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213 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Undescended testes increasing the rate of malignancy and sterility.
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cryptorchidism
|
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Inflamation of the testes due to viral/bacterial infections (mumps/TB,syphilis) -->infertility.
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Orchitis
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_________ is the most common STD, male and female, causing ________ urethritis.
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Chlamydia, non-purulent
|
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Purulent urethritis is caused by ______.
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Neisseria gonorrhea
|
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Abnormal opening of the urethra on the lower shaft of the .
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hypospadia
|
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________ is caused by benign hyperplasia of the prostate usually post-op, leading to constriciton of the urinary tract --> infection.
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Prostatitis
|
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This STD causes vessicles --> ulcers and has no cure.
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Herpes
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Treponema pallidum is a spirochete causing this STD.
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Syphilis
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Macular-papular rash, condyloma lata and mucous patch are signs of what stage of syphilis?
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secondary
|
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What stage of syphilis is charcterized by a chancre at the site of innoculation which usually heals in 4-6 weeks.
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primary
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Gummas (granulomas), tabes dorsalis (CNS - unsteady gate), dissecting arotic aneurysms, perivasculitis, dementia are signs of this NON curable stage of syphilis.
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tertiary
|
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______ is the most common testicular neoplasm, peak incidence @ 35 with good prognosis.
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Seminoma
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Embryonal cell cracinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma and teratoma are _________ germ cell tumors.
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non-seminomatous (NSGCT's)
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Most aggressive, 1/3 metastisize, NSGCT causing increased hCG.
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embryonal cell
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_____ tumor has a peak age of 3 w/ elevated alpha fetal protein.
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Yolk sac
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Which NSGCT is most malignant?
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Choriocarcinoma
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_______ are comprised of emdryonic layers which can be malignant.
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Teratomas
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T/F Benign prostate hyperplasia is related to prostate cancer.
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False - may co-exist
|
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Urinary obstruction, increased urinary frequency, hesitancy (stage fright), increased infections are symptoms of ______.
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benign prostate hyperplasia
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_________ carcinoma is the most common cancer in men and frequently metastisizes to ______.
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Prostate, bone
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List the risk factors of prostate carcinoma.
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none
|
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Which is not a predisposing factor for pelvic inflammatory disease: early ual activity, multiple partners, recurrent STD's, infertitlity, IUD use.
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infertitlity is a complication of PID
|
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Which is not a complication of PID: pain, infertitlity, l discharge, pelvic abscess, ectopic pregnancy.
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all are complications
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________ is the most common malignancy of the female genitalia.
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Endometrial carcinoma
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Endometrial carcinoma risk factors include the following except: obesity, hypoestrogenism, nulliparous, early menarche or late menopause.
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hypoestrogen, HYPER is correct
|
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Cervical cancer commonly occurs in the "______" zone betweeen the endo and ecto-cervix.
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transition
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________ is the most common uterine tumor, often multiple, and is estrogen sensitive.
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Leiomyoma (benign), increased incidence with inc estrogen
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T/F Leiomyomas are pre-malignant.
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False
|
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Endometriosis is manifested by severe menstrual pain; it is related to cancer.
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True; false it is not related to cancer
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Endometriosis is characterized by functional, hormonally responding endometrial tissue tumors forming ______ the uterus. This leads to menstrual bleeding "chocolate cysts" leading to pain, adhesions and _______.
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outside, infertility - due to close proximity to uterine tubes
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T/F Ovarian cancers cause more s than all other tumors of the female repro tract.
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TRUE
|
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Gastric carcinoma metastatic to overies featuring signet ring cells.
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Kruckenburg tumors - signet ring cells
|
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Preeclampsia causes all the following except: hypertension, albuminemia, edema, convulsions.
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convulsions = eclampsia
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Coma and convulsions during or immediately after pregnancy, characterized by edema, hypertension, DIC and proteinuria.
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eclampsia
|
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Sheehan syndrome is caused by _______ anterior pituitary necrosis.
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postpartum
|
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________ results from abnormal fertilization (46XX paternal) causing grape-like placental villi in loose stroma.
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Hydatiform mole
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Edema of the eustachian tube causing fluid accumulation of the middle ear usually in children is _______.
