Pathophysiology Exam 3

Front 1

The following are components of the Hematologic system EXCEPT:
a: Lymph organs/nodes
b: GI Tract
c: Blood
d: MPS (Mononuclear Phagocyte System)

Back 1

b: GI Tract

Front 2

True/False: The composition of blood is 90% water and 10% solute?

Back 2

True

Front 3

True/False: Plasma is 55-60% of the blood

Back 3

True

Front 4

Macrophages are derived from _________ in the MPS (mononuclear phagocyte system)

Back 4

monoblasts> promonocytes> then MONOCYTES in the blood, which then settle into the tissues as macrophages.

Front 5

What percent of the erythrocytes are STORED in the peripheral blood?
a: 10%
b: 15%
c: 0%
d: 25%

Back 5

c: 0% (erythrocytes in the peripheral blood are FUNCTIONAL, not being stored)

Front 6

Where is iron located in a hemoglobin molecule?

Back 6

The center of the heme group of the 4 globins (2 alpha and 2 beta)

Front 7

What is the f(x) of iron in the hemoglobin molecule?

Back 7

Gives the molecule oxygen-attracting properties

Front 8

Which of the following organs does not STORE iron?
a: Bone Marrow
b: LV
c: SP

Back 8

a: Bone Marrow (not STORED here, rather it is USED to assemble new erythrocytes)

Front 9

What organs are used involved in bilirubin metabolism and excretion?

Back 9

Liver, Gut (bacterial conversion-stool) and Kidney (urobilirubin excretion)

Front 10

True/False: Granulocytes mature in the thymus?

Back 10

False: Granulocytes mature in the bone marrow

Front 11

Impaired RBC production, Acute or Chronic blood loss, and Increased RBC destruction are etiological events for what pathology?

Back 11

Anemia

Front 12

Name the six examples of anemia according to the classification by mechanism.

Back 12

Iron Deficiency (B), Pernicious Anemia (B12), Folate Deficiency (generally Alcoholism (interferes with folic acid)/ pregnancy, or older people), Hemolytic, Sickle Cell, Aplastic (bone marrow failure)

Front 13

Which of the following is NOT a pathophysiologic change in the body due to anemia?
a: Tissue hypoxia
b: Heart angina
c: increased heart rate
d: bone marrow stimulation as a result of increased O2 demands, therefore lending to increased erythropoeitin demands
e: increased stroke volume leading to cardiac murmurs or cardiac failure
g: increased salt and H2O retention h: Decreased DPG (Diphosphoglycerate) production

Back 13

h: Decreased levels of DPG (INCREASED levels of DPG stimulates release of O2 levels from hemoglobin as a compensatory mechanism

Front 14

Tissue Hypoxia leads to all of the following except:
a: ischemia
b: muscular claudation
c: weakness and increased fatigue
d: pallor
e: seizure
f: increased respiratory rate, depth, "exertional dyspnea"
g: dizziness, lethargy, fainting
h: fatty changes in the Lv, Ki, or Ht

Back 14

e: seizure

Front 15

Over production of RBC's is termed what?

Back 15

Polycythemia

Front 16

How is Relative Polycythemia different from Absolute?

Back 16

Relative Polycythemia is due to dehydration or stress where Absolute is due to an abnormality in stem cells in bone marrow (1st degree) or chronic hypoxia/ innappropriate response to erythropeitin secreting tumors (2nd degree)

Front 17

An increase/ decrease in the # of leucocytes present are termed:

Back 17

Leucocytosis and Leukopenia respectively

Front 18

Which of the following is NOT true concerning characterisitics of Infectious Mononucleosis?
a: Caused by the Epstein- Barr virous
b: Fever
c: sore throat
d: swollen cervical lymph nodes
e: Splenic rupture in more than 5% of the cases
f: acute, self limiting, infection of B lymphocytes transmitted via saliva

Back 18

e: Splenic Rupture occurs in LESS THAN 5% of the cases

Front 19

A malignant disorder of the blood forming organs characterized by excessive accumulation of white blood cells is termed:
a: Myeloma
b: Leukemia
c: Lymphoma

Back 19

b: Leukemia

Front 20

Proliferation of Plasma cells is termed:
a: Leukemia
b: Lymphoma
c: Myeloma

Back 20

c: Myeloma

Front 21

Which of the following is NOT true concerning characterisitics of Infectious Mononucleosis?
a: Caused by the Epstein- Barr virous
b: Fever
c: sore throat
d: swollen cervical lymph nodes
e: Splenic rupture in more than 5% of the cases
f: acute, self limiting, infection of B lymphocytes transmitted via saliva

