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20 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Give an example for:
- Simple columnar epithelium
- Simple pseudostratified
- Stratified columnar
- Stratified transitional
- Simple columnar epithelium: gut, gall bladder
- Simple pseudostratified: nasal cavity, trachea
- Stratified columnar: urethra
- Stratified transitional: urinary bladder (renal pelvis -> urethra)
Describe the process of wound healing.
day 1:
- Thrombus formation
- neutrophil migration
- Fibroblast activation - produce collagen + ECM -> granulation tissue
- Angiogenesis

days 3-5:
- Macrophages replace neutrophil
- Epidermal regeneration and continue production of granulation tissue

Week 2:
- Continued fibroblast proliferation
- Inflammation, oedema and vascular proliferation subsides.
What is the different between healing by primary intent with secondary intent?
Secondary intent is for larger injury.
Different: more fibrin, more necrotic tissue, more granulation tissue, greater wound contraction due to the action of mylofibroblasts.
What are the factors affecting wound healing?
- Nutrition (vit C, protein deficiency)
- Glucocorticoid
- Infection or foreign bodies
- Mechanical factors - contraction
- Individual variablities - diabetes
What are the characteristics of the valves of rheumatic fever?
- Fish mouth - calcification
- fibrotic vegetation (fibrin and platelets)
- NO BACTERIA
Describe the pathophysiology of rheumatic heart disease.
Autoimmune reaction post infection with GAS (group A streptococcus) pharyngitis. Particular strains of group A. Antibodies directed against M protein cross react with normal proteins present in the heart, joints and other tissues. This produces vegetations in the heart valves, usually mitral and aortic.
What are the components of Virchow's triad?
1. Blood vessel quality
2. Blood flow
3. Blood components
What are the morphological changes of pneumonia?
1. Congestion - enlarged lobe, congested with blood, scattered RBC & neutrophils.
2. Red hepatisation - resembles liver, fluid with fibrinogen has clotted the alveola spaces, increased neutrophils and bacteria.
3. Grey hepatisation: loss of red colour, migration of large numbers of neutrophils, no more blood flow.
4. Resolution: liquifaction of previously solid exudate, fibrinolytic enzymes, apoptosis of neutrophils.
When do you refer to a coroner?
1. Any unexplained death
2. Death following trauma
3. Within 72 hrs after an operation or invasive procedure
4. Death while in custody

Do not need to fill in death certificate when referred to a coroner.
What are the reasons to do autopsy?
- Public health
- Transplantation and prosthesis
- Forensic
- Total patient care
- Education
- Research
- Vital statistics
- Quality establish to confirm cause of death
What are the histological features of coeliac disease?
- Blunting of villi
- Hypertrophy of crypts
- Increased intraepithelial lymphocytes
What are the pathological features of:
Alzheimer's disease
- Neuritic plaques (surrounding axons)
- Neurofibrillary tangles (intracellular)
- Amyloid angiopathy (perivascular deposition of amyloid)
What are the pathological features of:
Parkinson's disease
- Loss of pigmented cathecolaminergic neurones (loss of melanin)
- Lewy bodies (-> round to elongated cytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions) in the remaining neurons
What are the pathological features of:
Huntington's disease
a. Atrophy of the caudate and putamen
b. Widespread cerebral atrophy – striatum, cerebral cortex.
What are the pathological features of:
ALS
a. Motor neurons shrinkage with accumulation of lipofuscin pigment
b. Presence of ‘spheroids’ which are accumulations of neurofilaments
c. Thinning of corticospinal tract
d. Loss of fibres in the lateral columns of the spinal cord – replaced by fibrillary gliosis imparting some firmness (lateral sclerosis)
e. Gliosis
What are the pathological features of alcoholic liver disease?
• Central zone swelling
• Spotty single cell necrosis
• Mallory bodies
• Neutrophil infiltration
What are these tumour markers for:
CEA
AFP
CA 125
• CEA – adenocarcinoma
• AFP – hepatocellular carcinoma & germ cell tumours
• CA 125 – epithelial ovarian cancer
What are these tumour markers for:
PSA
CA 19.9
• PSA – prostatic adenocarcinoma
• CA 19.9 – pancreas
What are the CK 7 & CK 20 stainings for?
.
What are the 2 main classifications of urothelial neoplasms?
1. Flat
2. Papillary