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155 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Objective or Subjective: Observable, able to be seen, heard, touched, smelled, tasted, and factual? |
Objective |
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Objective or Subjective: in one person's opinion; judgement, assumption, belief, suspicion, based on fact but is one person's interpretation of that fact? (I feel, I believe) |
Subjective |
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Information that can be measured or perceived by the investigating clinician is? Examples: size, color, duration, consistency, surface contour - |
signs |
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Patient's own interpretation of a clinical circumstance is called? (pain) |
symptoms |
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Symptoms rely on what 2 kind of experiences? |
neurologic and psychologic |
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Visual observation is called what? |
inspection |
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___________ is compressing tissue w/ a glass slide to determine vascular nature of a lesion. |
diascopy |
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__________ is feel/press lesion to yield information about texture, consistency, temp and function. |
palpation |
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_________ is striking tissues w/ fingers or instrument and listening to resulting pressure changes in tissues (ex: tooth ankylosis) |
percussion |
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__________ is a withdrawal of fluids from a body cavity. (ex: needle aspiration of cysts, vascular tumors, purulent swellings) |
aspiration |
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___________ is listening for sounds w/ in the body. |
auscultation |
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_____________ is a valuable adjunct to clinical/radiographic assessment of TMJ disorders. |
doppler auscultation |
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Essay answers are... A. Objective B. Subjective C. Projective D. Positive E. Negative |
B - subjective |
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Multiple choice answers on scantrons are... A. Objective B. Subjective C. Projective D. Positive E. Negative
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A - objective |
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My gums bleed when I floss.... A. Sign B. Symptom |
A - sign |
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My gums hurt when I floss... A. Sign B. Symptom |
B - symptom |
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________ is any excised/removed tissue; examination of tissue, cells, or fluids removed from living body to discover the presence, cause or extent of a disease. (Confirm diagnosis of systemic disease) |
biopsy |
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A biospy indication is a lesion w/ greater than or equal to ___ day duration. (has unusual location and appearance) |
14 |
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_______ the is formation of tumors. |
neoplasia |
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_____________ is a break in skin/mucous membrane w/ loss of surface tissue, disintegration and necrosis of epithelial tissue and pus. |
persistent ulceration |
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______________ is a reddened patch w/ velvety surface on oral/genital mucosa that is considered to be precancerous lesion. |
persistent erythroplasia/erythroplakia |
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____________________ is abnormal lymph nodule enlargements. |
lymphadenophathy |
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___________ is an increase in fibrous elements in tissue commonly associated w/ inflammation and marked by loss of elasticity and pliability : sclerosis; hardened mass/formation. |
induration |
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___________ = immobilized |
fixation |
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____________ is having a slow progressive course of indefinite duration; especially of degenerative invasive diseases, infections, psychoses, and inflammations. |
chronicity |
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3 types of biopsies? |
excisional, incisional, and asporation |
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Which biopsy removes around the lesion and the tissue surrounding the lesion? |
excisional |
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Which biopsy takes part of tongue and tests to decide if you need to removal whole tongue? |
incisional |
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Innocuous means - |
harmless |
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___________________ is when only surface cells are captured (broom sweep limited to superficial cells) |
exfoliative cytology |
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True/False: Immunoflorescent is using an antigen, when present and has UV light - it will glow meaning its positive. |
True |
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_________________ is the labeling of antibodies/antigens w/ fluorscent dyes especially for the purpose of demonstrating the presence of particular antigen/antibody in a tissue preparation or smear. |
immunoflurescent |
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List 3 indications w/ culture and sensitivity testing: |
1. life treatening infection 2. unsuccessful previous antibiotic therapy 3. immunosuppressed patient |
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Why does culture/sensitivity testing have limited use in dentistry? |
1. difficult for anaerobic conditions 2. turnover time too long; best to attempt trial therapies of certain antibiotics as results may occur quicker than the time interval of the test. |
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What is erythroplasia? A. antibiotics B. erythromycin family C. red patches D. white patches |
C. red patches |
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What is leukoplakia? A. antibiotics B. erythromycin family C. red patches D. white patches |