Back 21

e: Splenic Rupture occurs in LESS THAN 5% of the cases

Front 22

A malignant disorder of the blood forming organs characterized by excessive accumulation of leukemia cells is termed:
a: Myeloma
b: Leukemia
c: Lymphoma

Back 22

b: Leukemia

Front 23

Proliferation of Plasma cells is termed:
a: Leukemia
b: Lymphoma
c: Myeloma

Back 23

c: Myeloma

Front 24

An abnormal enlargement of the spleen is termed:
a: splenomegaly
b: hypersplenism
c: Macrosplenism

Back 24

a: splenomegaly

Front 25

A condition in which the spleen rapidly and prematurely destroys RBCs is termed:
a: splenomegaly
b: hyposplenism
c: hypersplenism

Back 25

c: hypersplenism

Front 26

Three factors that predispose a person to thromboembolic disease are known as _______?

Back 26

Virchow's Triad

Front 27

The three factors that predispose a person to thromboembolic disease are:

Back 27

1: Endothelial injury
2: Alterations in blood flow
3: Hypercoagulability

Front 28

Burkit's lymphoma is the most common type of cancer among African children and is characterized by:

Back 28

a very fast growing tumor of the jaw/ facial bones and the Epstein Barr virus has been found in the nasopharyngeal secretions of patients.

Front 29

When a mother's antibody is directed against the fetus' antigens the condition is known as:

Back 29

hemolytic disease of the newborn aka, erythroblastosis fetalis

Front 30

Describe the mechanism of sickle cell anemia...

Back 30

Genetic condition in which the hemoglobin (which carries the oxygen) is malfunctioning leading to Deoxygenation and dehydration whcih causes the red cells to solidify and stretch into an elongated shape

Front 31

What is the most common childhood malignancy?

Back 31

Leukemia

Front 32

Atrial depolarization occurs in the _____ wave of the EKG.
a: QRS
b: T
a: P

Back 32

c: P

Front 33

Ventricular depolarization occurs in the _____ wave of the EKG.
a: T
b: QRS
c: P

Back 33

b: QRS

Front 34

Explain why an increased heart rate (HR) may not increase cardiac output.

Back 34

If the HR is too fast there will not be enough time for the heart to fill up and will therefore cause a decreased stroke volume which does not lend to an increase in cardiac output.

Front 35

Where is the integration center of baroreceptor and chemoreceptor reflexes located?

Back 35

The Medulla Oblongata ("Vital Center" that controls heart beat and breathing)

Front 36

How is BP regulated through cardiac output and peripheral resistance?

Back 36

PB = CO x PR
(High BP = increased CO and/ increased PR)

Front 37

a chronic disease of the arterial system characterized by abnormal thickening and hardening of the vessel walls is termed:
a: atherosclerosis
b: arteriosclerosis
c: vericocele

Back 37

b: arteriosclerosis

Front 38

A form of arteriosclerosis characterized by thickening and hardening of walls caused by accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages in the arteriole wall ("plaque development"), is termed:
a: arteriolsclerosis
b: atherosclerosis
c: peripheral artery disease

Back 38

b: atherosclerosis

Front 39

ather/o:
a: artery
b: plaque
c: joint

Back 39

b: plaque

Front 40

-sclerosis:
a: growing
b: building
c: hardening

Back 40

c: hardening

Front 41

Describe the mechanisms of atherosclerosis in the arterial wall.

Back 41

1: LDL enters intima through intact endothelium. 2: Intimal LDL is oxidized into proinflammatory lipids. 3: Oxidized LDL causes adhesion and entry of monocytes and T lymphocytes across the endothelium. 4:Monocytes differentiate into macrophages and consume large amounts of LDL, transforming into foam cells. 5: Foam cells release growth factors (cytokines) that encourage atherosclerosis.

Front 42

idi/o-:
a: time
b: unknown; individual
c: distinct

Back 42

b and c!

Front 43

What is the difference between primary and secondary hypertension?

Back 43

Primary: essential and idiopathic; genetic and environmental factors; (90-95% of hypertension patients).
Secondary: caused by a systemic disease process that raises peripheral vascular resistance or cardiac output, eg:renal/ endocrine diseases.

