamine receptor agonist:
a. trihexyphenidyl b. apomorphine c. selegiline d. carbidopa e. entacapone 2006 exam3 q9 |
b. apomorphine
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Abrupt discontinuation of dopaminergic drug administration during treatment of PD may result in life-threatening:
a. Hypertensive crisis b. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome c. Increased seizure activity in patients with history of seizure d. a and b e. All of the above 2006 exam3 q10 |
b. neuroleptic malignant syndrome
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Amantadine:
a. Was specifically designed as a therapeutic agent for PD with multifaceted action (enhance synthesis and release of DA, block uptake of DA) . b. Was the first effective Antiparkinson drug in clinical use c. Is most useful in the latter stages of PD d. a and b e. none of the above 2006 exam3 q11 |
e. none of the above
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Bromocriptine:
a. Was first approved for treatment of hyperprolactinemia b. Is contraindicated in patients with vasospastic disorders c. Is reserved for early stages of PD d. a and b e. All of the above 2006 exam3 q12 |
d. a and b
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The cheese effect is a risk when foods rich in tyramine are ingested with:
a. COMT inhibitors b. Dopa decarboxylase inhibitors c. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors d. a and b e. All of the above 2006 exam3 q14 |
c. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
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In comparison to typical neuroleptics the atypical neuroleptics:
a. Are less likely to produce extrapyramidal symptoms b. Are less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia c. Are less likely to produce weight gain d. a and b e. All of the above 2006 exam3 q15 |
d. a and b
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Aside from their different D2 receptor binding, the receptor binding profile of atypical neuroleptics that improves their therapeutic efficacy over typical neuroleptics includes:
a. greater affinity for 5HT2 receptors b. greater affinity for histamine receptors c. greater affinity for sigma receptors d. a and b e. a and c 2006 exam3 q16 |
a. greater affinity for 5HT2 receptors
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Match the side effect of antipsychotic drugs to the receptor involved.
Tardive dyskinesia: a. alpha1 b. Muscarinic c. D2 d. sigma e. NMDA 2006 exam3 q17 |
c. D2
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Match the side effect of antipsychotic drugs to the receptor involved.
akathesia: a. alpha1 b. Muscarinic c. D2 d. sigma e. NMDA 2006 exam3 q18 |
c. D2
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Match the side effect of antipsychotic drugs to the receptor involved.
Difficulty urinating: a. alpha1 b. Muscarinic c. D2 d. sigma e. NMDA 2006 exam3 q19 |
b. Muscarinic
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Match the side effect of antipsychotic drugs to the receptor involved.
Male impotence and failure to ejaculate: a. alpha1 b. Muscarinic c. D2 d. sigma e. NMDA 2006 exam3 q20 |
a. alpha1
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Match the side effect of antipsychotic drugs to the receptor involved.
Toxic-confusional state: a. alpha1 b. Muscarinic c. D2 d. sigma e. NMDA 2006 exam3 q21 |
b. Muscarinic
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Match the side effect of antipsychotic drugs to the receptor involved.
Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, infertility and impotence: a. alpha1 b. Muscarinic c. D2 d. sigma e. NMDA 2006 exam3 q22 |
c. D2
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T/F: In the theoretical model of schizophrenia that accounts for the therapeutic efficacy of atypical antipsychotic drugs the model requires that the agent should block D2 receptors in the nucleus accumbens
2006 exam3 q23 |
True
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T/F: In the theoretical model of schizophrenia that accounts for the therapeutic efficacy of atypical antipsychotic drugs the model requires that the agent should block presynaptic glutamate receptors in the nucleus accumbens
2006 exam3 q24 |
false
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T/F: In the theoretical model of schizophrenia that accounts for the therapeutic efficacy of atypical antipsychotic drugs the model requires that the agent should block 5HT2 receptors in the prefrontal cortex
2006 exam3 q25 |
true
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T/F: In the theoretical model of schizophrenia that accounts for the therapeutic efficacy of atypical antipsychotic drugs the model requires that the agent should increase dopamine concentrations in the prefrontal cortex
2006 exam3 q26 |
true
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T/F: In the theoretical model of schizophrenia that accounts for the therapeutic efficacy of atypical antipsychotic drugs the model requires that the agent should down regulate D2 receptors in the nucleus accumbens
2006 exam3 q27 |
true
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T/F: In the theoretical model of schizophrenia that accounts for the therapeutic efficacy of atypical antipsychotic drugs the model requires that the agent should increase glutamate release in the nucleus accumbens
2006 exam3 q28 |
true
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T/F: In the theoretical model of schizophrenia that accounts for the therapeutic efficacy of atypical antipsychotic drugs the model requires that the agent should increase serotonin release in the nucleus accumbens
2006 exam3 q29 |
false
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The mainstay of treatment of Alzheimer’s Disease is treatment with:
a. combination therapy ACHEI and direct cholinergic agonist b. combination therapy of direct cholinergic agonist and NMDA receptor blocker c. acetylcholine esterase inhibitors d. cholinergic receptor antagonist e. glutamate receptor blockers 2006 exam3 q30 |
c. acetylcholine esterase inhibitors
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Galantamine has weak ACHEI activity but is one of the most efficacious of the ACHEI class of drugs for treatment of Alzheimer’s Disease because it:
a. binds irreversibly to ACHE b. is a dual muscarinic and nicotinic receptor agonist c. is a nicotinic receptor agonist and ACHEI d. is an ACEI and nicotinic receptor positive allosteric modulator e. is an NMDA receptor antagonist and ACHEI 2006 exam3 q31 |
d. is an ACEI and nicotinic receptor positive allosteric modulator
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A significant drug interaction could be produced in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus patients taking the following drug in which hypoglycemia may be potentiated and the warning signs of hypoglycemia may be blocked:
a. thiazide diuretics b. oral contraceptives c. glucocorticoids d. non-selective beta adrenergic blocking agents e. alcohol 2006 exam3 q33 |
d. non-selective beta adrenergic blocking agents
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The following drug has the same mechanism of action as the sulfonylureas, but may be more selective for pancreatic K+/ ATP channels in the beta cells:
a. metformin (Glucophage) b. rosiglitazone (Avandia) c. repaglinide (Prandin) d. exenatide (Byetta) e. acarbose (Precose) 2006 exam3 q34 |
c. repaglinide (Prandin)
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An important effect of insulin in Diabetes Mellitus patients is:
a. increased conversion of amino acids into glucose b. increased gluconeogenesis c. inhibition of lipoprotein lipase d. increased glucose transport into cells e. stimulation of glycogenolysis 2006 exam3 q35 |
d. increased glucose transport into cells
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An elderly patient with impaired renal function and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with type 2 diabetes mellitus should not receive metformin because it can increase the risk of:
a. excessive weight gain b. hypoglycemia c. lactic acidosis d. serious hepatotoxicity e. cardiac arrhythmias 2006 exam3 q36 |
c. lactic acidosis
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The following is true of the thiazolidinedione group of antidiabetic drugs [e.g. pioglitazone (Actos)]:
a. they do not stimulate insulin secretion b. they decrease insulin resistance c. they are active only when insulin is present d. they bind to nuclear peroxisome proliferator receptors (PPAR) e. all of the above 2006 exam3 q37 |
e. all of the above
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The insulin preparation that does NOT produce a peak action, but instead produces a relatively constant action is:
a. Insulin Lispro b. Insulin Glargine c. Insulin Aspart d. regular insulin e. Extended zinc insulin (Ultralente) 2006 exam3 q38 |
b. insulin glargine
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The following is true for the newly-approved inhaled insulin (Exubera):
a. it is a long acting insulin, administered once a day b. it is not to be used in patients with cardiovascular diseases c. its most common adverse effect is hypoglycemia d. it eliminates the need for injections of insulin e. all of the above 2006 exam3 q39 |
c. its most common adverse effect is hypoglycemia
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Insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells is increased when:
a. potassium conductance is decreased and calcium influx is increased b. potassium conductance is increased and calcium influx is increased c. potassium conductance is decreased and calcium influx is decreased d. potassium conductance is increased and calcium influx is decreased e. potassium conductance is increased and calcium efflux is increased 2006 exam3 q40 |
a. potassium conductance is decreased and calcium influx is increased
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Glyburide is an example of:
a. an oral insulin secretagogue b. an oral hypoglycemic agent c. a second generation sulfonylurea d. a and b e. all of the above 2006 exam3 q41 |
e. all of the above
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The following is an effective therapy for type 1 diabetes mellitus patients:
a. acarbose b. glimepiride c. glipizide/metformin combination d. insulin e. all of the above 2006 exam3 q42 |
d. insulin
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The mechanism of action of the platinums is best described as:
a. inhibition of tubulin polymerization b. formation of ternary complex with topoisomerase II and DNA c. formation of G-G DNA adducts d. disruption of purine synthesis e. disruption of purine synthesis 2006 exam3 q54 |
c. formation of G-G DNA adducts
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Methotrexate exerts its antitumor activity by which of the following mechanisms:
a. inhibition of tubulin polymerization b. inhibits adenosine deaminase, and the deamination of adenosine to inosine c. Inhibits the thymidylate synthase and the formation of thymine d. Inhibits the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate e. Stabilize the covalent DNA-topo complex resulting in DNA single strand breaks 2006 exam3 q55 |
d. inhibits the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate
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Tamoxifen is indicated for which of the following cancers?
a. estrogen receptor positive breast cancer b. estrogen receptor negative breast cancer c. androgen receptor positive breast cancer d. androgen receptor positive prostate cancer e. androgen receptor positive ovarian cancer 2006 exam3 q56 |
a. estrogen receptor positive breast cancer
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Chemotherapy agents are effective in treating cancer by taking advantage of which of the following properties of cancer cells:
a. Tumor cells can be recognized as foreign bodies by the immune system b. Tumor cells are mitotically different from normal cells with mitosis occurring at a faster rate c. Tumor cells are mitotically similar to normal cells but the rate through G1-S-G2 occurs at a faster rate d. Tumor cells are sensitive to chemotherapy, but normal cells are immune to their cytotoxicity 2006 exam3 q57 |
c. tumor cells are mitotically similar to normal cells but the rate through G1-S-G2 occurs at a faster rate
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The general mechanisms of cytotoxic chemotherapy drugs include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Inhibition of Protein Synthesis b. Inhibition of Cellular Differentiation c. Inhibition of Mitosis d. Interference with RNA Synthesis e. Interference with DNA synthesis 2006 exam3 q58 |
b. inhibition of cellular differentiation
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Cell-cycle specific or cell-cycle nonspecific? Alkylating agents.
2006 exam3 q59 |
Cell-cycle nonspecific
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Cell-cycle specific or cell-cycle nonspecific? Antimetabolites.
2006 exam3 q60 |
Cell-cycle specific
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Cell-cycle specific or cell-cycle nonspecific? Antimitotics (antimicrotubulin agents).
2006 exam3 q61 |
Cell-cycle specific
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Cell-cycle specific or cell-cycle nonspecific? Heavy metal compounds (Platinums).
2006 exam3 q62 |
Cell-cycle nonspecific
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Cell-cycle specific or cell-cycle nonspecific? Topoisomerase inhibitors.