D. white patches |
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Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic test to diagnose oral lesions? A. culture & sensitivy testing B. probing C. oral exfoliative cytology D. biopsy |
B - probing (its a clinical exam, not test) |
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An interruption, cessation, or disorder of body functions, systems or organs is called - |
a disease |
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Periodontal/oral infections may impact which systemic conditions? |
heart disease, stroke, diabetes, respiratory disease, and preterm low-birth weight babies |
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2 examples of oral manifestations of systemic disease - |
diabetes and leukemia |
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3 goals of a dental hygienist - |
1. increase # of adults receiving info/counseling w/ tobacco cessation 2. increase # of adults receiving oral/pharyngeal cancer screening 3. increase # of adults being tested or referred for glycemic (blood sugar) control |
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Should an oral cancer screening be done the same way every time? |
YES |
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T/F: During an oral cancer screening, you should palpate first then observe. |
FALSE; observe first THEN palpate (tactile) |
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Types of traumatic findings during a screening - |
thermal/chemical burns, abrasion, erosions and fractures. |
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Types of infectious findings during a screening- |
bacterial, viral and fungal |
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Types of benign findings during a screening- |
fibroma, lipoma, and hyperplasia |
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Types of malignant findings during a screening- |
carcinoma and sarcoma |
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Other findings during a screening- |
autoimmune, genetic, inflammatory, and allergic. |
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____________ is the study of disease/abnormal conditions resulting from disease, trauma, defects, genetic abnormalities, etc. |
pathology |
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_________ is the cause, can be single entity or event or multiple causes. |
etiology |
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___________ is the natural ability of an organism to remain unaffected by pathologic or toxic agents. |
resistance |
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___________ are conditions w/ in or around the organism or host do not inhibit the action of pathogenic agents but instead leave the host more likely to be affected. |
susceptibility |
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_____________ is how the disease/condition develops, the sequence of events through the progression of disease or conditon. |
pathogenesis |
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______________ are visible/invisible observations that the disease/condition is present. (beings on cellular level) |
manifestations |
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6 types of extrinsic etiologys: |
1. microorganism 2. physical agents 3. chemical agents 4. mechanical agents 5. nutritional deficiencies 6. iatrogenic |
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Types of extrinsic microorganisms: (3) |
1. bacteria 2. fungi 3. viruses |
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Types of extrinsic physical agents: (7) |
1. temp 2. electricity 3. ionizing radiation 4. UV radiation 5. ultrasound 6. microwaves 7. lasers |
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Types of extrinsic chemical agents: (6) |
1. poison 2. acid 3. venom 4. drugs 5. lead 6. mercury |
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Types of extrinsic mechanical agents: (4) |
1. knives 2. guns 3. motor vehicle accidents 4. bad luck |
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Types of extrinsic nutritional deficiencies: (3) |
1. scurvy 2. rickets 3. obesity |
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Types of extrinsic iatrogenic: (2) |
1. infective endocarditis 2. hospital infections |
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3 Types of intrinsic etiology: |
1. genetic 2. immunologic 3. degenerative |
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3 types of intrinsic genetics: |
1. sickle cell 2. cystic fibrosis 3. breast cancer |
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2 kinds of intrinsic immunologics: |
1. autoimmune (lupus, rheumatoid arthritis) 2. hypersensitivity (allergies) |
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2 types of intrinsic degeneratives: |
osteoporosis and osteoarthritis |
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2 types of psychogenic: |
1. conscious/subconscious reactions or attitudes 2. posttraumatic stress disorder |
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fibromyalgia/unknown is under what? |
idiopathic |
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primary hypertension/cancer is under what? |
multifactoral |
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T/F: Limited genetic lineage groups have a lower risk of developing a disease than someone from another group (intermarrying). |
FALSE; they have higher risk |
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Do certain ethnic groups have a higher risk of developing conditions? |
yes |
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Tay-sachs is a condition linked to what descent? |
jewish |
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Sickle cell anemia is a condition linked to what descent? |
african |
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List all risk factors: (9) |
1. genetic 2. immune system dysfunction 3. compromised first-line defense 4. age 5. lifestyle 6. stress 7. environment 8. preexisting conditions 9. multiple risk factors |
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List some non-modifiable risk factors (4) |
