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123 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Rapid division and growth of cells, or panus in the _________ stage of RA causes the synovium to thicken.
Second
_________ arthritis strikes mostly women in their 30s-50s while ___________ arthritis is most commonly associated with aging.
Rheumatoid; Osteo
Key symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. Look for 4 or more in evaluation.
•Morning joint stiffness lasting at least 1 hour
•Arthritis of three or more joint areas
•Arthritis of the hand joints
•Symmetric arthritis
•Rheumatoid nodules
•Abnormal amounts of serum RF
•Radiographic changes
38 year old woman presents with pain, warmth, stiffness, redness and swelling around the joint (caused by swelling of the synovial lining). What stage of RA is she experiencing?
First stage
Rapid division and growth of cells, or panus in the _________ stage of RA causes the synovium to thicken.
Second
In the __________ stage of RA, the inflamed cells release enzymes that may digest bone and cartilage, often causing the involved joint to lose its shape and alignment, more pain, and loss of movement.
Third stage
A 53 year old woma with RA presents with ulner drift, severe pain and limited use of both hands. What stage is she experiencing?
Third stage
Sudden, transient alteration of brain function caused by an abrupt explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons
Seizure
3 common causes of seizures
Cerebral lesions
Biochemical disorders
Cerebral trauma
Lack of ________ during delivery can cause seizures in newborn.
Oxygen
Seizure diagnostic test
EEG
During a _________oxygen is consumed at a high rate and rapidly depleted, along with glucose, and lactate accumulates in brain tissue.
Seizure
During a _________ seizure, consciousness is not lost. Confusion or repetitive action may be present.
Partial
Seizures that involve an interruption to consciousness where the person experiencing the seizure seems to become vacant and unresponsive for a short period of time (usually up to 30 seconds). Slight muscle twitching may occur.
Absence seizures
Seizures involving the loss of muscle tone, causing the person to fall to the ground. These are sometimes called 'drop attacks'.
Atonic seizures
Seizures that involve an initial contraction of the muscles followed by rhythmic muscle contractions.
Tonic–clonic seizures
Seizures that involve an extremely brief (< 0.1 second) muscle contraction and can result in jerky movements of muscles or muscle groups.
Myoclonic seizures
Seizures that involve an extremely brief (< 0.1 second) muscle contraction and can result in jerky movements of muscles or muscle groups.
Myoclonic seizures
The telltale sensation experienced by some people before a seizure. It often manifests as the perception of a strange light, an unpleasant smell or confusing thoughts or experiences.
Aura
tonic seizure
FONT SIZE
AAA
a seizure characterized by a sustained increase in muscle tone, of abrupt or gradual onset and offset, lasting a few seconds to a minute, usually 10–20 seconds; tonic seizures affecting proximal muscles bilaterally frequently lead to the adoption of a posture.
Tonic seizure
Diagnosis of Alzheimer's dimentia is made by...
Ruling out other causes
Mechanisms leading to dementia include...
degeneration, compression, atherosclerosis, and trauma.
Assessment of dementia
Head CT
assess LOC
assess cause
Clinical manifestations of dementia
Forgetfulness, emotional upset, disorientation, confusion, lack of concentration, decline in abstraction, problem solving, and judgment
Dementia associated with plaques and tangles
Alzheimer's dementia
Mutations on these two genes are associated with Alzheimer's
14 and 21
Normal intracranial pressure
5 to 15 mm Hg
Caused by an increase in intracranial content from tumor growth, edema, excessive CSF, or hemorrhage
IICP
Clinical manifestations of this neurological disorder include: nClinical manifestations include decreasing levels of arousal or central neurogenic hyperventilation, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and pupils that become small and sluggish
IICP
Diagnosis of IICP
Cerebral blood flow
ICP monitoring
MRI or CT scan
Type of trauma that results when head strikes hard surface or a rapidly moving object strikes the head. The dura remains intact and brain tissues are not exposed to the environment
Closed trauma
Type of head trauma that causes focal (local) or diffuse (general) brain injuries
Closed trauma
Injury breaks the dura and exposes the cranial contents to the environment
Open trauma
Type of head trauma that causes primarily focal injuries
Open trauma
Brain injury directly below the point of impact
Coup injury
Brain injury on the pole opposite the site of impact
Contrecoup injury
What type of brain injury are contusions and hematomas?