Front 44

With no known external stimulus or cause:

Back 44

essential

Front 45

Genetics; increase in SNS f(x); decreased dietary K, Mg, Ca; increased dietary Na intake; insulin resistance; obesity; Renal glomerular and tubular inflamammation; dysf(x) of natriuretic hormones; endothelial dysf(x); increase in RAA (renin-angiotension-aldosterone).... are the etiologic factors for what pathology?

Back 45

Primary Hypertension

Front 46

blood clot that remains attached to the vessel wall:
a: embolus
b: thrombus
c: aneurysm

Back 46

b: thrombus

Front 47

a bolus of matter that is circulating in the blood stream:
a: thrombus
b: embolus
c: aneurysm

Back 47

b: embolus

Front 48

Referring to embolus formation, what does FAT BAT stand for?

Back 48

Fat aggregate, air bubble, thrombus, bacteria, amniotic fluid, tumor cells

Front 49

An inflammatory disease of small and medium sized arteries resulting in nonatherosclerotic lesions that occurs mainly in young men who smoke, which leads to pain, tenderness and hairloss in the affected area due to decreased blood flow is known as:
a: Thromboangitis Obliterans
b: Buerger Disease
c: Periferal atherosclerosis

Back 49

a and b

Front 50

Episodic vasospasm in arteries and arterioles of the fingers and less commonly the toes, of which is SECONDARY to other systemic diseases and conditions, is known as:
a: arthritis
b: Raynaud Disease
c: Raynaud phenomenon

Back 50

c: Raynaud phenomenon (Raynaud disease is a primary vasospastic disorder of unknown origin.)

Front 51

myx/o:

Back 51

mucus

Front 52

a varicose vein:
a: a vein in which blood has pooled
b:distended, tortuous (full of twists and turns), and palpable veins
c: caused by trauma or gradual venous distension
d: all of the above

Back 52

d: all of the above

Front 53

Deep venous thrombosis:
a: obstruction of venous flow leading to increased venous pressure
b: predisposing factors include venous stasis, venous endothelial damage, and hypercoagulable states.
c: all of the above

Back 53

c: all of the above

Front 54

Risk factors for CAD (coronary artery disease: any vascular disorder that narrows or occludes the coronary arteries) include all of the following EXCEPT:
a: Diabetes Mellitus
b: Smoking
c: hypertension
d: dislipidemia
e: obesity/ sedentary lifestyle
f: Diabetes Insipidus

Back 54

f: Diabetes Insipidus (Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is a disorder in which there is an abnormal increase in urine output, fluid intake and often thirst. It causes symptoms such as urinary frequency, nocturia (frequent awakening at night to urinate) or enuresis (involuntary urination during sleep or "bedwetting"). Urine output is increased because it is not concentrated normally. Consequently, instead of being a yellow color, the urine is pale, colorless or watery in appearance and the measured concentration (osmolality or specific gravity) is low.

Front 55

A deep Q wave depression is indicative of:
a: myocardial ischemia
b: heart attack
c: myocardial infarction
d: myocardial injury

Back 55

b and c (they are the same thing)

Front 56

A T wave depression is indicative of:
a: myocardial infarction
b: myocardial ischemia
c: myocardial injury

Back 56

b: myocardial ischemia (inadequate blood supply)

Front 57

A congestive condition in which there is too much blood in the heart and the cavities are widened is known as:
a: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
b: restrictive cardiomyopathy
c: dilated cardiomyopathy

Back 57

c: dilated cardiomyopathy

Front 58

This cardiomyopathy is characterized by having too thick of a heart muscle therefore decreasing volume size of blood in the heart which leads to a hypertensive state:
a: dliated
b: hypertrophic
c: restrictive

Back 58

b: Hypertrophic

Front 59

troph/o:

Back 59

nourishment; developed

Front 60

This cardiomyopathy is characterized by amyloid (starchlike protein) deposits:
a: hypertrophic
b: dilated
c: restrictive

Back 60

c: restrictive

Front 61

How is left sided heart failure different from the right?

Back 61

Right sided heart failure is generally caused by left sided heart failure...(right: pulmonary circulation, Left: systemic)

Front 62

Tachycardia, flutter, fibrillation, bradycardia, PVCs (premature ventricular contractions), PACs (premature atrial contractions), and asystole are examples of what pathology?