2006 exam3 q63 |
Cell-cycle specific
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The unique toxicity of peripheral neuropathy is associated with which of the plant derived chemotherapeutic agents?
a. doxorubicin b. cisplatin c. echlorethamine d. cyclophosphamide e. paclitaxel 2006 exam3 q65 |
e. paclitaxel
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The unique toxicity of cardiomyopathy (cardio toxicity) is associated with which chemical class of chemotherapeutic agents?
a. anthracyclines b. epipodophyllotoxins c. vinca alkaloids d. captothecins e. purine analogues 2006 exam3 q66 |
a. anthracyclines
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The unique toxicity of nephrotoxicity is associated with which of the chemotherapeutic agents?
a. doxorubicin b. 5-fluorouracil c. cisplatin d. paclitaxel e. vincristine 2006 exam3 q67 |
c. cisplatin
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The most common toxicities associated with cancer chemotherapy agents are:
a. renal toxicity, hepatic toxicity, and dermatologic toxicity b. anaphylaxis, cardio toxicity, and ophthalmologic toxicity c. neurotoxicity, renal toxicity, gynecomastia d. hepatitis, jaundice, myelosuppression e. myelosuppression, gastrointestinal toxicity, and alopecia 2006 exam3 q68 |
e. myelosuppression, gastrointestinal toxicity, and alopecia
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The mechanism of alkylating agents is best described as:
a. formation of DNA cross links between purines and pyrimidines b. inhibition of purine and pyrimidine synthesis c. inhibition of topoisomerase d. DNA intercalation e. Activation of tumor suppressor genes 2006 exam3 q69 |
a. formation of DNA cross links between purines and pyrimidines
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The mechanism of action of the taxanes (paclitaxel, docetaxel) is best described as:
a. inhibition of tubulin polymerization b. stabilization of tubulin polymer (hyperpolymerization) c. inhibition of topoisomerase I d. inhibition of topoisomerase II e. disruption of purine synthesis 2006 exam3 q70 |
b. stabilization of tubulin polymer (hyperpolymerization)
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Select the site(s) in the diagram at which haloperidol may act to produce Parkinson-like symptoms:
a. I b. II c. III d. II & III e. III and IV 2005 exam3 q33 |
a. I
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Select the site (s) in the diagram at which benztropine may act to relieve haloperidol-induced EPS:
a. I b. II c. III d. I & II e. III & IV 2005 exam3 q34 |
b. II
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Because of clozapine’s unique receptor binding profile, select the site (s) in the diagram at which it may act to minimize EPS when used to treat schizophrenia or to treat PD patients experiencing hallucinations as a result of their PD treatment regimen:
a. I b. II c. III d. II & IV e. IV and V 2005 exam3 q35 |
b. II
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The following are other symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease:
a. micrography b. dementia c. “lead pipe” rigidity d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam3 q2 |
d. a and b
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Based upon the oxidative stress theory of PD, drug treatment or nutritional supplements may provide neuroprotection rather than simply symptomatic treatment of PD. Select the potential neuroprotective treatment.
a. NADH b. Selegiline c. Iron d. a and b e. All of the above 2005 exam3 q3 |
d. a and b
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The underlying neurochemical/neuroanatomical cause of Parkinson Disease is:
a. loss of cholinergic input to the caudate/putamen (striatum) b. decreased production of DA due to defect in tyrosine hydroxylase c. loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra d. loss of D2 receptors in the caudate and putamen (striatum) e. a and b 2005 exam3 q4 |
c. loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
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The effect of COMTI’s in treatment of PD is to:
a. preserve DA in brain b. prevent formation of 3-OMD in brain c. prevent formation of 3-O-methyldopa peripherally d. a and b e. b and c 2005 exam3 q5 |
c. prevent formation of 3-O-methyldopa peripherally
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The effect of carbidopa in treatment of PD is to:
a. preserve DA in brain b. prevent metabolism of L-DOPA peripherally c. prevent intraneuronal conversion of DA to NE d. a and b e. b and c 2005 exam3 q6 |
b. prevent metabolism of L-DOPA peripherally
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Although carbidopa plus L-DOPA is the mainstay of PD treatment, other rational drug combinations exist. Is the following combination of anti-PD drugs rational or irrational?
Bromocriptine and pergolide 2005 exam3 q7 |
irrational
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|
Although carbidopa plus L-DOPA is the mainstay of PD treatment, other rational drug combinations exist. Is the following combination of anti-PD drugs rational or irrational?
entacapone, carbidopa and L-DOPA 2005 exam3 q8 |
rational
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Although carbidopa plus L-DOPA is the mainstay of PD treatment, other rational drug combinations exist. Is the following combination of anti-PD drugs rational or irrational?
Benztropine and trihexyphenidyl 2005 exam3 q9 |
irrational
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Although carbidopa plus L-DOPA is the mainstay of PD treatment, other rational drug combinations exist. Is the following combination of anti-PD drugs rational or irrational?
selegiline, tolcapone and L-DOPA 2005 exam3 q10 |
rational
|
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Although carbidopa plus L-DOPA is the mainstay of PD treatment, other rational drug combinations exist. Is the following combination of anti-PD drugs rational or irrational?
selegiline, entacapone, carbidopa and L-DOPA 2005 exam3 q11 |
irrational
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The problematic “on-off” phenomenon in PD treatment with L-DOPA and carbidopa may result from:
a. DA receptor supersensitivity b. formation of 3-OMD c. feed-back inhibition of tyrosine hydroxylase in brain d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam3 q12 |
d. a and b
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Non-ergot direct acting D2 agonist:
a. ropinirole b. selegiline c. benztropine d. bromocriptine e. amantadine 2005 exam3 q13 |
a. ropinirole
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Indirect-acting dopamine agonist and antiviral drug:
a. ropinirole b. selegiline c. benztropine d. bromocriptine e. amantadine 2005 exam3 q14 |
e. amantadine
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Muscarinic receptor antagonist:
a. ropinirole b. selegiline c. benztropine d. bromocriptine e. amantadine 2005 exam3 q15 |
c. benztropine
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Because of its ergot alkaloid derivation, avoid use of this drug in patients with Raynaud’s disease:
a. ropinirole b. selegiline c. benztropine d. bromocriptine e. amantadine 2005 exam3 q16 |
d. bromocriptine
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Metabolites include methamphetamine and amphetamine, which may produce psychomotor stimulant side effects:
a. ropinirole b. selegiline c. benztropine d. bromocriptine e. amantadine 2005 exam3 q17 |
b. selegiline
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Because of the unique binding profile of Haloperidol, Clozapine and Risperidone, considerable effort is being placed upon development of new neuroleptics with high degree of binding to:
a. 5HT-2a receptors b. histamine H1 receptors c. glutamate (NMDA) receptors d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam3 q18 |
a. 5HT-2a receptors
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T/F: In the theoretical model of schizophrenia that accounts for the therapeutic efficacy of atypical antipsychotic drugs, the model requires that the drugs should increase GABAergic activity in the nucleus accumbens.