Focal brain injury
Diagnostic test for head injury
CT w/o contrast
MRI
Diagnostic test used to differentiate head injury from stroke
CT w/o contrast
Symptoms of brain injury
IIP
LOC
Altered Neuro Exam
Hematoma between the skull and dura mater
Epidural hematoma
Hematoma between the dura mater and arachnoid mater
Subdural hematoma
Hematoma which forms within the brain
Intracerebral hematoma
Traumatic injury of vertebral and neural tissues as a result of compressing, pulling, or shearing forces
Spinal cord trauma
Most common location for spinal cord trauma
C1, C2, C4-C7, and T11-L2 lumbar vertebrae
Leading cause of spinal cord injury
Automobile/motorcycle accidents
A single break in a vertabra usually affecting transverse or spinous processes
Simple fracture
Vertebral body shattered into several fragments
Comminuted (burst) fracture
Vertebral body compressed anteriorly.
Compressed (wedged) vertebral fracture
Int the early phase of spinal cord injury, what makes it difficult to distinguish longterm loss of function from short term loss of function?
Spinal cord swelling
upon spinal cord injury, the entire _________ ______ is hemorrhagic and necrotic and edema in the ______ ________ occurs, impairing the microcirculation of the cord.
gray matter, white matter
The traumatized spinal cord is replaced by acellular collagenous tissue in __________. Meninges thicken as part of the scarring process.
3 to 4 weeks
Degenerating axons are engulfed by macrophages in the first _________ after spinal cord injury.
10 days
Phagocytes appear __________ hours after spinal cord injury, Red cells then begin to disintegrate, and resorption of hemorrhages begins.
36 to 48 hours
_________ and _________ most commonly produce occlusion, but _________ and _________ are the dominant underlying processes.
Cerebral thrombi and cerebral emboli;

atherosclerosis and hypotension
In __________ infarcts, the affected area becomes slightly discolored and softens 6 to 12 hours after the occlusion. Necrosis, swelling around the insult, and mushy disintegration appear by 48 to 72 hours after infarction.
ischemic
In ___________ infarcts, bleeding occurs into the infarcted area when blood flow is restored. The embolic fragments may be moved or lysed, or compressive forces may lessen, allowing blood flow to be reestablished.
hemorrhagic
_________ aneurysms occur frequently (in approximately 2% of the population) and probably result from congenital abnormalities
nSaccular (berry) aneurysms
_________ aneurysms occur as a result of diffuse arteriosclerotic changes and are found most commonly in the basilar arteries or terminal portions of the internal carotid arteries
Fusiform (giant) aneurysms
Intracranial aneurysms may result from...
arteriosclerosis, congenital abnormality, trauma, inflammation, and cocaine.
Intracranial aneurisms are typically as symptomatic, but can be diagnosed by...
History
CT scan
MRI.
 
Twenty percent of persons with ALS have a genetic mutation in ______________ on the glial cells surrounding the motor neuron.
copper-zinc superoxidase dismutase (SODI)
ALS diagnostic tests
Electromyography and muscle biopsy verify lower motor neuron degeneration and denervation.
Disease leading to progressive weakness leading to respiratory failure and death. Patient has normal intellectual and sensory function until death
ALS
results from a defect in nerve impulse transmission at the neuromuscular junction related to blocking and destruction of ___________ receptors by _________ antibodies.
Acetylcholine receptors; IgE antibodies
Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is made on the basis of a response to...
edrophonium chloride (Tensilon)
Major symptoms of myasthenia gravis
History of recurring upper respiratory tract infections.

Muscle fatigue and progressive weakness. The muscles of the eyes, face, mouth, throat, and neck usually are affected first.
Relatively rare, hereditary, degenerative disorder diffusely involving the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex.
Huntington's Disease
nThe onset of Huntington disease is usually between ____ and ___ years of age, when the trait may already have been passed to the person's children.
30 and 50
Genetic inheritance pattern of Tay- Sacs disease
Autosomal recessive
Huntington's disease is passed through ________ inheritance with high penetrance. The gene has been isolated and cloned on chromosome __.
autosomal dominant; chromosome 4
Risk factor for Tay-Sacs disease
Two parents of Askanazi Jewish heritage
Basal ganglia and nigral depletion of ______, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, is the principal biochemical alteration in Huntington disease.
GABA
Symptoms of Tay-Sacs disease
Seizures
Noticeable behavior changes, such as the infant stops smiling, crawling or rolling over and loses the ability to grasp or reach out
Increased startle reaction
Decreased eye contact
Listlessness
Increasing irritability
Slow body growth with increasing head size
Delayed mental and social skills
Feeding difficulties
Abnormal body tone
Loss of motor skills
Blindness
Deafness
Loss of intellectual skills
Symptoms of Huntington's disease
Abnormal movement (face, arms first then whole body) and progressive dysfunction of intellectual and thought processes (dementia).
Huntington's disease is diagnosed through...
Family history and clinical presentation of the disorder.
