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176 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Define pathogenicity:
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Ability to produce disease.
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Trace the route of infectivity:
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Entrance --> Establishment (multiplication) -->Portal of Exit --> transmission mechanism.
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What are some different types of infection?
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local, focal, systemic (throughout body); primary, secondary, mixed, subclinical, latent, bacteremia-septicemia-pyermia
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Define virulence:
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Degree of pathogenicity
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Properties of exotoxins:
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excreted by gram +, heat labile, antigenic, polypeptieds, highly toxic, do not cause fever.
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Properties of endotoxins:
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Gram -, heat stabile, non-antigenic, polysaccharides/lipid A, weakly toxic, cause fever, gram - bacteria.
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First line of defense and second line of defense:
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1) barriers, secreted antimicrobials, normal flora. 2) inflammation, phagocytosis, immunologic
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What are the two types of immunity?
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Natural and aquired
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Naturally aquired active vs. naturally aquired passive
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active- disease
passive- matenal antibody |
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Artificially aquired active vs. artificially aquired passive
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active- immunization
passive- injection of anti-serum |
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Immunity resulting from a viral infection:
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Naturally aquired active
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Immunity due to the administration of the Sabine vaccine:
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Artificially aquired active
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Immunity due to injection of an antibody to an endotoxin:
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Artificially acquired passive
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Immunity due to the transmission of IgG to the fetus across the placenta:
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Naturally aquired passive
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Immunity due to the injection of antibodies from one person to another:
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Artificially aquired passive
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Define antigen:
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Any substance which will induce a specific immune response when introduced into a host.
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Define epitope:
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the part of a macromolecule that is recognized by the immune system, specifically by antibodies, B cells, or T cells (on the surface of ag).
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Properties of a T cell dependent antigens:
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complex; protein; IgG, IgA, IgM; memory; majority of pathogens are T cell dependent
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Properties of T cell independent antigens:
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simple; polysaccharide; IgM; no memory
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Factors associated with Ag that influence Ab production:
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chem/phys nature of Ag; route of inoculation, dose and frequency of injections; soluble vs. particulate;
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Define Antibody:
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Serum proteins formed in response to Antigen stimulation. Reacts with Antigen in specific manner.
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What are the 5 classes of immunoglobulins?
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IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE
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Immunoglobulin: secretory Ab
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IgA
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Immunoglobulin: Ab that prevents attachment to target cells
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IgA
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Immunoglobulin: Mos abundant Ab
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IgG
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Immunoglobulins: Highest MW Ab
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IgM
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Immunoglobulilns: B cell Ag receptor
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IgD
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Immunoglobulins: Ab that attaches to mast cells
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IgE
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T or F: all gram negative bacteria produce endospores.
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False
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Define PMN:
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white blood cells. These can further be broken down into neutrophils(fight bacterial infection), eosinophils, and basophils.
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Type I sensitivity:
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Anaphylactic; IgE- no Complement; anyphylaxis, hay fever, food and drug allergies.
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Type II sensitivity:
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Cytotoxic; IgG or IgM + complement; transfusion rxns; Rh problems.
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Type III sensitivity:
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Immune complex; IgG or IgM + complement; post-streptococcal diseases=
glumerulonephritis & rheumatic |
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Type IV sensitivity:
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T lymphocyte mediated. contact dermatititis (poison oak, ivy, etc). transplant rxn; tumor, vir, fung immunity
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Hypersensitivity: fungal skin test
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Type IV
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Hypersensitivity: Rheumatic fever
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Type III
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Hypersensitivity: Cutaneous anaphylaxis
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Type I
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Hypersensitivity: Adverse blood tranfusion rxn
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Type II
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Hypersensitivity: IgE mediated Rxn
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Type I
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Hypersensitivity: Graft rejection rx
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Type Iv
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True or False: the T lymphocytes are phagocytic cells
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False
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True or False: The C1 complement component binds to the Fab portion of IgG or IgM and initiates the classical complement pathway
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False
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True or False: PMN cells are able to engulf and process/present antigens to B cells in the immune response.