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otitis media --> bulging tympanic membrane --> hearing loss
|
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Particle size:__-__ microns do not reach distal airways, __-__ microns impact at bifurcation on distal airways, __ microns act as a gas
|
5-10, 1-5, .5
|
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Particle concentration:__-__ppm overcomes scrubbing action
|
1-5 ppm
|
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Non neoplastic lung reaction to mineral dust like silica & coal, macrophage phagocytosis & release of mediators --> fibrosis
|
Pneumoconiosis
|
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Slowly progressive nodular fibrosis mostly in upper lobes, quartz smaller that a micron is retained & causes fibrosis (sandblasters & miner workers)
|
Silicosis
|
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Diffuse parenchymal interstitial fibrosis, bronchiogenic carcinoma, localized fibrous plaques on pleural surface, mesiothelioma, lower lobes of lungs
|
Asbestosis
|
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which is the more pathological form of asbestosis, Amphibole or Serpentine?
|
Amphibole
|
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most common cause of preventable mortality, slows healing, contains carcinogens, toxins, CO, & nicotine
|
smoking
|
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Then best indicator nicotine intake is _________ blood/urine levels
|
Continine
|
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Cancer of the lung, Chronic bronchitis, emphysema, MI, Systemic atherosclerosis, oral cancer are all effects of _________
|
Smoking
|
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Causes decreased O2 to heart (lung disease), contaction of coronary arteries, ventricular fibrillation & increased risk of MI
|
Smoking
|
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Can cause anaplastic anemia
|
Chloramphenicol
|
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Can cause hemolytic anemia & anaphylaxis
|
Penicillin
|
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Can cause acute tubular necrosis
|
Aminoglycosides
|
|
Can cause asthma & tinnitus
|
Salicylate (asprin)
|
|
Can cause Hepatic change
|
Tetracycline, Tylenol
|
|
Can cause Lupus
|
Hydralazine
|
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Can cause respiratory depression
|
sedatives
|
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Which is NOT an effect of exogenous estrogen: Enometrial carcinoma, breast carcinoma, thrombo-embolism, & cardiovascular disease.
|
Cardio disease is actually reduced by estrogen, endometrial c. increase when used alone, breast c. worse in combination w/ progestin
|
|
Breast carcinoma (after 45) and cervical carcinoma (risk based on lifestyle) are effects of oral contraceptives. OC is protective against endometrial carcinoma and ovarian carcinoma (T/F)
|
True; True
|
|
Oral antibiotics increase the effect of oral contraceptives
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FALSE
|
|
Acetaminophen over dose (15-25g) can lead to _____ _____
|
liver failure
|
|
An overdose (10-30g) of what leads to gastric ulcers, bleeding (by stoping formation of thromboxane 2), fluid electrolyte imbalance, respiratory alkalosis, & metabolic acidosis
|
Asprin
|
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_____________ is responsible for the damage in ethanol overdose (a metabolite)
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Acetaldehyde
|
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Most addictive of all drugs (intense euphoria), no physical dependance, psychological withdrawal difficult (years)
|
Cocaine (yes, Nic you crack head)
|
|
Can cause life threatening situation in dental chair due to epi in local anesthesia --> arrhythmias (it blocks epi reuptake)
|
cocaine
|
|
Cocaine cause all of the following except: arrhythmias, open pupils, talkativeness, normal anxiety, jitteriness, tremor
|
normal anxiety, it resembles it but must be differentiated from
|
|
Acute effects of cocaine cause all of the following except: dialated pupils, vasoconstriction, rise in BP, tachycardia, arrhythmia, platelet aggregation, hyperpyrexia (high body temp), & rhabdomylosis (degeneration of muscle)
|
all of the above are effects
|
|
Chronic effects of cocaine cause all of the following except: perforation of nasal septum, increased lung capacity, dilated cardiomyopathy
|
increased lung capacity (should be decreased)
|
|
Heroin cause all of the following except: pupil constriction, xerostomia, slurred speech, pain reaction threshold decreased
|
pain reaction threshold decreased--it is actually INCREASED
|
|
T or F: cocaine is more hazardous than heroin.
|
FALSE
|
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You can die from heroin overdose from all of the following except: respiratory arrest, severe hemmorrhage, arrythmia, cardiac arrest.
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severe hemmorrage
|
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What is the initial "rush" of heroin due to?
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histamine release
|
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What stage of heroin use includes the following symptoms: vasoconstriction, sweating, pupillary dilation
|
cold turkey stage
|
|
Which heart valves can become infected due to side effects of heroin use?
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right sided heart valves
|
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All of the following are side effects of heroin use except: pulmonary edema, viral hepatitis, hypopigmentation, amyloidosis, constipation.
|
hypopigmentation (should be HYPERpigmentation)
|
|
T or F: Heroin addicts should be prescribed opiate analgesics.
|
False, Biatch!!!!
|
|
T or F: NSAIDS should be prescribed for heroin addicts
|
TRUE
|
|
Vicodin, Vicoprofen, and Lortab are all_______.
|
Hydrocodones
|
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What do the effects of Hydrocodones mimic?
|
Morphine
|
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What definition? Compulsive, obsessive pattern of abuse. Abuser feels life is impossible w/out the
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Psychological abuse
|
|
What definition? Manifestation of withdrawal syndrome. Body goes through unpleasant experiences if user suddenly stops .
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physiological abuse
|
|
What is the most widely used illegal ?
|
mary jane baby, light it up
|
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delta-9 tertrahydro cannabinol is the psychoactive substance in what ?
|
marijuana
|
|
In california where the reefer is legal for medicinal purposes, what treatement is it effective for?
|
glaucoma and radiation sickness
|
|
T or F: marijuana can cause birth defects
|
true, through chromosomal damage
|
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all of the following are effects of methamphetamine except: temporary mood elevation, exhilaration (high), Increased mental alertness, sleepiness
|
sleepiness
|
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T or F: you can become addicted to meth from just one use.
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TRUE
|
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All of the following are side effects of meth use except: heart irregularities, Low pressure, depression, restlessness, tremors, severe fatigue.
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Low pressure
|
|
what level of caffeine increases performance?
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30-200 mg
|
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what level of caffeine makes you a wired, crazed lunatic?
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>500 mg
|
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the acceptable limit for lead intake is ____ ug/dl; __________lead is more hazardous; ___% of ingested is absorbed; ____% ingested by kids is absorbed; ____% is taken up by bone; and lead binds to _________.
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25; volatized; 10; 50; 80; disulfides
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Formation of zinc protoporphyrin, gum line effect, anemia, and lines in your bones, a "wrist drop" (sort of like eric's) are all characteristic of what?
|
lead poisoning
|
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what causes basophilic stippling of RBC's?
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lead
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Hemoglobin has 200 times more affinity for ___ than _______.
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CO; Oxygen
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In regards to CO poisoning, ________ ________ occurs at 20-30% saturation, and _____________ occurs at 60-70% saturation.
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systemic hypoxia; unconsciousness
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How quickly can you die if you leave your car running in your garage?
|
five minutes
|
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What disease? Slight headache, nausea, vomiting, fatigue
|
mild exposure to CO
|
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what disease? Throbbing headache, drowsiness, fast heart rate
|
medium exposure to CO
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what disease? Convusions, uncosciousness, heart & lung failure, brain damage and possibly
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severe exposure to CO
|
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What people are are most affected by CO poisoning?
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unborn babies, infants, ppl w/ heart disease
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Hemifacial microsomia results in a maldeveloped external ear along with aplasia of the ________ bone and _______.
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zygomatic, mandible --> TMJ problems
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Why are children more prone to otitis media?
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shallow inclination of eustachian tube (10 vs. 40 degrees)
|
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Glue ear is a bacterial chronic otitis media. T/F
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False = non-bacterial
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________ is an in tion of squamous epidermis --> tympanic membrane into middle ear causing an inclusion cyst.
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Chlolesteatoma
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The most common cause of conductive hearing loss in middle aged individuals.
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Otosclerosis = deposition of bone around oval window
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Vertigo, hearing loss and tinnitis, due to hydrops (dialated membranous labyrinth), are part of the clinical triad of this disease found in 40-60 year olds.
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Meniere's
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List three types of hearing loss.
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conductive, sensory and neural
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Which is not a form of sensory hearing loss: noise trauma, presbycusis, otosclerosis, ototoxic .
|
otosclerosis = conductive along
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Which is the least common type of deafness caused by MS, neuromas and lesions to CN VIII?
|
neural
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Impacted cerumen, tympanic membrane trama, effusions of the middle ear, cholestetoma, hematoma and otosclerosis are forms of ______ deafness.