Diagnosis of Tay-Sacs disease
Cherry-red" spot in the back of the eyes
Blood test for Hex A activity
DNA testing of parents
Onset of symptoms in Tay Sachs
6 months
Vertebral defect that allows the protrusion of the neural tube contents
Spina bifida occulta
Certain cutaneous or subcutaneous abnormalities suggest underlying spina bifida, including
Abnormal growth of hair along the spine
A midline dimple with or without a sinus tract
A cutaneous angioma, usually of the “port wine” variety
A subcutaneous mass, usually representing a lipoma or dermoid cyst
It is recommended that all women of childbearing age take ________ to reduce incidence of neural tubal defects in offspring.
Follic acid
Inherited metabolic disorders involving defects in amino acid metabolism, including Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Encephalopathies
PKU is caused by phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency and is an _________ genetic disorder.
autosomal recessive
Inflammation of the brain in children associated with ingestion of aspirin or aspirin-containing products during illness and lead poisoning
Reye syndrome
Embryonal tumor originating in neural crest cells.
Nueroblastoma
Nueroblastoma has an ___________ pattern of inheritance
 
autosomal dominant
More than 90% of children with neuroblastoma have increased amounts of _________ and associated metabolites in their urine.
catecholamines
________ skull fractures include breaks in the posterior skull base or anterior skull base. Cary increased risk of vascular and nerve damage.
Basilar
Fracture type where bone protrudes through skin
˜Open:  (Compound)
Fracture type with no tear in skin
Closed: (Simple)
˜Temporary displacement of two bones, loss of contact between articular cartilage
Dislocation
Contact between articular surfaces is only partially lost
Subluxation
Fracture assessments
˜Pain: continuous causing immobilization
˜Loss of function
˜Deformity: arm or leg is compared to the uninsured one
˜Shortening
˜Crepitus
˜Swelling and discoloration
Population at highest risk for hip fracture
elderly
Fracture complication r/t hip repair surgery
DVT leading to PE
˜Loss of blood from bone can cause...
Shock
Bone fracture can cause fat emboli. What is sign of fat emboli?
Pettichii
Delayed union after a fracture Janice common in what population?
Elderly
˜term of when fracture heals but not in good position.
Malunion
˜Fracture of the pelvis is a medical emergency and can cause...
Intraabdominal injury to organs
˜Paralytic ileus
˜Hemorrhage
˜Laceration of urethra, bladder or colon
˜Tear or injury to a tendon
Strain
Complete separation of a tendon or ligament from its bony attachment site
Avulsion
Tear or injury to a ligament
Sprain
How are strains and sprains treated in the acute phase?
˜RICE: Rest, Ice, Compression and Elevation
Signs of dislocation
pain, changing contour of joint, change in length, loss of mobility
Diagnostic test to confirm dislocation
˜X-ray
Common bone disease in which bone becomes more thin and porous.
Osteoporosis
˜The underlying mechanism in all cases of osteoporosis is an imbalance between ________ and _________.
bone resorption and bone formation
Symptoms of osteoporosis
˜Fractures of the vertebrae, wrists or hips
˜Low back pain
˜Neck pain
˜Bone pain or tenderness
˜Loss of height over time
˜Stooped posture
Osteoporosis is diagnosed with a _________ scan, whic measures ___________.
DEXA; bone mineral density
Metabolic bone disease characterized by excessive breakdown of bone tissue, followed by abnormal bone formation
˜Paget's disease
Symptoms of Paget's disease...
˜Bone pain (may be severe and persistent)
˜Joint pain or joint stiffness
˜Headache
˜Bowing of the legs
˜Warmth of skin overlying affected bone
˜Fracture
˜Neck pain
˜Reduced height
˜Hearing loss
Piaget disease typically occurs in ______ over the age of ___
Men over the age of 40
Diagnostic tests for Piaget's disease
˜Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase
˜Elevated markers of bone breakdown (for instance, N-telopeptide)
˜Serum calcium
˜Infection of bone by vascular ulcer, bone surgery, blood borne from other sites
Osteomylitis
Symptoms of osteomylitis
Sudden onset, client has fever, chills, pain, swelling
Bacteria most often responsible for osteomyllitis
Staph aureus
__________ and _________ increase risk of osteomylitis.
Diabetes and arteriovascular disease
Assessment Osteomyelitis
˜Physical exam and area swollen red warm to touch
˜X-ray shows soft tissue swelling
˜Bone scan shows increased uptake
˜Blood cultures positive increased WBC
˜Wound culture positive
˜Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
˜Complete blood cell count (CBC) w/differential
˜C-reactive protein (CRP)
˜Radiography, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
˜Bone biopsy and culture
˜Thoracic spine in convex posteriorly
kyphosis
Lumbar spine is convex anteriorly.
lordosis
Rotational curvature of the spine
Scoliosis
Symptoms of scoliosis
Uneven shoulders
˜Prominent shoulder blade or shoulder blades
˜Uneven waist
˜One hip elevated as compared to the opposite side
˜Leaning to one side