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77 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A disease in which no morphologic abnormalities can be identified, despite a disruption of bodily function, is a
A: Organic Disease B: Functional Disease C: Neoplastic Disease D: All of the above |
B: Functional Disease
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A physician who specializes in the diagnosis and classification of disease is a
A: clinician B: etimologist C: pathologist D: generalist |
C: pathologist
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A disease caused by chromosomal damage at birth would be classified as:
 A: congenital B: inflammatory C: degenerative D: metabolic E: neoplastic |
A: congenital
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Metabolic diseases are characterized by a degeneration of various parts of the body.
 A: TRUE B: FALSE |
B: false
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A young woman has a benign growth of cells on her thymus. This patient's condition would be classified as
 A: an infectious disease B: an inflammation C: a fungus D: a neoplastic disease |
D: a neoplastic disease
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The opinion of a physician concerning the origins of a disease in a patient is called
 A: diagnosis B: prognosis C: etiology D: pathology |
C: etiology
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A physician examines a patient and determines that the origin of the patient's condition was a giardia infection caused by drinking contaminated water. The physician's evaluation is called a
 A: diagnosis B: prognosis C: etiology D: pathology |
C: etiology
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A successful screening program should meet which requirements?
 A: A significant proportion of the screened population must be at risk B: The test must use a non-invasive, cheap procedure C: Early identification of the disease must benefit the welfare of those affected. D: All of the above |
D: All of the above
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A diagnostic test that measures an organ or system's uptake and excretion through the use of a radioactive material is which type of test?
 A: endoscopy B: radioisotope C: cytologic D: positron emission tomography |
B: radioisotope
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Examining diseased tissue with the naked eye is called a ________ examination.
A: gross B: histological C: physical D: metabolic |
A: gross
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The opinion of a physician concerning the origins of a disease in a patient is called
 A: diagnosis B: prognosis C: etiology D: pathology |
C: etiology
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A physician examines a patient and determines that the origin of the patient's condition was a giardia infection caused by drinking contaminated water. The physician's evaluation is called a
 A: diagnosis B: prognosis C: etiology D: pathology |
C: etiology
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A successful screening program should meet which requirements?
 A: A significant proportion of the screened population must be at risk B: The test must use a non-invasive, cheap procedure C: Early identification of the disease must benefit the welfare of those affected. D: All of the above |
D: All of the above
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A diagnostic test that measures an organ or system's uptake and excretion through the use of a radioactive material is which type of test?
 A: endoscopy B: radioisotope C: cytologic D: positron emission tomography |
B: radioisotope
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Examining diseased tissue with the naked eye is called a ________ examination.
A: gross B: histological C: physical D: metabolic |
A: gross
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esophagoscopes, gastroscopes, cystoscopes, and sigmoidoscopes are all tools used for which type of examination?
A: ultrasound B: electrical activity C: radioisotope D: endoscopy |
D: endoscopy
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A computed tomographic scan is a type of x-ray machine
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
A: TRUE
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The major clinical use of PET scans today is to examine the:
A: liver B: brain C: kidneys D: lungs |
B: brain
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An MRI scan uses a magnetic field to align hydrogen protons within the water that naturally composes the patient's tissues.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
A: TRUE
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Common types of cytologic and histologic examinations include:
A: pap smear B: biopsy C: CT scan D: EEG E: A and B |
E: A and B
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Structures within the cytoplasm of cells that carry out the functions of the cell are known as
A: vascular tissue B: globules C: organelles D: apparati |
C: organelles
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The cell is controlled by this structure, which houses genetic material behind a double-layered membrane.
A: The cytoplasm B: The organelles C: The cell membranes D: The nucleus |
D: The nucleus
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The structure within the cell that synthesizes large carbohydrates and combines them with proteins is:
A: endoplasmic reticulum B: mitochondria C: golgi apparatus D: lysosomes |
C: golgi apparatus
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Which of the following is NOT a major classification of tissue?
A: epithelium B: connective C: glandular D: muscle E: nerve |
C: glandular
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The cytoskeleton is composed of:
A: microtubules B: microfilaments C: intermediate filaments D: All of the above |
D: All of the above
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Which is NOT a common type of epithelium?
A: transitional B: stratified squamous C: cuboidal D: ridged E: columnar |
D: ridged
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Keratinization is a process by which stratified epithelium produces a protective layer of fibrous protein.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
A: TRUE
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Which is NOT a type of muscle tissue?
A: Striated B: Slick C: Smooth D: Cardiac |
B: Slick
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The long, star-shaped cells that interface to form the framework of the central nervous system are:
A: oligodendroglia B: astrocytes C: microglia D: trophoblasts |
B: astrocytes
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The mesoderm of the developing embryo will eventually produce which organ?
A: skin B: eyes C: bladder D: intestines |
C: bladder
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There are how many types of nucleotides that compose DNA?
A: 2 B: 3 C: 4 D: 5 E: 6 |
C: 4
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12: Active transport is the opposite of osmosis and requires energy to be expended.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
A: TRUE
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The condition in which cells develop or mature abnormally is:
A: metaplasia B: dysplasia C: hypertrophy D: atrophy |
B: dysplasia
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Apoptosis is the unnatural death and necrosis of cells due to external factors.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
B: FALSE
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As cells age, they become less resistant to injury.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
A: TRUE
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Characteristics of the inflammatory reaction include:
A: Dilation of blood vessels B: Migration of leukocytes to site of inflammation C: Increased capillary permeability D: Extravasation of fluids E: All of the Above |
E: All of the Above
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Clinical indicators of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT:
A: heat B: redness C: nausea D: swelling E: tenderness |
C: nausea
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Inflammation resulting in a coagulating exudate rich in protein is known as:
A: serous B: purulent C: fibrinous D: hemorrhagic |
C: fibrinous
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In hemorrhagic inflammation, a ruptured artery allows the escape of red blood cells.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
B: FALSE
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What is a possible outcome of an inflammation?
A: Intensified inflammation B: Scars C: Repair of damaged area D: Subsiding of symptoms E: All of the Above |
E: All of the Above
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Systemic effects of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT:
A: General discomfort B: Leukocytosis C: Elevated Temperature D: Cramping |
D: Cramping
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The cells that produce mediator-containing granules are known as:
A: Plasma cells B: T lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Mast cells E: Neutrophils |
D: Mast cells
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Lysomal enzymes released from leukocytes immediately begin repairing damaged tissue.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
B: FALSE
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The interaction between antigens and antibodies activates complement mediators that attract:
A: blood B: bile C: plasma D: leukocytes E: mast cells |
D: leukocytes
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What class of drugs can be used to treat persistent inflammation?
A: antibiotics B: antivirals C: analgesics D: corticosteroids |
D: corticosteroids
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An acute spreading infection of the skin and deeper tissues is known as:
A: cellulitis B: abscess C: lymphadenitis D: septicemia |
A: cellulitis
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An abscess results from an area of tissue breakdown with accumulation of pus.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
A: TRUE
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Septicemia is an infection of:
A: the liver B: the brain C: the kidneys D: the blood E: the bladder |
D: the blood
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Factors that influence the outcome of an infection include:
A: virulence B: dosage C: resistance of the host's body D: All of the above |
D: All of the above
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Chromosomes exist in pairs in all _____ cells.
A: epithelial B: nerve C: somatic D: billiary |
C: somatic
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The genome is identical for every cell within an individual.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
A: TRUE
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The inactive X chromosome in females will differ randomly from cell to cell.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
A: TRUE
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Which type of cell does not divide?
A: liver B: kidney C: nerve D: skin |
C: nerve
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The phase of mitosis in which chromatids separate to form individual chromosomes is the:
A: prophase B: metaphase C: anaphase D: telophase |
C: anaphase
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Major differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis include:
A: spermatogenesis is continuous B: spermatogenesis produces more useful cells from each precursor C: the primary oocyte only contains forty chromosomes D: A and B only E: All of the Above |
D: A and B only
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It is virtually impossible to isolate chromosomes for analysis in a laboratory.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
B: FALSE
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A recessive gene can only be expressed through a hetrozygous pairing.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
B: FALSE
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In males, the mismatch of the X and Y chromosomes makes the cells ________ for genes on the X chromosome.
A: heterozygous B: homozygous C: hemizygous D: helizygous |
C: hemizygous
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HLA haplotypes combine in such a way that four separate pairings are possible for any combination of two parents.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
A: TRUE
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Diseases caused by a failure of mitochondrial DNA are:
A: always caused by environmental factors B: very common C: usually transmitted from the mother D: A and B |
C: usually transmitted from the mother
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Gene therapy typically uses a virus to introduce desirable genetic material into the patient
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
A: TRUE
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The practice of inserting genetic material into bacterium or yeast to synthesize desired pharmaceutical products is called:
A: recombinant DNA technology B: genetic engineering C: gene splicing D: All of the above |
D: All of the above
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The immune system response depends primarily on:
A: lymphocytes B: antigen-producing cells C: hematocrit D: phagocytes E: A and B |
E: A and B
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The cells of the immune system communicate through
A: heliographs B: the central nervous system C: the peripheral nervous system D: cytokines |
D: cytokines
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Immature lymphocytes develop immune competence in which two sites?
A: kidneys and liver B: thymus and bone marrow C: pancreas and gall bladder D: adrenal glands and brain |
B: thymus and bone marrow
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T lymphocytes and classified into major groups based on:
A: pH index B: Rh factor C: CD antigen D: none of the above |
C: CD antigen
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NK Cells lack T or B receptors, leaving them unable to destroy abnormal cells without prior antigenic contact.
A: TRUE B: FALSE |
B: FALSE
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These cells require macrophage-processed antigens in order to respond
A: T cells B: B cells C: NK cells D: All of the above |
A: T cells
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Which type of T cells attack and destroy infected cells?
A: Delayed B: Memory C: Helper D: Cytotoxic |
D: Cytotoxic
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Delayed hypersensitivity cells help suppress infections by:
A: promoting the immune response B: destroying infected cells C: retaining antigen memory in case of future infection D: attracting macrophages, cytotoxic T cells and NK cells |
D: attracting macrophages, cytotoxic T cells and NK cells
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The immunoglobulin that forms a complex pentamer is:
A: IgG B: IgA C: IgM D: IgE E: IgD |
C: IgM
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Immunoglobulins contain how many light chains?
A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 4 E: 5 |
B: 2
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Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by complement-activated and cell-tissue injury?
A: Delayed Hypersensitivity B: Immune Complex Disease C: Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity D: Immediate Hypersensitivity E: B and C |
E: B and C
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What situations might make immune system suppression desirable?
A: The development of autoimmune disease B: Organ transplantation C: Rh hemolytic disease D: All of the above |
D: All of the above
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The method of immune system suppression that works primarily by destroying normal cells including lymphocytes is:
A: radiation B: cytotoxic drugs C: adrenal corticosteroids D: antibodies |
A: radiation
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Grafting of foreign tissue can provoke an immune response because the tissue contains:
A: antibodies B: HLA antigens C: cytotoxins D: NK cells |
B: HLA antigens
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Autoimmune diseases of the connective tissues are characterized by
A: elevated NK cell levels B: destruction of delayed hypersensitivity cells C: necrosis D: degeneration of fibrous connective tissue E: C and D |
E: C and D
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