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False
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True or False: Particulate antigens are used in the immunodiffusion assay to detect antibodies
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False
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True or False: Endotoxins have the ability to activate the alternate complement pathway
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True
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True or False: Complement is always involved in Type I hypersensitivity Rxns
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False
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True or False: Th lymphocytes secrete immunoglobulins
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False
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True or False: Exotoxins are heat labile
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True
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True or False: IgM is produced late in an immune response to infections agents.
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False
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True or False: B lymphocytes secrete exotoxins.
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False
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How do Chlamydiae differ from viruses
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they have DNA and RNA; binary fission; cell wall; prokaryotic ribosomes
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What are some general characterisitics of Chlamydiae?
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Obligate intracellular; inclusion body; very small; inactivated by heat; maintain infectivity for years.
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Define Elementary body:
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infectious particle. small cell.
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Describe psittacosis (ornithosis):
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respiratory disease aka parrot fever; in humans and birds. Birds treated w/ chlortetracycline HCL.
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Describe lymphogranuloma venereum:
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STD common in the tropics. Enters through abrasions/lacerations. CF test used.
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Describe trachoma and inclusion conjuctivitis (TRIC):
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Eye infection caused by C. trachomatis.
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Describe Neisseria Gonorrhaea:
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Caused by C. trachomatis;
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Describe Pneumonia, bronchitis, pharyngitis, sinusitis:
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C. pneumoniae; 1st isolate in Taiwan; transmitted by resp secretions; cough, malaise
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Rickettsiae is responsible for causing what diseases?
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Typhus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Q fever, Ehrlichiosis, rickettsial pox
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What are some general characterisitics of Ricikettsiae?
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Intermediate in size, DNA and RNA; short rods of coccobacilli; obligate intracellular; arthrpd resvoir
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Describe Epidemic (louse borne) typhus:
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louse bites infected human and becomes carrier-->fecal excretion on skin passes to another person
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What is Brill-Zinsser Disease:
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A latent disease- result of primary infection of typhus earlier.
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Descripbe Endemic (murine-- flea borne) typhus:
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R. typhi; milder than louse borne; in areas of high rat infestation; rarely fatal. rat to rat, rat to man.
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Describe scrub (mite borne= chiggers and red mite) typhus:
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R. tsutaugamushi; eschar (ulcer covered with blackened scar); mite to rodent; someteimes mite to human.
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Describe RMSF (tick borne):
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R. rickettsii; many cases in children; wood ticks. rash first appears on extremities.
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Define eschar:
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Ulcer covered with blackened scar
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Descrbie Q fever:
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Coxiella burnetti; airborne; resembles influenze; livestock -- humans.
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Describe Rickettsial pox:
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Ricketsia akari; mice--mites--humans; skin rash similar to chickenpox= fever
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Describe Ehrilchiosis:
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Human monocyte ehr- Ehrilichia chaffeensis. Human granulocytic; ticks; destruction of leukocytes.
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What are some characterisitics of fungi?
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aerobic; heterotrophic; true nucleus; lack chlorophyll; sexual and/or asexual reprod; cell wall= chitin
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How are fungi important?
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Deteriorate foods/fabrics; food fermentation; antibiotics; plant diseases; animal diseases
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How are yeasts identified in a lab?
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1) observation-wet mount= lactophenol blue stain 2) culture- Saboraud's medium
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The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are:
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present in mast cells.
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Cell mediated immunity is associated with:
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T lymphocytes
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An immunoassay using rbc's as the indicator and no hemolysis indcates a positive rxn for the presence of ab in a patien's serum:
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Complement fixation
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The specificity of an immunoglobulin is due to its:
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variable portion of the h and l chains
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The classical complement pathway is initiated by:
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IgG or IgM reacting with ag
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Cytokines are:
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suvstances secreted by wbc's that regulate the immune response.
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Macrophages secrete:
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cytokines
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An Ideal antimicrobial should not have the ability to:
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induce an immediate hypersensitivity response.
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Describe the general characterisitics of Diphtheroids:
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Cause skin infections; gram + rods; propionbacterium acnes-- oily secretion--proprionic acid,lipase--fatty acids-- inflammatory response.
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Describe the general characterisitics of Corynebacterium xerosis:
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Cause skin infections. aerobic.
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Describe the general characteristics of a Staph aureus infection:
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a)folliculitis- inf of hair follical-pus= stye (if located at base of eye).
b)extension of folliculitis=pimples/boils(furuncle). Many follicles= carbuncle. |
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Describe the general characteristics of Impetigo:
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Infection by direct contact. eg: school children. blisters-blisters replaced by crusts.
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Describe the general characteristics of Scalded Skin Sydrome:
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Ritter's disease. Infect of skin, blood, nose. org produces exotoxin-redness of skin- skin wrinkles/blister w/ fluid.
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Describe the 2 types of leprosy:
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a) lepromatous- disfiguring skin lesions, extensive, malignant. b) tuberculoid: non-progressive, benign skin lesion= few bacteria present.
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Leprosy is caused by:
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Mycobacterium leprae. Transmission = person to person direct contact.
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Define tetanospasm:
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Spasmodic contractions of muscle result when a heat labile neurotoxin interferes with the relaxation sequence.
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Describe the general characteristics of actinomycosis:
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Wound infectoin caused by Actinomyces Israelii. pus contains "sulfur" granules.
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Describe the 3 types of pneumonia:
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a)pneumococcal- strep. pneumoniae;ab recovery. b)klebsiella-kleibsella pneumoniae;necrosis of alvelar. most common in people with low defense mech; mycoplasma- Mycoplasma pneumoniae; common in school age children; org adheres to resp epithelium.
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Describe the general characteristics of whooping cough:
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Bordetella pertussis; childhood disease-organisms. Vaccine=DPT
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True or False: The FTA is a laboratory diagnostic test for Gonorrhea
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False
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True or False: Subacute bacterial endocarditis is commonly caused by Borelia:
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True
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True or False: Clostridium and Borrelia are spore-forming aerobes
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False
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True or False: Asymptomatic carriers are commonly associated with the disease typhoid fever.
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True
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True or False: Campylobacter causes relapsing fever
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False
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True or False: Neisseria possess pili that contribute to their virulence potential
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True
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True or False: Diptheria toxin is a very potent endotoxin
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False
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True or False: Rice water stools are a characterisitic feature of plague.
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True
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True or False: Shigella produces an erythrogenic toxin that results in skin rash.
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False
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True or False: Granulomas are characterisitic of the lung disease caused by mycobacterium.
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True
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True or False: Strep. mutans has the ability to synthesize extracellular polysaccharides from sucrose.
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True
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True or False: Syphilis is commonly diagnosed by observing gram negative cocci in clinical specimens.
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False
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True or False: Subacute bacterial endocarditis may be caused by alpha hemolytic streptococci that are part of the NF of the oral cavity.
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True
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True or False: Blurred vision and cranial nerve paralysis are symptoms that may result from the production of botulinum toxin.
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True
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True or False: Actinomycosis is classified as a non-invasive infection.
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False
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True or False: Brucellosis is a disease of animals that maybe be transmitted to humans.
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True
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True or False: The acid fast stain is very useful for the direct detection of streptococcus
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False
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True or False: Hemophilis influenzae b may lead to meningitis in children
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True
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True or False: Endotoxin shock is a characterisitic feature of syphilis.
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False
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True or False: DPT is a very effective vaccine for the prevention of systematic fungal infections.
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False
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The presence of sulfur granules is an indication of what infection?
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Actinomycosis
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Tetanospasms are an indication of what infection?
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Tetanus
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The Schick test is used for the diagnosis of what infection?
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Diptheria
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The presence of the Vi antigen is an indication of what infection?
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Typhoid Fever
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The presence of corynebacteriophage is an indication of what infection?
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diptheria
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Verotoxin is caused by
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E. coli
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Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by
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Neisseria
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Non-invasive; exotoxin is caused by
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Corynebacterium
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Rheumatic fever is caused by
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Streptococcus
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Toxic shock is caused by
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Staphylococcus
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Lepormatous leprosy is caused by
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Mycobacterium
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Dental plaques are caused by
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streptococcus
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Furuncles are caused by
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Staphylococcus
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Meningococcal meningitis is...
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primarily a disease of young adults.
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In a positive TB skin test...
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there is an area of induration after 48 hours.
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Botulism is unlike other bacterial food poisonings because the toxin produces harmful effect on the...
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nervous system
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DPT immunizes against...
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Bordetella, diptheria toxin, tetanus toxin
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Pathology seen in diptheria is due to...
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action of an exotoxin
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Asymptomatic carriers may be associated with...
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typhoid
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Define: aseptic meningitis
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Symptoms of meningitis, but there are no bacteria present in the meninges.
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Define pneumonic plague:
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Characterized by fever and headache. Shortness of breath and chest pain.
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Syphillis is caused by:
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Treponema pallidum
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Ulcers are caused by:
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Helicobactero pylori
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Primary atypical pneumonia are caused by:
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Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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Diptheria is caused by:
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Cornybacterium diptheriae
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Cholera is caused by:
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Vibrio cholerae
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Define enterotoxin:
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A protein toxin released by a micro-organism in the lower intestine.
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Gonorrhea is caused by:
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Neisseria Gonorrhaea
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Tuberculosis is caused by:
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Typhoid fever is caused by:
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Salmonella typhi
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Lyme disease is caused by:
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Borrelia burgdoferi
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Plague is caused by:
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Yersinia pestis
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Tetanus is caused by
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Clostridium tetani
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Anthrax is caused by:
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Bacillus anthracis
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Dysentery is caused by:
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Shigella disenteriae
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Pertussis is caused by:
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Bordetella pertussis
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Non-gonococcal urethritis is caused by:
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Neisseria Gonorhhea.
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Compare and contrast HAV and HCV:
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both are caused by a virus containing RNA. HAV is contracted through contaminated food or water. HCV is usually through transplants.
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Antgenic drift vs antigenic shift:
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Change in bound antigens. antigenic drift is local; shift refers to a worldwide change.
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compare and contrast salk vs. sabin vaccines:
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Both were created to treat polio. The salk uses dead cells whereas the sabin is a live vaccine.
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Guarnieri bodies are associated with:
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Smallpox
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Negri bodies are associated with:
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Rabies
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Koplik spots are associated with:
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Measles
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Downey cells are associated with:
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EB virus
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Warthin Finkelday cells are associated with:
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Measles
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Dane particles are associated with:
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Hepatitis B
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Burkitt's lymphoma is associated with:
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EB virus
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Owl eye inclusions are associated with:
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CMV
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Salk Vaccine is...
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inactivated vaccine
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HAI...
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Immune HA assay
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Sabin vaccine is..
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an attenuated vaccine
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HA is...
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Non-immune HA assay
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MMR is an...
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attenuated vaccine
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Common cold is caused by:
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Rhinovirus
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Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
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EB virus
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Shingles are caused by:
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VZ virus
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Infantile diarrhea is caused by:
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Rotavirus
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Neonatal herpes is caused by:
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HSV-2
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German measles is caused by:
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Rubella virus
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Chickenpox is caused by:
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VZ virus
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Rabies are caused by:
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Rhabdovirus
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VEE is caused by:
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Arbovirus
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Mumps are caused by:
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Paramyxovirus
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Herpes viruses usually remain latent in which body site?
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Nerve ganglia
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True or False: RSV is a primary agent associated with genitourinary tract infections
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False
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