2005 exam3 q23 |
True
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T/F: In the theoretical model of schizophrenia that accounts for the therapeutic efficacy of atypical antipsychotic drugs, the model requires that the drugs should increase serotonin release in the prefrontal cortex.
2005 exam3 q25 |
False
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|
The data in this figure supports the claim that effective antipsychotic drugs:
a. cause an upregulation of D2 receptors b. must exhibit D2 receptor blockade c. require strong D2 receptor blockade plus some additional D1 receptor blockade d. a and b e. b and c 2005 exam3 q26 |
b. must exhibit D2 receptor blockade
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The therapeutic benefit of antipsychotic drugs correlates best with:
a. NMDA and 5-HT2 receptor blockade b. D1 and D2 receptor blockade c. D2 and H1 receptor blockade d. D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blockade e. D2 blockade and NMDA receptor stimulation 2005 exam3 q27 |
d. D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blockade
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Of the following motor deficits that may be associated with neuroleptic administration, select the type that is essentially irreversible.
a. dystonia b. akinesia c. tardive dyskinesia d. akathisia 2005 exam3 q28 |
c. tardive dyskinesia
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Which drug may be used as a treatment for akathisia?
a. propranolol b. clozapine c. phenothiazine d. diphenhydramine e. carbamazepine 2005 exam3 q29 |
a. propranolol
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Which drug may be used as a treatment for acute dystonia?
a. propranolol b. clozapine c. phenothiazine d. diphenhydramine e. carbamazepine 2005 exam3 q30 |
d. diphenhydramine
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Which drug may be used as a treatment for nausea and vomiting?
a. propranolol b. clozapine c. phenothiazine d. diphenhydramine e. carbamazepine 2005 exam3 q31 |
c. phenothiazine
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Which drug may be used as a treatment for patients exhibiting resistance to typical neuroleptic treatment?
a. propranolol b. clozapine c. phenothiazine d. diphenhydramine e. carbamazepine 2005 exam3 q32 |
b. clozapine
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There is a high correlation between occurrence of _____ and administration of phenothiazines to children and young adults experiencing flu symptoms
a. agranulocytosis b. Reyes syndrome c. EPS d. Serotonin syndrome e. NMS 2005 exam3 q36 |
b. Reyes syndrome
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One of the most prominent side effects of atypical neuroleptics generally is:
a. sedation b. EPS c. weight gain d. agranulocytosis e. tardive dyskinesia 2005 exam3 q37 |
c. weight gain
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|
Aside from their neuroleptic action, the additional clinical benefit of some atypical neuroleptics is due to their:
a. anticonvulsant action b. anxiolytic action c. antidepressant action d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam3 q38 |
b. Anxiolytic action
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The neuroanatomical/neurochemical substrate of Alzheimer’s disease is:
a. central loss of cholinergic nerves b. central loss of muscarinic cholinergic receptors c. central loss of nicotinic cholinergic receptors d. a and b e. a and c 2005 exam3 q39 |
a. central loss of cholinergic nerves
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|
The mainstay of treatment of AD is treatment with:
a. acetylcholine esterase inhibitors b. cholinergic receptor agonist c. NMDA receptor blockers d. combination therapy ACHEI and direct cholinergic agonist e. combination therapy of direct cholinergic agonist and NMDA receptor blocker 2005 exam3 q40 |
a. acetylcholine esterase inhibitors
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|
Galantamine has weak ACHEI activity but is one of the most efficacious of the ACHEI class of drugs for treatment of AD because it:
a. binds irreversibly to ACE b. is muscarinic cholinergic receptor agonist and ACEI c. is a nicotinic receptor agonist and ACEI d. is a nicotinic receptor positive allosteric modulator and ACEI e. is an NMDA receptor antagonist and ACEI 2005 exam3 q41 |
d. is a nicotinic receptor positive allosteric modulator and ACEI
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|
The therapeutic effect derived from Memantine is due to:
a. block of NMDA receptors b. block of NMDA receptor operated ion channels c. block of glycine positive allosteric modulatory site on NMDA operated ion channel d. a and b e. b and c 2005 exam3 q42 |
b. block of NMDA receptor operated ion channels
|
|
|
Which of the following is TRUE for mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?
a. Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells without entering the cells b. Sulfonylureas may also sensitize the pancreatic β cells to glucose and inhibit the efflux of potassium from pancreatic β cells c. Sulfonylureas induce increase activity of peripheral insulin intracellular receptors d. Sulfonylureas may act to reduce glucagon secretion e. All of the above 2005 exam3 q43 |
e. all of the above
|
|
|
All of the following drugs act by the same mechanism EXCEPT:
a. Tolbutamine b. Tolazamide c. Chlorpropamide d. Glipizide e. Troglitazone 2005 exam3 q44 |
e. troglitazone
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|
|
Effects of insulin include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. increased glucose transport into cells b. induction of lipoprotein lipase c. decreased gluconeogenesis d. stimulation of glycogenolysis e. decreased conversion of amino acids into glucose 2005 exam3 q45 |
d. stimulation of glycogenolysis
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|
|
Action of Nateglinide include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. amino-acid derivative that lowers blood glucose levels by stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas b. interacts with the ATP-sensitive potassium channel, producing calcium influx and insulin secretion c. highly selective for heart and skeletal muscle tissues d. stimulates insulin secretion within 20 minutes of oral administration e. opens potassium channel and causes cell polarization 2005 exam3 q46 |
e. opens potassium channel and causes cell polarization
|
|
|
Effects of Metformin include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. stimulates glycolysis in tissues, with an increase glucose removal from blood b. reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis c. reduces plasma glucagon levels d. decreases glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract e. increases glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract 2005 exam3 q47 |
e. increases glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
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|
|
The main function Biguanides is to:
a. decrease glucose removal from blood b. enhance gluconeogenesis in adipose tissues c. enhance plasma glucagon levels d. enhance sodium concentration e. none of the above 2005 exam3 q48 |
e. none of the above
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|
|
All of the following drugs act by the same mechanism EXCEPT:
a. Tolbutamine b. Tolazamide c. Chlorpropamide d. Glipizide e. Phenformin 2005 exam3 q49 |
e. phenformin
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|
|
Which of the following is TRUE for mechanism of action of glitazone?
a. enhances target tissue insulin sensitivity (insulin sensitizers) b. binds to nuclear receptor called the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma (PPARg) c. promotes transcription of several genes with products that are important in insulin signaling, including lipoprotein lipase, fatty acid transporter protein, adipocyte fatty acid-binding protein and Glut-4 d. All of the above e. None of the above 2005 exam3 q50 |
d. all of the above
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|
|
All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer chemotherapy regimen EXCEPT:
a. procarbazine b. vincristine c. mechlorethamine d. pentostatin e. prednisone 2005 exam3 q51 |
d. pentostatin
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|
|
Proliferation independent agents include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. vincristine b. carmustine c. cyclophosphamide d. mechlorethamine e. melphalan 2005 exam3 q52 |
a. vincristine
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|
|
True statements regarding alkylating agents include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. they are phase nonspecific b. they kill rapidly proliferating cells c. acquired resistance can occur d. they are structurally similar to naturally occurring endogenous substances e. they kill nonproliferating cells 2005 exam3 q53 |
d. they are structurally similar to naturally occurring endogenous substances
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|
|
Alkylating nitrogen mustards often produce all of the following side effects EXCEPT:
a. aplasia of the bone marrow b. renal toxicity c. alopecia d. menstrual irregularities e. nausea and vomiting 2005 exam3 q54 |
b. renal toxicity
|
|
|
Cyclophosphamide can be used to treat all of the following neoplastic disorders EXCEPT:
a. Hodgkin's disease b. Burkitt's lymphoma c. choriocarcinoma d. ovarian carcinoma e. breast carcinoma 2005 exam3 q55 |
c. choriocarcinoma
|
|
|
All of the following statements about the purine analog 6 mercaptopurine are correct EXCEPT:
a. it is a structural analog of hypoxanthine b. it decreases the synthesis of 5 phosphoribo¬sylamine c. it interferes with the formation of adenylosuc¬cinic acid d. its metabolism is stimulated by allopurinol e. it is used in the maintenance therapy of acute lymphoblastic leukemia 2005 exam3 q56 |
d. its metabolism is stimulated by allopurinol
|
|
|
All of the following statements regarding biologic response modifiers are true EXCEPT:
a. they can act directly on tumor cells b. they can act indirectly by enhancing the immunologic response to neoplastic cells c. IL 2 may have a role in the treatment of renal cell carcinoma d. they can deprive malignant cells of asparagine, resulting in the cessation of protein synthesis e. alpha interferon is useful for the treatment of hairy cell leukemia 2005 exam3 q57 |
d. they can deprive malignant cells of asparagine, resulting in the cessation of protein synthesis
|
|
|
Bleomycin is an antitumor agent that has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. it intercalates with DNA b. it acts by generating a free radical c. it requires ferrous ion for its action d. it kills cells in Go and G2 phases e. it is a useful single agent for testicular carcinoma 2005 exam3 q58 |
e. it is a useful single agent for testicular carcinoma
|
|
|
Which of the following statements about the cancer chemotherapeutic agent mitomycin is true?
a. It can be given orally b. it can be given intravesically c. It penetrates the CNS d. It is useful in treating breast cancer cell carcinoma e. It is effective for the treatment of prostate carcinoma 2005 exam3 q59 |
b. it can be given intravesically
|
|
|
Which of the following agents is used in drug combination regimens to treat testicular carcinoma (Adequate hydration of the patient and the use of an osmotic diuretic decrease the toxicity of the drug.)
a. Bleomycin b. Cisplatin c. Etoposide d. Leuprolide e. Vinblastine 2005 exam3 q60 |
b. cisplatin
|
|
|
Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be a mechanism of cancer cell resistance to antineoplastic drugs?
a. Change in properties of a target enzyme b. Decreased activity of activating enzymes c. Increase in drug metabolizing cytochrome P450 d. Increase in DNA repair e. Increase in production of drug trapping molecules, e.g. glutathione 2005 exam3 q61 |
c. increase in drug-metabolizing cytochrome P450
|
|
|
The phase of cell cycle that is resistant to most chemotherapeutic agents and requires increased dosage to obtain a response is:
a. M phase b. G2 phase c. S phase d. G0 phase e. G1 phase 2005 exam3 q62 |
d. G0 phase
|
|
|
Binding to the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase is the mechanism of action for:
a. rocarbazine b. paclitaxel c. methotrexate d. ifosfamide e. cladribine 2005 exam3 q63 |
c. methotrexate
|
|
|
Which of the following is considered to be the effective mechanism of action of the vinca alkaloids?
a. inhibition of the function of microtubules b. damage and prevention of repair of DNA c. inhibition of DNA synthesis d. inhibition of protein synthesis e. inhibition of purine synthesis 2005 exam3 q64 |
a. inhibition of the function of microtubules
|
|
|
Paclitaxel, an agent extracted from the yew tree, has all the following actions and uses EXCEPT:
a. it promotes premature cell division b. it can cause neutropenia c. it causes disorganized microtubule bundles d. It is used to treat metastatic breast cancer e. It is a topoisomerase I inhibitor 2005 exam3 q65 |
e. it is a topoisomerase I inhibitor
|
|
|
The mechanism of action of etoposide (VP-16) is to block:
a. topoisomerase II activity b. topoisomerase I activity c. microtubule assembly d. all of the above e. none of the above 2005 exam3 q66 |
a. topoisomerase II activity
|
|
|
The mechanism of action of camptothecin is to block:
a. microtubule assembly b. topoisomerase I activity c. topoisomerase II activity d. thymidylate synthase activity e. cytochrome P450 2005 exam3 q67 |
b. topoisomerase I activity
|
|
|
All of the functions of taxol are true EXCEPT:
a. It causes spindle poison 9prevents microtubule disassembly into tubulin monomers) b. It acts at M phase c. It is administered intravenously d. It is used in breast and ovarian cancer patients e. It has direct effects on the brain, as a result, patient commits suicide 2005 exam3 q68 |
e. It has direct effects on the brain, as a result, patient commits suicide
|
|
|
Which of the followings best describes the action of tamoxifen?
a. It is an estrogen receptor partial agonist, blocks the binding of estrogen to receptors of estrogen-sensitive cancer cells b. It damages microtubules c. It inhibits topoisomerase I activity d. It inhibits topoisomerase II activity e. None of the above 2005 exam3 q69 |
a. It is an estrogen receptor partial agonist, blocks the binding of estrogen to receptors of estrogen-sensitive cancer cells
|
|
|
Which one of the following is NOT a cancer chemo-preventive agent?
a. Curcumin derived from turmeric b. Resveratrol derived from grapes c. Genistein derived from soybean d. Lycopene derived from tomatoes e. Paclitaxel derived from Pacific yew tree 2005 exam3 q70 |
e. Paclitaxel derived from Pacific yew tree
|
|
Because of clozapine’s unique receptor binding profile, select the site(s) in the diagram at which it may act to minimize EPS when used to treat schizophrenia or to treat PD patients experiencing hallucinations as a result of their PD treatment regimen:
a. I b. II c. III d. II and IV e. IV and V 2005 exam4 q73 |
b. II
|
|
|
Because of the unique binding profile of haloperidol, clozapine and risperidone, considerable effort is being placed upon development of new neuroleptics with high degree of binding to:
a. 5-HT2a receptors b. histamine H1 receptors c. glutamate (NMDA) receptors d. a and b e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q74 |
a. 5-HT2a receptors
|
|
|
Galantamine has weak ACHEI activity but is one of the most efficacious of the ACHEI class of drugs for treatment of AD because it:
a. binds irreversibly to ACE b. is a Muscarinic cholinergic receptor agonist and ACEI c. is a nicotinic receptor agonist and ACEI d. is a nicotinic receptor positive allosteric modulator and ACEI e. is an NMDA receptor antagonist and ACEI 2005 exam4 q75 |
d. is a nicotinic receptor positive allosteric modulator and ACEI
|
|
|
Which of the following is TRUE for mechanism of action of sulfonylurease?
a. sulfonylureas stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells without entering the cells b. sulfonylureas may also sensitize the pancreatic beta cells to glucose and inhibit the efflux of potassium from pancreatic beta cells c. sulfonylureas increase activity of peripheral insulin intracellular receptors d. sulfonylureas may act to reduce glucagon secretion e. all of the above 2005 exam4 q76 |
e. all of the above
|
|
|
Action of nateglinide includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. amino-acid derivative that lowers blood glucose levels by stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas b. interacts with the ATP-sensitive potassium channel, producing calcium influx and insulin secretion c. highly selective for heart and skeletal muscle tissues d. stimulates insulin secretion within 20 minutes of oral administration e. opens potassium channel and causes cell polarization 2005 exam4 q77 |
e. opens potassium channel and causes cell polarization
|
|
What is the above structure?
|
Adenine
|
|
What is the above structure?
|
Cytosine
|
|
What does this structure represent?
|
Alkylating agent
|
|
What is this structure?
|
Anthracycline
|
|
What is this structure?
|
Aziridines
|
|
What is this structure?
|
Alkylsulfonate
|
|
What does this structure represent?
|
bis(chloroethyl)amines
|
|
What does this structure represent?
|
Bisulfan
|
|
What is this structure?
|
cyclophosphamide
|
|
What is this structure?
|
Cytidine
|
|
What is this structure?
|
Folic acid
|
|
What is this structure?
|
Guanine
|
|
What is this structure?
|
methotrexate (MTX)
|
|
What does this structure represent?
|
Nitrosureas (an alkylating agent)
|
|
What is this structure?
|
Purine analog
|
|
What does this structure represent?
|
Pyrimidine analog
|
|
What class are these structures?
|
Pyrimidines
|
|
What is this structure?
|
Thymine
|
|
What is this structure?
|
Uracil
|
|
What is this structure?
|
Uridine (uracil ribose)
|
|
Select the correct rank order for the estimated CSF (certain safety factor) for haloperidol, remoxipride and sulpiride in the figure
a. haloperidol > remoxipride > sulpiride b. remoxipride > sulpiride = haloperidol c. sulpiride > remoxipride > haloperidol d. remoxipride > haloperidol > sulpiride 2003 quiz7 q8 |
b. remoxipride > sulpiride = haloperidol
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|
|
The principal dopamine track that is damaged in PD is the:
a. tegmentum/mesolimbic b. tegmentum/cortex c. substantia nigra/cortex d. substantia nigra/corpus striatum e. hypothalamus/caudate-putamen 2006 quiz6 q1 |
d. substantia nigra/corpus striatum
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|
|
In the treatment of PD, inhibition of the following enzymes is therapeutic:
a. catechol-O-methyltransferase b. dopa decarboxylase c. monoamine oxidase type B d. a and b e. all of the above 2006 quiz6 q2 |
e. all of the above
|
|
|
Match the following drugs and actions:
Actions: inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase inhibition of MAO type B inhibition of COMT blockade of Muscarinic receptors and inhibition of DA reuptake dopamine receptor agonist Drugs: a. tolcapone b. ropinirol c. selegiline d. carbidopa e. benztropine 2006 quiz6 q3-7 |
inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase / d. carbidopa
inhibition of MAO type B / c. selegiline inhibition of COMT / a. tolcapone blockade of Muscarinic receptors and inhibition of DA reuptake / e. benztropine dopamine receptor agonist / ropinirol |
|
|
Abrupt discontinuation of dopaminergic drug administration during treatment of PD may result in life-threatening:
a. hypertensive crisis b. neuroleptic malignant syndrome c. seizures d. a and b e. all of the above 2006 quiz6 q8 |
b. neuroleptic malignant syndrome
|
|
|
The neurochemical/molecular correlates of schizophrenia include:
a. increased D2 Bmax b. downregulation of DA transporters c. glutaminergic activity d. a and b e. all of the above 2006 quiz6 q9 |
a. increased D2 Bmax
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|
|
In comparison to typical neuroleptics, the atypical neuroleptics:
a. are less likely to produce extrapyramidal symptoms b. are less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia c. are less likely to produce weight gain d. a and b e. all of the above 2006 quiz6 q10 |
d. a and b
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|
|
One of the newest additions to the antipsychotic armamentarium which is a partial agonist is:
a. olanzapine b. aripiprazole c. pimozide d. risperidone e. thioridazine 2006 quiz6 q11 |
b. aripiprazole
|
|
|
The negative features of schizophrenia are most affected by the blockade of:
a. D1 receptors b. 5-HT2 receptors c. H1 receptors d. NMDA receptors e. GABA receptors 2006 quiz6 q12 |
b. 5-HT2 receptors
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Match the following enzymes and their products:
Enzymes: a. MAO b. COMT c. AAA decarboxylase d. dopamine beta hydroxylase e. tyrosine hydroxylase Products: HVA Dopamine DOPA NE 3-OMD 2003 quiz7 q2-6 |
a. MAO / HVA
b. COMT / 3-OMD c. AAA decarboxylase / Dopamine d. dopamine beta hydroxylase / NE e. tyrosine hydroxylase / DOPA |
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Typical neuroleptics are most effective against:
a. positive symptoms b. negative symptoms c. refractory symptoms d. they are all equally effective against the full spectrum of symptoms if dosage is adjusted properly 2003 exam7 q7 |
a. positive symptoms
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The drug least likely to produce EPS is:
a. chlorpromazine b. clozapine c. risperidone d. haloperidol 2003 exam7 q9 |
b. clozapine
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The principal therapeutic action of phenothiazines and butyrophenone type antipsychotic drugs is to block ___ receptors:
a. 5HT2 b. muscarinic c. D1 d. D2 e. D5 2003 quiz7 q10 |
d. D2
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Characteristics of “atypical” neuroleptics that set them apart from “typical” neuroleptics is (are) that atypical:
a. improve positive and negative symptoms b. produce fewer EPS symptoms c. lack effects on muscarinic, histaminic, and adrenergic receptors d. a and b e. all of the above 2003 quiz7 q11 |
d. a and b
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The cardinal symptoms of Parkinson’s disease are:
a. tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia b. tremor, akinesia, akithesia c. rigidity, dystonia, tardive dyskinesia d. a and b e. all of the above 2002 quiz7 q1 |
a. tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia
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The principal neuroanatomical /neurochemical deficit in PD is:
a. loss of DA neurons in the substantia nigra b. loss of DA2 receptors in the striatum c. loss of DA neurons in the nucleus accumbens d. a and b e. all of the above 2002 quiz7 q2 |
a. loss of DA neurons in the substantia nigra
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Benztropine:
a. MAO-B inhibitor b. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor c. muscarinic receptor antagonist d. dopamine receptor agonist e. COMT inhibitor 2002 quiz7 q7 |
c. muscarinic receptor antagonist
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Selegiline:
a. MAO-B inhibitor b. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor c. muscarinic receptor antagonist d. dopamine receptor agonist e. COMT inhibitor 2002 quiz7 q8 |
a. MAO-B inhibitor
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Entacapone:
a. MAO-B inhibitor b. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor c. muscarinic receptor antagonist d. dopamine receptor agonist e. COMT inhibitor 2002 quiz7 q9 |
e. COMT inhibitor
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Bromocriptine:
a. MAO-B inhibitor b. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor c. muscarinic receptor antagonist d. dopamine receptor agonist e. COMT inhibitor 2002 quiz7 q10 |
d. dopamine receptor agonist
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Carbidopa:
a. MAO-B inhibitor b. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor c. muscarinic receptor antagonist d. dopamine receptor agonist e. COMT inhibitor 2002 quiz7 q11 |
b. Aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor
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A key mesolimbic feature in the hypothesis for the etiology of schizophrenia is:
a. increased D2 receptor density b. excessive phasic release of dopamine c. decreased DA transporters d. a and b e. all of the above 2002 quiz8 q1 |
d. a and b
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The greatest documented correlation between clinical effectiveness of antipsychotic (neuroleptic) drugs and their pharmacologic action is the relationship between their clinical dose and binding to the:
a. D2 receptor b. D1 receptor c. 5HT2 receptor d. a and b e. all of the above 2002 quiz8 q2 |
a. D2 receptor
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The rank order of selectivity of the following neuroleptic drugs for the 5HT2 receptor is:
a. haloperidol > clozapine > risperidone b. clozapine > haloperidol > risperidone c. risperidone > clozapine > haloperidol d. clozapine > risperidone > haloperidol e. clozapine = risperidone > haloperidol 2002 quiz8 q3 |
c. risperidone > clozapine > haloperidol
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The principal feature of atypical antipsychotic drugs that may contribute to their beneficial effect against negative symptoms of schizophrenia is blockade of:
a. D1 receptors b. 5HT2 receptors c. glutamate receptors d. GABA receptors e. H1 receptors 2002 quiz8 q4 |
b. 5HT2 receptors
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One of the neurochemical correlates of chronic treatment with typical neuroleptic drugs is:
a. upregulation of d2 receptors b. decreased firing rate of nigrostriatal and mesolimbic neurons c. increased release of serotonin d. a and b e. all of the above 2002 quiz8 q5 |
d. a and b
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The greatest correlation between pharmacologic action and occurrence of EPS with long term neuroleptic treatment is blockade of:
a. D2 receptors b. D1 receptors c. muscarinic receptors d. histamine receptors e. adrenergic receptors 2002 quiz8 q6 |
a. D2 receptors
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Hyperprolactinemia associated with neuroleptic treatment is due to blockade of:
a. D2 receptors b. D1 receptors c. muscarinic receptors d. histamine receptors e. adrenergic receptors 2002 quiz8 q7 |
a. D2 receptors
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A major objective of neuroleptic drug development is to produce a drug with the:
a. largest CSF b. smallest CSF c. smallest ED50 d. largest TI e. smallest TI 2002 quiz8 q8 |
a. largest CSF (certain safety factor)
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NMS can be effectively treated with:
a. benztropine b. propranolol c. bromocriptine d. dantrolene e. none of the above 2002 quiz8 q9 |
e. none of the above
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The biggest risk of using insulin in patients with Type 2 DM is:
a. weight gain b. microvascular complications c. macrovascular complications d. hypoglycemia e. increased bleeding tendency 2006 quiz7 q1 |
d. hypoglycemia
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The thiazolidinedione (TZD) group of antidiabetic drugs [e.g., rosiglitazone (Avandia)] act by:
a. increasing insulin release from the pancreas by inactivating a cellular inhibitor of the GLUT2 glucose transporter b. inhibiting acid glucosidase, a key enzyme in glycogen breakdown pathways c. activating the PPAR gamma receptor to increase tissue sensitivity to insulin d. activating adenylyl cyclase to increase the intracellular concentration of cAMP e. mimicking incretin action to enhance insulin release from the pancrease 2006 quiz7 q2 |
c. activating the PPAR gamma receptor to increase tissue sensitivity to insulin
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Insulin secretion is increased by:
a. sulfonylureas b. glitinide group of drugs used by patients with diabetes c. closure of ATP-sensitive potassium channels d. opening of voltage-dependent calcium channels e. all of the above 2006 quiz7 q3 |
e. all of the above
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Which of the following drugs is taken during the first part of a meal for the purpose of delaying the absorption of dietary carbohydrates?
a. acarbose b. glipizide c. pioglitazone d. repaglinide e. exenatide 2006 quiz7 q4 |
a. acarbose
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As a class, which of the following chemotherapy classes would be considered to contain cell cycle-nonspecific active agents?
a. antimitotic agents b. topoisomerase inhibitors c. antimetabolites d. alkylating agents 2006 quiz7 q5 |
d. alkylating agents
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Cytarabine (Ara-C) is classified as a:
a. folic acid antagonist b. purine analog c. pyrimidine analog d. adenosine deaminase inhibitor 2006 quiz7 q6 |
c. pyrimidine analog
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Anthracyclines exert their cytotoxic effect by all of the following mechanisms except:
a. DNA intercalation b. alkylation of DNA c. topoisomerase inhibition d. inhibition of DNA synthesis e. inhibition of RNA synthesis 2006 quiz7 q7 |
b. alkylation of DNA
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Which of the following chemotherapeutics is NOT an anthracycline?
a. daunorubicin b. doxorubicin c. epirubicin d. idarubicin e. mitomycin 2006 quiz7 q8 |
e. mitomycin
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All of the following agents can be classified as an antimetabolite except:
a. etoposide b. fluorouracil c. mercaptopurine d. methotrexate e. thioguanine 2006 quiz7 q9 |
a. etoposide
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The main function of biguanides is to:
a. decrease glucose removal from blood b. enhance gluconeogenesis in adipose tissue c. enhance plasma glucagon levels d. enhance sodium concentration e. none of the above 2003 quiz8 q1 |
e. none of the above
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In most pharmaceutical preparations, insulin is bound to:
a. Na b. Zn c. Ca d. Fe e. Mg 2003 quiz8 q2 |
b. Zn
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Within the pancreas, insulin secretion can be regulated by:
a. Ach b. NE c. epinephrine d. all of the above e. none of the above 2003 quiz8 q3 |
d. all of the above
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Which of the following is TRUE for mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?
a. they stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells without entering the cells b. they may also sensitize the pancreatic beta cells to glucose and inhibit the efflux of potassium from pancreatic beta cells c. they induce activity of peripheral insulin intracellular receptors d. they may act to reduce glucagon secretion e. all of the above 2003 quiz8 q4 |
e. all of the above
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The action of sulfonylureas includes:
a. block (close) calcium channel and depolarize cell b. decreasing intracellular calcium concentration c. increasing plasma amino acid concentration d. enhancing iron entry into cell e. none of the above 2002 quiz9 q1 |
e. none of the above
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The main function of biguanides is to:
a. decrease glucose removal from blood b. enhance gluconeogenesis in adipose tissue c. enhance plasma glucagon concentration d. enhance sodium concentration e. none of the above 2002 quiz9 q2 |
e. none of the above
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All of the following drugs act by the same mechanism except:
a. tolbutamide b. tolazamide c. chlorpropamide d. glipizide e. phenformin 2002 quiz9 q3 |
e. phenformin
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Renal effects of nitrous oxide include:
a. decreased renal blood flow secondary to decreased cardiac output b. decreased renal blood flow secondary to increased renal vascular resistance c. increased renal blood flow secondary to sympathetic stimulation d. increased glomerular filtration with increased reabsorption 4/18/08 |
b. decreased renal blood flow secondary to increased renal vascular resistance
Nitrous oxide appears to decrease renal blood flow by increasing renal vascular resistance. This results in decreased glomerular filtration and decreased urine output. pg. 164 Morgan, GE, Mikhail, MS, and Murray, MJ. Clinical Anesthesiology. New York: Lange Medical Books/McGraw-Hill Medical Publishing Division, 2006. |
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Which of the following best describes the action of tamoxifen:
a. it is an estrogen receptor partial agonist, blocks the binding of estrogen to receptors of estrogen-sensitive cancer cells b. it damages microtubules c. it inhibits topoisomerase I activity d. it inhibits topoisomerase II activity e. none of the above 2001 exam4 q52 |
a. it is an estrogen receptor partial agonist, blocks the binding of estrogen to receptors of estrogen-sensitive cancer cell
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