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conductive
|
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T/F Continuity exists between the sphenomandibular ligament and the malleolar ligament of the middle ear.
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TRUE
|
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The chorda tympani provides special sensory to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and is in close proximity to the inner and middle ear. T/F
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TRUE
|
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Type I fibers are ________ used for ___________.
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aerobic; endurance
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These fibers make up 1/3 of muscle fibers, rich in mitochondria and myoglobulin, stain very lightly w/ mhyosin atpase
|
type I (aerobic) fibers
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These fibers make up 2/3 of all muscle fibers, glycogen rich, fast-contracting myosin, dark fibers on staining, susceptible to metabolic insult during prolonged periods of disuse.
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anaerobic (type II) fibers
|
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A given motor neuron will innervate ______ fiber type(s), and the fiber type is determined by the ________.
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one; neuron
|
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What muscle disease? Progressive, genetically determined; degeneration of skeletal muscle, wasting, weakness, increaesd serum creatine kinase
|
Muscular dystrophy
|
|
What ist the most common form of muscular dystrophy?
|
Duchenne's
|
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What muscle disease? Def. Of dystrophin, X linked, weakness initially in proximal extremity muscles and pelvic girdle, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, GOWER's sign, die in early 20's or teens.
|
Duchenne's
|
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What is the sign called that is hard to get to a standing position from squatting?
|
Gower's sign
|
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What is the milder form of Duchenn'es muscular dystrophy called?
|
Becker's (appears later in life--this is how you tell because Duchenn'es usually appears in children)
|
|
What muscle disease? Autosomal nt, triple nucleotide repeat, symptoms begin as , weakness of hands and foot muscles initially, Hatchet Face, inc frequency of cardiomyopathy, cataracts, and diabetes
|
myotonic dystrophy
|
|
What is the second most common muscular dystrophy?
|
myotonic dystrophy
|
|
T or F: myotonic dystrophy can worsen in subsequent generations.
|
true, the triple nuclotide repeat mutation is amplified
|
|
What are the autoimmune muscle disorders?
|
Myasthenia gravis, polymyosiitis/dermatomyositis
|
|
Myasthenia gravis has all the following characteristics except: autoantibodies to acetylcholine receptors, men(20-35 yrs old) and women (50-60 yrs old), muscle weakness intensified by muscle use, associated with tumors of the thymus, thymic hyperplasia, ocular muscle droop (ptosis), diplopia, inability to chew
|
The men and women ages should be switched
|
|
What muscle disease? Chronic degenerative autoimmune process involving proximal muscles of extremities--weakness and pain walking up stairs, necrotic muscle surrounded by lymphocytes and plasma cells in biopsy
|
Polymyositis
|
|
What is polymyositis called when it involves the skin also?
|
dermatomyositis
|
|
what is the major symptom associated with dermatomyositis?
|
heliotrope (iliac rash) discoloration around the eyes
|
|
T or F: myotonic dystrophy involves only type I fibers
|
TRUE
|
|
What percent of tumors associated with myasthenia gravis are thymomas?
|
15%
|
|
What percent of thyus associated problems due to myasthenia gravis is thymic hyperplasia?
|
65%
|
|
What rare disorder is associated with small oat cell lung cancer?
|
Eaton Lambert syndrome
|
|
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children (malignant)
|
Rhabdomyosarcoma
|
|
What is the most common cause of peripheral nueropathy?
|
Diabetes
|
|
In infectious myositis, _________ causes tetanus, __________causes gas gangrene, parasites cause __________, and the virus involved is ____________.
|
clostridium tetani, clostridium perfringens, trichinosis, coxsackie virus
|
|
All of the following cause peripheral neuropathy except: diabetes, immune disorders, alcohol excess, Vitamin C deficiency, toxins, infection (AIDS), congenital
|
Vitamin C def. (Vitamin B DOES)
|
|
What are the supporting cells of the nervous system and form part of brain barrieer?
|
astrocytes
|
|
What forms the myelin around nerves in the CNS analagous to a schwann man cell?
|
oligodendrocytes
|
|
what cells line the cerebral ventricles?
|
ependymal cells
|
|
what nervous cells are scavenger cells?
|
microglia
|
|
What is the infectious agent in spongiform encephalopathies?
|
prions
|
|
T or F: prions have DNA
|
FALSE
|
|
T or F: prions have a short incubation period
|
FALSE
|
|
What is the prion caused disease in cow's?
|
bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease)
|
|
What is the human form of mad cow disease?
|
creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
|
|
This disease is found in new guinea and is transmitted by eating infected brains
|
Kuru
|
|
Is MS Autoimmune or infectious?
|
It has been associated with both
|
|
____% of MS cases in US are caucasian
|
95%
|
|
T or F: MS is more common in tropical climates.
|
false; more common in moderate to cold climates
|
|
In MS, visual disturbances occur _____% of the time and limb weakness occurs______% of the time.
|
20; 40
|
|
What cells are destroyed in multiple sclerosis?
|
oligodendrocytes
|
|
MS affects the _______ matter of the brain
|
white
|
|
What disorder of the brain can thiamine deficiency cause?
|
beriberi (also Wernicke's encephalopathy and Wernicke's Korsakoff syndrome
|
|
Thiame def. Is most often seen in what population.
|
Piss drunks
|
|
What disease? Paralysis of extraocular muscles, ataxia, mental confusion
|
Wernicke's encephalopathy
|
|
What disease? Loss of recent memory, confabulation (making up stories)
|
Korsakoff's psychosis (repeated bouts of Wernicke's)
|
|
Vit B12 deficiency can cause all of the following except: high pressure, uncoordinated movements, abnormal gait, psychiatric symptoms
|
High pressure (doesn't mention anything about pressure)
|
|
Nicotinic acid is AKA ______
|
Vitamin B3
|
|
Nicotinic acid def. Causes the 3 D's: Dermatitis (photosensitivity), Diarrhea and __________.
|
Delirium
|
|
What is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly?
|
Alzheimer's disease
|
|
What disease? Slow progressive memory loss, genetic in small #'s, Neurofibrillary tangles and plaques, atrophy of cerebral cortex
|
Alzheimer's disease
|
|
A telltale sign of Alzheimer's Disease is __________ sulci and ________ gyri.
|
widened; narrowed
|
|
A patient with down syndrome survives past age 40. What neurological disorder are the patient's symptoms most likely to mimic?
|
Alzheimer's disease
|
|
What over-the-counter medicine is supposed to inhibit the effects of Alzheimer's?
|
NSAIDS (like ibuprofen)
|
|
What disease? Movement disorder, changes in extrapyramidal (involuntary) motor system, depigmented substantia nigra, Lewy bodies.
|
Parkinson's
|
|
The symptoms of Parkinson's include all of the following except: Pill rolling tremor, bradykinesia, dementia, instability while walking, flacidity, expresionless face.
|
Flacidity (should be rigidity)
|
|
T or F: there is a cure for parkinson's
|
FALSE
|
|
This cell is stained pink (eosinophilic) and is seen in Parkinson's disease
|
Lewy Body
|
|
Alzheimer's, Parkinson's, Huntington's corea, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are all ____________ diseases
|
degenerative
|
|
What disease? Abnormality in chromsome 4, increased CAG trinucleotide repeats
|
Huntington's (chorea)
|
|
What disease? Involuntary gyrating movements, progressive dementia, brain atrophy, caudate nucleus, clinical abnormalities present in 30's to 40's
|
Huntington's (chorea)
|
|
What is the "layman" name for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
|
Lou Gehrig's disease
|
|
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) presents w/ wasting and weakness of small muscles in hands, and is the loss of ________ cerebrospinal pathways in spinal cord.
|
Lateral
|
|
ALS is a progressive disorder of upper or lower motor neurons?
|
both
|
|
All of the following are characteristic of CNS neoplasms except: only 2% of cancer s, High mortality rate, Prominent in older age groups, 50% are primary, 50% metastasis
|
Prominent in older age groups (they are more prominent in younger age groups)
|
|
T or F: Primary malignant tumors of the CNS never metastasize
|
True dat, hippie
|
|
The four types of CNS tumors to remember are: Gliomas, Meningiomas, Medulloblastomas, and ___________.
|
retinoblastoma
|
|
What 2 subgroups of gliomas are there?
|
Astrocytoma, glioblastoma multiforme
|
|
What is the most common primary CNS tumor?
|
Glioblastoma multiforme (stage four astrocytoma)
|
|
An astrocytoma becomes a glioblastoma multiforme when it reaches grade ___.