Back 62

Dysarrhythmias

Front 63

This dysarrythmia is the most severe as it indicates to cardiac contraction (RIP):
a: flutter
b: fibrillation
c: asystole

Back 63

c: asystole

Front 64

What is the leading cause of infantile death excluding premature birth within the first year?

Back 64

Congenital Heart Defects

Front 65

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Left-to-Right shunt?
a: PDA (Patent ductus arteriosis)
b: TOF (Tetralogy of Fallot)
c: ASD (Atrial Septic Defect)
d: VSD (Ventricular Septic Defect)

Back 65

b: TOF (Tetralogy of Fallot is an example of a Right-to-Left shunt)

Front 66

PDA, ASD, and VSD are all examples of:
a: Right-to-Left shunts
b: Left-to-Right shunts
c: neither

Back 66

b: Left to right shunts

Front 67

Which of the following IS an example of a Right-to-Left shunt?
a: ASD
b: VSD
c: TOF (tetralogy of fallot)
d: PDA (Patent ductus arteriosis)

Back 67

c: TOF (tetralogy of fallot)

Front 68

The result of Tetralogy of Fallot is:

Back 68

deoxygenated blood spreads to the body

Front 69

The abnormal narrowing of a structure is termed:

Back 69

stenosis

Front 70

What structures make up the UPPER respiratory tract?

Back 70

Nasal cavity, Pharynx, Larynx

Front 71

What structures comprise the lower respiratory tract?

Back 71

Trachea, Bronchi, Terminal bronchioles

Front 72

A _________ measures respiratory volumes and capacities.

Back 72

spirometer

Front 73

A subjective sensation of uncomfortable breathing is termed:
a: apnea
b: tachypnea
c: dyspnea
d: hyperpnea

Back 73

c: dyspnea

Front 74

An abnormal increase in depth and rate of breathing is termed:
a: tachypnea
b: dyspnea
c: apnea
d: hyperpnea (Kussmaul Respiration)

Back 74

d: hyperpnea (Kussmaul breathing)

Front 75

Dyspnea when a person is lying down is termed:
a: Kussmaul Respirations
b: Orthopnea
c: Hyperpnea
d: tachypnea

Back 75

b: orthopnea

Front 76

Rapid shallow breathing is termed:
a: hyperpnea
b: tachypnea
c: orthopnea
d: dyspnea

Back 76

b: tachypnea

Front 77

A temporary cessation of breathing is termed:

Back 77

apnea

Front 78

Hypoventilation/ Hyperventilation, cough, hemolysis, cyanosis, chest pain, clubbing and abnormal sputum are common symptoms for what pathology?

Back 78

Pulmonary Disease

Front 79

What is the difference between atelectasis and bronchiectasis?

Back 79

Atelectasis is a condition where the lung becomes airless (due to blockage in a bronchiole) and contracts. Bronchiectasis is a widening (dilation) of the bronchi resulting from damage to the bronchial wall (results in coughing spells early in the am and in the afternoon with copious sputum).

Front 80

What is the difference between pneumothorax and flail chest?

Back 80

Pneumothorax: air enters the lung
Flail chest: instability of a portion of the lung wall due to fracture of consecutive ribs in more than one place or fracture of sternum and ribs. (lung protrudes)

Front 81

Emphysema, Chronic Bronchitis, and Bronchial Asthma are under what pulmonary disorders' spectrum?

Back 81

COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)

Front 82

Right ventricular enlargement due to pulmonary hypertension is termed:
a: atelectasis
b: COPD
c: Cor pulmonale (pulmonary heart disease)

Back 82

c: Cor pulmonale (pulmonary heart disease)

Front 83

A harsh vibratory noise caused by turbulent flow through a partially obstructed airway is termed:

Back 83

Stridor

Front 84

The leading cause of death in newborns, especially premature babies is:

Back 84

RDS (Respiratory Distress Syndrome)

Front 85

An autosomal recessive multisystem disease characterized by abnormally thick mucous production and chronic lung infections is:

Back 85

Cystic Fibrosis

Front 86

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for SIDS?
a: prematurity or low birth weight
b: Infant sleeping in a prone position
c: infant not first born or product of a multiple gestation mother
d: older/ married mother
e: SIDS in a prior sibling

Back 86

d: older/ married mother

Front 87

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for SIDS?
a: low socioeconomic status
b: short intergestational interval (short length of time btwn pregnancies)
c: long intergestational interval
d: maternal smoking or drug use

Back 87

c: long intergestational interval