1. race 2. sex 3. age 4. genetic background |
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List modifiable risk factors: (5) |
1. tobacco use 2. poor eating habits 3. risky driving behaviors 4. inappropriate drug use/abuse 5. exercise habits |
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How would one decrease risk of hypertension? |
maintain healthy weight, exercise, monitor sodium intake and no smoking. |
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How would one decrease risk of cancer? |
maintain healthy weight, healthy diet high in fiber/antioxidants, no tobacco, limit alcohol use, exercise. |
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List types of cellular adaptation: (6) |
1. atrophy 2. hypertrophy 3. hyperplasia 4. metaplasia 5. dysplasia 6. intracellular retention of substances |
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3 types of cellular injury: |
1. free radical injury 2. hypoxic cell injury 3. imbalance of intracellular calcium |
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2 kinds of cellular death - |
1. apoptosis 2. necrosis |
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List examples of normal and abnormal cellular adaptation changes: |
normal: pregnancy, aging, exercise abnormal: infections, genetic defects, etc |
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T/F: when etiology/stimulus for change is removed, the cell will revert to normal structure/function. |
TRUE |
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T/F: Eventually the cell will no longer be able to adapt to environment and will die. |
TRUE |
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____________ is decrease in size/function of cell, tissue or organ caused by reduced functional demand, hormonal stimulation, nutrient supply and aging. |
atrophy |
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__________ is the enlargement of cells leading to increase of size in tissue/organ caused by functional demand and hormonal stimulation. |
hypertrophy |
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__________ is an increase in the # of cells in tissue/organ resulting in enlargement can be due to excessive hormone stimulation, chronic cell injury, functional demand or cell injury/death. |
hyperplasia |
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Hyperplasia or hypertrophy may occur simultaneously as in the formation of a __________. |
goiter |
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___________ is the conversion of 1 differentiated cell type to another. |
metaplasia |
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__________ refers to creation of abnormal cells from normal cells (change in size,shape and nuclear changes) |
dysplasia |
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Severe dysplasia is usually treated as a - |
neoplasm |
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__________ is new cell-growth, not considered to be an adaptive change. |
neoplasia |
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Severe dysplasia is usually considered to be at least _______________ if not overt cancer. |
premalignant |
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___________ is when the liver is not functioning correctly. It builds up in the body and is stored in various cells including epithelial cells. |
bilirubin |
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What will dissipate when the liver starts functioning properly and is able to process the accumulated bilirubin? |
jaundice |
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___________ is the storage carotene in epithelial cells not harmful and will dissipate when foods rich in carotene are decreased. |
carotenemia |
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3 kinds of reversible cellular injury : |
1. free radical injury 2. hypoxic cell injury 3. intracellular imbalance of calcium |
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____________ is a highly reactive class of chemical generated by the cell during normal metabolic processes. |
free radical injury |
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What is the most frequent source of free radicals because it has 2 unpaired outer electrons and is used in almost all of the cell's activities? |
oxygen |
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What may be impaired against free radical injury when the cell is under stress for any reason? |
built-in defenses |
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What defenses allow single-strand breaks in DNA to occur? |
impaired |
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What in the cell membrane and organelle membranes can be destroyed, compromising integrity of free radical structures impairing normal cellular function and replicative capabilities? |
phospholipids |
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Cell membrane disruption will upset balance of calcium w/ in the cell causing? |
calcium imbalance |
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_________ is when lack of oxygen inhibits production of energy w/ in the cell. |
hypoxic cell injury |
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In hypoxic cell injury, why is there an increase in the amount of water in the cell? |
because the cell depends on an energy source to actively maintain the sodium/potassium balance. |
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In hypoxic cell injury, sodium and water will flow unchecked into the cell causing - |
swelling |
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___________ is a malfunction of system maintaining sodium & potassium levels will impair the system maintaining calcium & magnesium levels. |
calcium imbalance |
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With calcium imbalance, normal cells can have MORE OR LESS calcium inside than what is found in the extracellular environment?
Failure will cause an _______ of calcium into the cell. |
- less! - influx |
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With calcium imbalance, increased calcium activates ___________ that can damage the cell and compromise cell membranes.