|
Four
|
|
Astrocytomas occur in which part of the brain?
|
Cerebellum
|
|
What is the second most common CNS neoplasm?
|
Meningioma
|
|
All are characteristic of meningioma except: arise from the dura, rapid growth, compresses the brain
|
rapid growth
|
|
Meningiomas are characteristic of which of the following? Lewy bodies, caudate nucleus, pill-rolling tremor, psammoma bodies, depigmented substantia nigra?
|
Psammomma bodies (calcifications)
|
|
Meningiomas are benign or malignant?
|
benign
|
|
T or F: Benign meningiomas don't affect brain function.
|
False, because they compress the brain
|
|
Retinoblastoma is more common in kids or s?
|
kids
|
|
What area of the brain does medulloblastoma occur?
|
Cerebellum
|
|
All are characteristic of medulloblastoma except: more common in children, rapid growth, poor prognosis, psammoma bodies
|
Psammomma bodies (calcifications)
|
|
A ______ (hordeolum) is and acute supporative ______ infection of the hair folicle and associated glands of the eye.
|
Sty, staph
|
|
_______ is chronic inflammation of an obstructed meibomian gland often mistaken for a neoplasm.
|
Chalazion
|
|
__________, occuring in diabetics and other hyperlipidemic conditions, are small lipid plaques of foamy macrophages.
|
Xanthelasmas
|
|
________ aka "pink eye" is contagious and caused by a virus or bacteria.
|
Conjunctivitis
|
|
Viral conjuctivitis = _____ discharge and _____ vision.
|
watery, blurred
|
|
_______ conjunctivitis = purulent discharge and no blurring
|
bacterial
|
|
______ caused by chlamydia, are associated with ulcers and scarring leading to blindness.
|
Trachomas
|
|
Inflammation of the cornea is called ______.
|
keratitis
|
|
Hypertensive retinopathy leads to the formation of microaneurysms and hemorrhages into the retinal nerve fibers called ___________.
|
dot and flame hemorrhages
|
|
Edema of the optical disc is called _________ causing irreversible damage.
|
papiledema
|
|
Narrowing of retinal arterioles leads to a "copper wire effect" due to ____.
|
hypertensive retinopathy
|
|
Diabetic retinopathy promotes the formation of ______ and microaneurysms.
|
cataracts
|
|
Diabetic vessels are more permeable leading to edema and hemorrhage into the eye. This is known as ________ retinopathy and characterized by "________" and may lead to retinal detachment in severe cases.
|
background, "cotton-wool spots"
|
|
Due to progressive damage or atrophy to the optic nerve _______ causes peripheral loss of eyesight.
|
glaucoma
|
|
Which is not a risk factor of glaucoma: over 60, familial history of glaucoma, diabetes, farsightedness, smoking, black pt over 40.
|
farsighted, NEARsighted is correct.
|
|
Priamary glaucoma is idiopathic; secondary is related to a preexisting eye disease.
|
True; True
|
|
Secondary glaucoma is the most common form. T/F
|
FALSE
|
|
Priamary glaucoma can be classified as open or closed angle. Open angle is caused by _________.
|
INTERNAL blockage of eye's drainage canals = increased P
|
|
"Steamy cornea," rainbow halos around lights at night, acute onset intraocular pain and blurred vision are all due to ____ angle glaucoma caused by _______ drainage canal blockage.
|
closed, ENTERING
|
|
The most common cause of decreased vision in the US is _______, causing clouding of the lens due to the natural aging process.
|
Cataracts
|
|
The most common eye tumor of infants and young s.
|
Retinoblastoma - deletion of Rb gene
|
|
Oral contraceptives do NOT cause which one of the following: Thrombo embolism, Hypertension, Cardiovascular disease, Coronary artery disease
|
Coronary artery disease
|
|
Oral contraceptives do NOT cause which one of the following: Thrombo embolism, Hypertension, Cardiovascular disease, Coronary artery disease
|
Coronary artery disease
|
|
P-450 is an enzyme that helps detoxify ethanol & medications (T/F)
|
True
|
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What is the most common cause of liver injury/cirrhosis (from environmental factors)?
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Alcohol (chronic alcoholism)
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Which is a positive effect of alcohol: cerebral atrophy, cerebellar degeneration, optic neuropathy, inc HDL in , oral cancer.
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inc in HDL
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