This then causes _____ of the cell. |
- enzymes - lysis (death) |
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What has cellular self-destruction, removes defective cells and can be triggered by infections and other stimuli? |
apoptosis |
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Caseous necrosis is - |
tuberculosis |
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Coagulative necrosis is usually triggered by ____________. ex: infarcts. |
hypoxia |
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Liquefactive necrosis is a? Example? |
- bacterial infection - spider bite |
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How can a cell increase in size? |
by osmosis |
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In liquefactive necrosis, WBC's use potent ___________ to destroy bacteria, but host cells are destroyed also. |
enzymes |
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In liquefactive necrosis, walled off area impairs removal of debris and _________ forms. |
abscess |
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___________ is an accumulation of dead cells, dead bacteria and dead/dying WBC's. |
abscess |
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Which inflammation is limited in scope, area, and duration - characterized by cardinal signs of inflammation - may be extensive and involve multiple orangs/systems? |
acute |
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2 major categories of inflammation are - |
1. acute inflammation 2. chronic inflammation |
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Which inflammation is characterized by long duration/history of repeated insults or injuries? |
chronic |
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List some cardinal signs of acute inflammation - |
redness, heat, swelling, pain and loss of function. |
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3 phases of acute inflammation are - |
1. initiation 2. amplification 3. termination |
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__________ is increased blood flow (redness/heat) |
hyperemia |
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__________ is excess fluid in effected tissues (swelling, pain and loss of function). |
edema |
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Which phase of acute inflammation is activated when injury occurs resulting in loss of fluid from blood into tissues and movement of WBC's from blood vessels to the injured area? |
initiation |
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Which phase of acute inflammation has chemical mediators that direct more/different types of WBC's into injured area increasing the response and neutralizing the agents causing response? |
amplification |
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Which phase of acute inflammation requires other chemical substances to stop or inhibit the inflammatory process? (if process continues unhindered, more damage will result) |
termination |
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List the 5 events of initiation phase of acute inflammation - |
1. vasocontriction 2. vasodilation 3. increased vascular permeability 4. vascular stasis 5. chemotaxis |
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Amplification phase of acute inflammation occurs as ____________ arrive at the site of injury. |
leukocytes |
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List the 2 events (events 6/7) of amplification phase of acute inflammation - |
event 6: opsonization event 7: phagocytosis |
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What occurs during event 8 of termination phase of acute inflammation? |
debris removed through lymphatic system, chemical mediators "turn off" inflammatory process. |
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What occurs during event 6 (opsonization)? |
opsonins prepare resistant microbes for phagocytosis (immunoglobulins, complement) |
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What are the 3 cellular components (granulocytes)? |
1. polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN) 2. basophil 3. eosinophil |
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Which granulocyte is the most active in inflammatory process and is the FIRST cell to arrive in the area of acute inflammation? |
PMN |
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Which granulocyte is attracted to area by chemotactic factors and is active in fighting bacterial/fungal infections? |
PMN |
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Which granulocyte plays a role in allergic reactions? |
basophils |
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Which granulocyte is active in fighting parasitic infections especially helminthic (tapeworm)? |
eosinophils |
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List the 3 cellular components (agranulocytes): |
1. Lymphocyte 2. monocyte 3. mast cell |
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Monocytes circulate in bloodstream until they enter specific tissue and become - |
fixed |
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Fixed monocyte differentiates into a ___________ specific for a particular tissue. |
macrophage |
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Histiocytes (tissue macrophage) work in what 2 inflammatory responses? |
inflammatory and immune |
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3 types of Giant Cell macrophages: |
1. foreign body giant cell 2. langhans giant cell 3. aschoff cell |
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Which giant cell forms in response to TB infection? |
langhans |
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Which giant cell forms during rheumatic fever? |
aschoff cell |
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Which cells (cytes) play a central role in the function of immune system? |
lymphocytes |
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T/F: Mast cells are a type of leukocyte. |
FALSE; it is not. |
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Which cell is created in bone marrow and travels through circulation to tissue size to mature? |
mast cells |
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Both _____ cell and _________ have granules in their cytoplasm containing histamine, an important chemical mediator. |
mast and basophil |
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What is released when the cell's granules break open or degranulate, in response to a stimulus? |
histamine |
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2 categories of endogenous chemical mediators - |
1. preformed (histamine, serotonin) 2. synthesized (PAF, prostaglandins, leukotriences, cytokines) |
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What is w/in exogenous chemical mediators? |
lipopolysaccharides and other toxins |
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_______________ is a component of gram - bacterial cell walls released as bacteria destroyed. |
LPS (lipopolysaccharide) |
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What is released from platelets in response to platelet-activating factor and increases vascular permeability? |
serotonin |
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Platelet-activating factor causes - |
aggregation (sticking together) |
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Platelet-activating factor increases vasodilation and vascular permeability ____ to ______ times more than histamine alone. |
100-10,000 |
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Platelet-activating factor increases phagocytic action of what 2 types of cells? |
neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages |