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248 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

describe the three layers of arteries and veins

artieries: tunica intima (innermost endothelium, physical barrier between blood and the vessel)



turnica media (smooth muscle , separated from other layers by elastic tissue, stretches during systole and recoils during diastole. this is the thickest layer



turnica adventia (contains nourishing blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves



veins: consist of endothelium covered by fibrous tissue


what are the 6 functions of the endothelium?

a barrier to trnasfer of large molecules into the intersitial space



produces heparin, thrombomodulin, and plasminogen activators to keep blood from clotting as it slows



releases NO and prostacyclin into circulatino to relax vessel



produces natriuetic hormone for volume control. does this by increasing urine sodium excretion



modulates size of vessel



releases chemockines for immune cells

what are the functions of the tunica media? (4)

its the thickest layer



composed of smooth muscle



seperated from other layers by elastic fibers which stretch during systole and recoil during diasotle to propel blood forward



controls the diameter of the vessels by contracting or relaxing depending on the situation

the sum of the resistance of all the peripheral vaculature in teh systemic circulation

peripheral vascular resistance

__, __, and __ all affect peripheral vacular resistance

blood pressure, blood flow patterns, and blood volume

refers to low pressure reservoirs of blood in the venules

capacitance

describes the sluggish flow of blood at the walls of the vessel but the smooth flow of blood in teh middle of teh vessel; the speed of blood going through the vessels is highest in teh middle (less resistance)

laminar flow

describe how poiseullies law works

Poiseulle’s Law postulates that resistance is inversely proportional to the radius of the vessel.



 The smaller the diameter, the greater the resistance.



 The larger the diameter, the less resistance.



 In addition, vessels that are long have more resistance than several vessels in parallel (traffic flow on one highway versus several parallel highways)

how do baroreceptors regulate blood pressure through the sympathetic nervous system?

Baroreceptors sense a change in tension in teh aortic arch



if tension is low epinephrine is released to increase HR and NE is released to constrict arterioles



if tension is high, the vagus nerve is stiumated through PNS to slow the HR and relax the blood vessels

explain how hormones regulates blood pressure

ADH prevents the loss of fluid through the kidney (retains water)



aldosterone retains Na to retain water



explain the renin-angiotensisn system

low renal artery pressure, Na, or K stimulates renin to be secreted renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II which is used for fluid retention

explain how turbulence affects blood flow

obrstuctions/digvergent paths create turbulence



causes an increase in resistance in teh vessels and an increased clotting risk

what is shock?

an inadequate supply of O2 or nutrients to tissues

what are three of the main causes of shock?

inadequate tissue perfusion



maldistribution of CO (cause of cardiogenic shock)



maldistribution through teh microcirculation (as blood flow ceases/slows in "communistic organs (all but heart and brain) blood clots aggregate in tissues), clotting leads to cellular ischemia along with lack of venous return)

hemorrhagic shock is a form of __

hypovolemic shock

___ is the most common form of shock and teh easiest to treat

hypovolemic shock

__ shock can be caused by internal bleeding, external bleeding, GI tract losses through vomitting/diarrhea, obstretical loss (following delivery), loss of interstitail space after major surgery/trauma, loses of large volumes of urine (diabetes)

hypovolemic shock

category of shock that is characterized by <15% blood/fluid loss o This occurs with blood donation o Generally well-tolerated o Treated with: oral rehydration (+ food) and occasional/judicious use of IV fluids (for those feeling faint after blood donations)

class I

category of shock that is characterized by 15-30% volume loss o Signs and symptoms: tachycardia, anxiety, lowered urine output, thirst  Increased HR is necessary to maintain CO (HRxSV)  The kidneys retain water to maintain BP  Increased thirst is signaling from the pituitary gland to maintain BP

class II

how do you treat class II shock?

IV cystalloids, control of hypotension to maintain MAP of 50-60 mmHg

category of shock that is characterized by 30-40% blood loss o Signs and symptoms: decreased BP, tachycardia, minimal urine output, confusion (due to reduced brain perfusion) o At this point, patient is unable to compensate for loss  The compensation by the body (based on SNS - increased HR and decreased urine output) seen in class II help to maintain BP is failing at this point (in class III)  Failure of compensation is indicated by a drop in BP o Treatment: control of bleeding, blood transfusion

class III

category of shock that is characterized by >40% blood loss o Rapidly fatal condition o Signs and symptoms: profound hypotension, cool extremities (blood diverted), minimal to no urine output, minimally responsive to stimuli

class IV

what are the three cases in which death occurs from class IV shock?

Exsanguination: extensive blood loss; ongoing bleeding that leads to death (“bleeding out”). Occurs within minutes (usually depicted by person dying in a “pool” of blood)  Progessive decompensation: occurs after a few hours (patients try to maintain BP, but it is at the expense of the heart, which can’t maintain very high BP for a long time, depriving the kidneys and other vital organs of blood, leading to organ damage)  Sepsis and organ failure: occurs within a few days to a week (patient’s immune system is depressed, organs are damaged by ischemia and liquefactive and coagulative necrosis occur – involves bacterial invasion)

explain the pathophysiologic basis for tachycardia during shock

cardiac output=stroke volume x heart rate



as stroke volume decreases HR must go up to maintian CO



explain the pathophysiologic basis for low urine output during shock

kidneys are a communist organ and divert blood to the capialist organs (brain and heart), try to increase their own bloodflow by incresing renin/aldosterone and ADH which reduces urine output

explain the pathophysiologic basis for anxiety and confusion during shock

due to reduced cerebral blood flow

explain the pathophysiologic basis for thirst during shock

reduced blood/fluid volume causes dehydration

describe how blood is diverted from or to organs of communist or capitalist nature

when blood loss occurs organs deemed unnecessary for survival divert their blood to those deemed necessary for immediate survival (the heart and brain. this is done by increasing PVR by vasoconstirction by the ysmpthteitc nervous system, aldosterone, renin, and ADH

what are three sites that can be sites of blood loss which aren't easy to identify

chest, pelvis, abdomen

how are the lungs affected by prolonged sympathetic stimulation

first and most common organ to fail, is a communist organ meaning it vasconstircts its blood vessels making it different to get nourishment from blood

how are the kidneys affected by prolonged sympathetic stimulation

decreased perfusion of nutrient blood to the kidney and decreased glomerluar filtration through the reanl artery. kidney faliure results

how are the GI tract affected by prolonged sympathetic stimulation

early and common complication, GI tract is not well perfused in states of shock

how can organs be injured from clots and ischemia during shock?

clotting causes obstruction leading to decreaesd tissue perfusion resulting in:


metabolic acidosis, decreased myocardial contraction, cell hypoxia causing intracellular fluid loss causing venous return to decrease and decreases CO


decreases CO decreases BP and tissue perfusion


myarcardial function is reudced as a result of BP decreasing leading to reduced coronary perfusion

explain the pathogensis of atherosclerosis

blood flow is normally laminar and smooth promoting NO release. NO vasodilates in a postive feedback loop to increase blood flow. laminar flow is interrupted when the blood flow has to change direction (like at a junction). when this happens the endolemium is dammaged and turbulent flow occurs



WBC's leak into the area of the damaged bloood vessels causing inflammatin of the tissue without antigoagulatnt and vasodilation properties leading to a clot forming.



lipoproteins combine with proteglycans which attracts monocytes which become foam cells after they eat them and promote inflammation.



foam cells accumulate in teh subendothelial layer to become fatty streaks. smooth muscle cells migrate the the intimal level



fibrotic plaques are formed restircting blood flow and laminar flow

explain the complications that arise from atheroscelerosis

calcification of fibrotic plaques make the vessel rigid. this can increase chance of aneurism. plaque can rupture promoting an inflammatory response which can cause a clot. this can lead to and infarct.

what is the mian modifiable risk factor for athersclerosis?

lipids/cholesterol

what are 11 modifable risk factors for atherosclerosis

serum cholesterol: risk is 2x more likely if cholesterol is 240 mg/dl (200 is normal)



LDL: high LDL increases risk



HDL: low levels increase risk



cigarette smoking: after 3 years decreases risk to that of a nonsmoker



hypertension: causes injury to epithelium



diabetic contro: causes imparied endothelilal functions



obesity



inactivity: exercise produces NO



estorgen



elevated homocysteine: AA that promotes thrombisis



elevated c reactive protein: marker of inflammation

what three things decrease peripheral resistance?

kinins, prostaglandins, NO

what two things increase peripheral resistance?

angiotensin 2 and catecholamines

the innermost layer of blood vessels

tunica intima

the middle layer of the blood vessels

tunica media

the outermost layer of blood vessels

tunica adventica

the part of the blood vessel that produces heparin

tunica intima

part of the blood vessels that constrict or relax to change diameter

tunica media

the part of the blood vessel that produces collagen

tunica media

part of the blood vessel that releases NO

tunica intima

how does resistance of teh blood vessel control blood pressure?

precapillary sphincters reduce teh amount of blood reaching teh capillary



repeated distension with systole is followed by contraction to propel blood forward



__ states that pressure is inveresly proportional to the diameter of a vessel

poiseuilles law

what two ways to veins return blood to the right side of teh heart?

1-way valves



muscle compression pumps

traffic flow in the middle lanes is a good explanation of __

laminar flow

massive vasodilation from an allergic reaction is an example of __ shock

anaphylactic

postpartum hemmorhage is an exampl eof __ shock

hemorrhagic shock

the loss of a large quantity of diarrhea cuases __ shock

hypvolemic

bleeding into the intestines from a ruptured peptic ulcer causes __ shock

hemorrhagic

heart failure with ejection fractin of 10% causes __ shock

cardiogenic

how does the structure of the heart muscle different from skeletal?

design is branched, not long, has intracellular communication, and lots of mitochondria

coronary arteries fill during __

diastole

why do some older people who have heart attacks not even know it?

collaterals have develop

how does frank stalkings law affect cardiac performance?

stretch (to a point) improves contraction

the initial stretch prior to contraction from passive atrial filling

preload

the force that the heart must work against to open the aortic semilunar valve. measured as BP

afterload

__ law states that the amount of tension generated in teh wall of teh ventricle is inversely related to wall thickness

laplaces law

what is the normal mean electrical axis?

0-90

severe obesity, and a mean electircal axis of less than 0 degrees causes a __ shift in the mean electrical axis

left axis deviation

a MEA of greater than 90 degrees, COPD, and being a child or a tall person can lead to __

right axis deviation

explain the 4 stages of an EKG

phase 4: resting, Ca enters cells, baseline of EKG



Phase 0: rapid deplarization, fast Na channels open, QRS wave



phase 1: closer of fast Na channels



Phase 2: movement of K outward, ST segment



Phase 3: K leaves, T wave

class __ agents interfere with the Na channels

class 1

class __ agens are anti-sympathetics agents. all agents in this class are beta blockers

class 2

class __ agents affect K+ influx

class 3

class __ agents affect the AV node

IV

class __ agents work by other or unknown mechansims

V

describe normal conduction

begins in sinus node, speads to atria (AV node), passes down purkinje system, wraps back up to ventricles

what is the normal rate of teh sinus node?

50-100

on an EKG, what does each small box and large box count for

.04 s and .2 sec

the part of the EKG, marks the atrial contraction, due to small muscle mass of the atria and is wide due to the time it takes for teh impulse to move from right to left

P wave

the part of the EKG that represents the time to collect message from the atria

P-R interval

part of the EKG representing ventricular contraction. its large due to the size of ventricle. its narrow due to the speed of contraction

QRS wave

the part of the EKG that should be flat between teh S and T wave.

ST segement

part of teh EKG that represents repolarization, must occur in order for teh next wave to occur

T wave

what are the characteristics of a sinus rhytherm?

rate 60-100



PR interval 3-5 small boxses

the normal PR interval should be less than __

.2 seconds

the normal QRS interval should be less than __ s

.12

the normal QT interval should be less than __ s

.4

what are the charactersitics of sinus bradycardia

rate less than 60 bpm



each has a P wave and each P wave looks the same

what is the charactersistics of sinus tachycardia?

rate over 100 bpm

with atrial dysfunctions you see a change in teh __

p wave

this kind of dysrhythmia shows uneven, someimte missed p waves

atrial fibrillation

dysrthmia that gives you a "saw toothed" appearnce on an EKG

atrial flutter

caused by the sinus node not firing and teh junction taking over teh role as pace maker. it has an intrinsic rate of 40-60, there is no p wave evident propr to QRS. CO is impaired due to loss of atria kick

junctional rhythms

caused by diorderes of the atria (changes in p waves), most time atrial rhythm is fast and blocked by the junction



due to abnormal flow of blood in atria there is a risk of clots forming on teh atrial walls

atrial dysrhythmias

dysryhtmia where there is no P wave

idojunctional ryhtem

dyrythemia where the PR interval is greater than .2 seconds

1st degree AV block

dysrythmia where there is a longer delay in teh AV node where teh QRS is dropped. this requires a pacemaker.

second degree heart block

where the rhythem begins in teh ventricles due to failure of teh atira and junction to fire. this has a rate of <40 bpm. this has poor cardiac output due to slow rate and no ventricular filling if beat originates high int eh ventricle. often life treatenting

ventricular rhythems

when the EKG seems to go backwards and the rate is incredibly slow

idoventricular rhythm

what three things does mycardial demand depend on?

ventricular wall stress, heart rate, contractility

what two things does myocardial supply depend on?

O2 carrying capacity of blood, rate of coronary blood flow

a mismatch between myocardial supply and demand. possibly also caused by decreased perfusion to the coronoaires, severe loss of blood, too much demand of the heart

myocardial ischemia

caused when plaque obstructs 70


5 of lumen flow, may be able to meet resting needs but not active needs. lack of functional endothelium leads to contracted vessels, during teh physical exertion, increased demand cannot be met

stable angina

caused by a partially occlusive thrombus. the EKG shows no ST segment elevation. there are no elevations of troponin. it presents with a crescendo pattern of chest pain, angina at rest, and a new onset of severe angina

unstable angina

caused by a spasm of epicardial artery. due to stressors like inflammation and infection. commonly seen with chronic stable angina

prinzmetals angina

>90% are due to disruption of a plaque with aggregation of platelets and formation of a thrombus. rupture caused by inflammatory cytokinds and stress from pressures. leads to necrosis of myocardium. the ST segment is elevated on the EKG. damaged endothelium starts clotting mechanisms. severe imbalance between supply and demand of the myocardium

acute coronary syndrome

resembles angina but more sever, lasts longer and may radiate. you may feel impending doom, does not improve with rest, has diaphoresis, cool skin, and clammy skin.

acute coronary syndrome

the __ is the innermost layer of myocardium that is particularly susceptible to ischemia (few collateral vessles)

subendocardial

a level of injury that encompasses the entire thickness of myocardium

transmural

what happens during myocardial ischemia?

O2 levels fall cuasing anaerobic metabolism to occur (2 min)



ATP pump fails causing Na and Ca to accumulate in the cell (20 min)



edema of myocardium (4-12 hours)



coagulative necrosis (18-24 hours)


myoglobin rises 1-4 hours after


troponin rises 3-4 hours after


CK-MB rises 3-8 hours after

what are 4 complicatoins of an MI?

decreased contractility, electrical instability, tissue necrosis, and pericardial inflammation

what are three treatments for MI?

stop clotting



stop ischemia



improve myocardial O2

the __ is a two layered sac that encircles the heart

pericardium

viruses like coxsackie, influenza, measales, mumps, mononucleuosis, TB, and pyrogenic bacteria are all __ causes of pericarditis

infectious

post MI, uremia, cancer, radiation side effections, autoimmune diseases, and drug side effects are all causes of __ pericarditis

noninfectious

what is the pathophysiology of pericarditis?

collection of fluid in teh percaridal space (vasodilation)


chest pain that worsens in a supine position, fever, sinus tachycardia, and friction rub over the cardiac apex and sternal border is indicitive of what?

pericarditis

a collection of fluid or blood in the pericardium

pericardial effusion/tamponade

the pericardium can stretch with __

slow accumulations

the pericardiumc annot stretch with __ of over __

rapid accumulations, 50-100 ml

if pressure in the pericardium equals __, the heart will not be able to pump

diastolic pressure

pulsus paradoxus (BP of 10 mmHG lower during inspiration indicating impaired diastolic filling), distant or muffled heart sounds, poorly palpable apical pulse, dyspnea on exertion, and dull chest pain is indicitive of what?

pericardial effusion/tamponade

a group of diseases due to toxic or structural problems in the myocardium

cardiomyopathy

ischemia, hypertension, infections, toxins, connective tissue disease, inflitrative diseases, and nutritional diseases are all common causes of __

cardiomyopathy

what are teh three kinds of cardiomyopahty?

dilated (heart dilates with heart failure)



hypertrophic



restrictive

kind of cardiomyopathy where ventricualr dilation and grossly reduced systolic function are seen. caueses are alcohol abuse (most common), post infections response, geneitc cuases, and toxic reposne to chemo.

dilated cardiomyopathy

what is the most common cause of cardiomyopathy?

alcohol abuse

the clinical signs of __ are dyspnea and fatigue, lung congestion, systemic and pulmonary emboli, elevated BP, and cardiac murmurs

dilated cardiomyopathy

what is the hallmark of hypertorphic cardiomyopthay?

a wide septum

hypertorphic cardiomyopahty is a __ disease. it has variable penetrance and expression and is caused by abnormal genes for sarcomere proteins

autosomal dominant

what does the wide septum in hypertorpic cardiomyopahty cause?

hyperdynamic state (increased myocardial contractility and EF)

what happens to people with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy as their septum continues to enlarge?

outflow from teh LV is impaired causing sudden cardiac death in preadolescent and adolescent kids

a person presenting with angina, dysrthmia (due to an impaired pathway running through teh septum), syncope, palpitations, and left sided heart failrue has teh clinical signs of __

hypertorphic cardiomyopahty

happens when the myocardium is inflitrated with materials that stiffen the muscle. the heart is unable to stretch and has reduced filling pressures and output.

restrictive cardiomyopathy

what are three causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

amyloidosis (proteins build up in the heart, making it stiff)



hemochromatosis (build up of iron)



sarcodiosis (glycogen storage disesase)

Patients with this disease often present at an advanced stage of disease with pronounced cardiopulmonary symptoms. • The patient's history may reveal the following: – Angina – Dyspnea, orthopnea, or dyspnea on exertion – Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea – Peripheral edema – Abdominal discomfort, liver tenderness – Increased abdominal girth, ascites • Physical Findings – Elevated jugular venous pulse, Kussmaul sign – y descent blunted relative to x – S3 and/or S4 – Occasional mitral or tricuspid regurgitation murmur – Distant heart sounds – Pulmonary rales – Peripheral edema – Pulsus paradoxus • Disappears as the restrictive process progresses

restrictive cardiomyopathy

an infecition of the endocardium, commonly from strep or staph

infectious endocarditis

valvular heart disease, prostetic valves, conential proglems that create turbulent flow, and IV durg use/long term catheters all are risk factors for __

infective endocarditis

what is the pathogenesis of infective endocarditsi?

endothelial damage exposes endocardium tissues, create injury response and attracts WBC's to form thrombus



microorganisms attach to thrombus and enters injured endocardium



bacteria prolifersate in thrombus

what are the valves on the R side of the heart?

tricuspoid and pulmonary

what are teh valves on teh L side of the heart?

mitral and aortic

what happens to valves during diastole?

tricuspid and mitral valves open to fill venticles

what happens to vales during systole?

pulmonary and aortic valves open to send blood forward

a valular disease where the valve does not completely open. forward flow is impeded, the chamber behind dilates, fails, and hypertorphys

stenosis

valvular disease also known as insufficiency or icomeptence. the vale fails to close. teh chamber behind hypertorphies due to increase workload

regurgitation

valvular disease caused when the cusps of a vlave billow during sysotle. some are normal and asymptomatic

prolapse

__ valve prolaspe may be autosomal dominant

mitral valve

what are three causes of valve disease?

bacterial endocarditis (produce vegetations on the heart)



acute rheumatic fever (caused by strep infecition)



heart failure (stretches space between valves

the mortality rate of congentical heart deffects is __ in teh first year of life

35%

what are four classifications of congentical heart defects?

increased pulmonary blood flow (L-R shunt)



obstruction of blood flow from ventricles



decreased pulmonary blood flow (R-L shunt)



mixed blood flow

what are thee important chagnes in teh embryonic heart that are different from the adult heart?

ductus venosus allows blood to bipass liver



foramen ovale allows blood to be shunted from the R atrium to the L atrium



ductus arteriosus allows blood to bipass the lungs

what are the 4 problesm in tetrology of fallot?

large ventricular septal defect



pulmonary stensosis



overrriding aorta



hypertrophic R ventricle

difficultly feeding, faliure to gain weight, and cyanosis are signs of __

tetrology of fallot

what is a common manifestion of the tetrology of fallot when infants are agitated and have very severe cyanosis?

TET spell

a kind of mixed bloodflow congenital heart deffect characterized by an underdeveloped L heart. there is a hypoplastic ascending aorta and a hypoplastic L ventricle

hypoplastic L heart

a congential heart defect characerized by L-R shunting of blood in the heart. this enlagrges the R atrium and ventricle.

atrial septal defect

a congential heart defect where there is a narrowing at, before, or after the ductus arteriosos. it is more serious if the coarctation is before the ductus arteriosus.

coartaction of the aorta

what are 5 common effects of congenital heart disease?

murmurs



dysfunction of "normal" cardiac vacularture



hematologic problems



increased risk of CHF



failure to thrive

the ability of the heart to sponstaneously depolarize iteslf to a threshold voltage

automaticity

what are the specialeized pacemaker cells of the heart?

SA node



AV node



ventricular conduction system

explain teh path of conduction in the heart

begins at SA node with rate of 60-100 bpm, causes atria to depolarize



pauses at junction to gather impulses from atria



rapidly spreads through the ventricle down bundle branchs and up purkinje fibers in teh ventricles rapidly depolarizing the ventricles

what is the pacemakers of the heart?

the SA node

what doe the AV node and bundle of his beat at intrinsically?

50-60

what does the purkinje system in the ventricles beat at intrisnically?

30-40

the ion leak for the SA node cells peaks at phae __

4

explain ion changes in SA node cells during phase 4

Na leaks in by slow channels



fast Na, Ca and K channels open.

the wave of teh EKG where teh Na/K pump is replacing ions, must have this to be able to fire again

T wave

what kind of dysrhythmias are caused by altered impulse formation?

escape rhythms



ectopic beats

what kind of dysryhthmias are caused by altered impulse conduction?

blocks



re-entry

what can cause altered impuse formation and a change in SA node firing?

neurohormone factors from SNS or PNS

a kind of altered impulse formation where the characteristics of a sinus rhythm are the same but the rate is slower. this can lead to syncope due to low outputs but can be normal in athletes

sinus bradycarida

a kind of altered impulse formation where it has the characteristics of a normal sinus rhythem but the rate is greater than 100 bpm. this can lead to myocardial ischemia due to O2 demands

sinus tachycardia

a kind of altered impulse formation where the SA node is suppressed from vagal stimulation. the pacemaker cell shifts to other atrial cells to prevent bradycardia. after teh 2n beat of sinus orgin, the T wave is dormored by an atrial escape beat.

escape rhythems

a dysrhythmia caused by the atrial cells firing early where depolarization is the same but the P wave has a different configuration. the SA node resumes the pacer function after a compensatory pause

premature atrial contraction

a dysrhythmia that occurs when latent pacer cells develop and intrinsic rate that is faster than the SA node. the SNS stimulation increases automaticity of latent pacer cells.

an ectopic beat

how does cardiac tissue injury lead to increased automacticity in cells outside of teh conduction system?

ischemia of cells makes their membrane more leaky and prone to firing.

when an impulse is blocked when it reaches an area that cannot depolarize b/c its either still not repolarized from its last beat, ischemic, or fibrotic/scarred from prior injury. it may lead to escape beats when an area beyond teh block has to assume pacer funciton

conduction blocks

a conduction block characterized by a slowed conduction through the AV node (greater than .2 s)

1st degree heart block

__ degree heart block is caused by digitalis and other antidyrhthmetics, infectous diseases like lyme disease, or in well trained athleres with lots of vagal tone)

1st

conduction block caused by a progressive lengthening of PR interval until a QRS is dropped.

2nd degree (mobitz 1 or wenckeback)

kind of conduction block where conduction fails intermittently in teh bundle of his-pukinje. the impulse arrives during the absolue refractory period resulting in teh absence of conduction and no QRS. caused by actue inferior wall myocardial infarction, myocarditis, rheumatic fever, digitalis, beta blockers, Ca channel blockers, or excessive vagal tone

second degree heart block (mobitz II)

conduction block where there is atrial ventricular dissociation. atiral depolarization is completely blocked at teh AV node, normal atrial conraction is present but not coordinated with venticles. it presents as severe fatigue due to very limited cardiac output

3rd degree heart block

a rhythm that becomes self sustaining and repeatedly depolarizes the same tissue. these are very dangerous b/c of decreased cardiac output, risk of clotting.

reentry

what are four kinds of reentry dysrhtmias?

atrial fibrillation, atiral flutter, ventricular tachycardia, venticular fibrillation

is a chaotic atrial contraction (300-600 bpm) from reentry of impulses. it is blocked by the junction b/c it hasn't repolarized. there are little discernable P waves, the rhythm is irregularly irregular. common in patients with enlarged atria. blood clots are a high risk b/c of quickering atria leads to stagnent blood

atrial fibrillation

a rapid atrial contraction from the same pacer cell (but not the SA node) with a rate of 300-600 bpm. wave look saw toothed. atrial contraction is blocked by the AV node. ventricular contraction is failry regular.

atrial flutter

a rapid rhythm form teh ventricular pacer cells. there is not cardiac output. can quickly detriorate into V fib

ventricular tachycardia

a disordered rhythm of ventricular pacers. there is no cardiac output. will deteriorate into a fine fibrillation and asysotle. more difficult to shock

ventricular fibrillation

patients with CHF usually have a __ year mortality

5

coronary artery disease, hypertension, valvualr heart disease, congential heart disease, cardiomyopathy, and infectious endocarditis are all causes of __

heart failure

all changes in heart failure are due to __

decreased cardiac output

how does the heart change during heart failure?

decreased SV due to:



decreased systolic function (loss of contractility)



decreased diasolic function (L ventricle becomes stiffer)



high ventriculr end-diastolic volumes in attempt to use frank starling law to increase SV. myocardium hypertorphies and needs more fuel

what neurohumoral changes occur due to heart failures?

activation of SNS by baroreceptors



activation of renin angiotensin system due to low pressure in renal A



these produce arteriolar vasocontriction to maintain BP and venous vassocontriction to increase return. increases preload and edema

describe teh pathogenesis of heart failure

ventricular failure leads to decreased CO and decreased arterial pressure.



increased SNS, angiotensin II, aldosterone, and vasopressin all increased systemic resistance and decreasing CO.



aldosterone and sngiotensin 2 increases blood volume and venous tone causing pulmonary edema and increasing venous return

early remodeling leads to early adaptation in heart failure due to __ and __

increased stroke volume, decreased wall stress

later remoddling leadys to problems in heart failure due to __, __, __, and __

increased O2 demands, myocardial ischemia, impaired contraction, dysrhthmias

caused by a decreased in endogenous vasodilators (NO, prostaglandins, and ANP), an increased in vasocontrictors which produces increased preload and afterload, more remodeling, and fluid accumulation

decompensated heart failure

a heart failure caused by elevated systemic aterial pressure leading to hypertophy of teh LV and pulmonary edema



increased pulmonary pressures increase workload on teh right sid eof teh heart



elevated systemic venous pressure leads to edema in teh periphery and elevated R sided pressures.

backward failure

kind of heart fialure where there is a dilated LV with impaired contractility

systolic heart failrure

kind of heart failure with a normal LV with impaired ability to relax adn recieve blood and eject blood

diastolic

both systolic and diastolic heart filaure result in __

decreased SV, activation of baroreflexes and chemoreflexes which promotes LV hypertrophy

desceibe teh 4 classifications of heart failure

class I: no limitations, ordinary physical activity doesn't cause undue fatigue, dysnpea, or palpitations



class II: slight limitations of physical activity, comfortable at rest. ordinary Pa results in fatigue, palpitaions, dysnpea, or angina



class III: marked limitation of pa, pts comfortable at rest but less than ordinary activity leads to fatigue, dysnpea, palpitations, or angina



class IV: symptomatic at rest. discomfort increases with any pa

__ is more common in CHF pts which increases risk of death by 30-60%

anemia

atrial fib, ventricualr fib/tachycardia, acute prerenal renal failure, mitral regurgitation, cardiac cachexia, venous stasis and ulcers, and pulmonary edema are all compications of __

heart failure

what are 5 common causes of pulmonary edema

altered capillary permeability, increaed pulmonary capillary pressure, decreased oncotic pressure, lymphatic insufficiency, and a large negative pleural pressure iwth increased end expriatory volume

an unintentional nonedematous severe weight loss. a 7.5% loss of premorbid weight over >6 months. caused by portal hypertension.

cardiac cachexia

where are the stem cells for blood cells found?

bone marrow

what hormone inlfuiences RBC formation?

erythopoietin

how much time is required for erythropoietin to produec RBCs?

5 days

__ signals produce WBC's

inflammatory

__ signals produce platelets

bleeding

what 3 things does blood consist of?

RBC, WBC, platelets

what are the two kinds of WBC?

granular (netrophils, basophils, eosinophils)



agranular (lymphocytes, monocytes)

what does plasma consist of?

plasma proteins and serum

what are the three plasma proteins?

albumin, globulins, fibrinogen (clotting proetins)

what is the general pathway fo cell development for blood cells?

stem cells, progenitor cells (blast cells), differentiate in hematopoietc organs, become mature cells

RBC's have a __ production and a __ life span

continuous, 120 day

where is bone marrow in adults, children, and neonates?

adults: vetebrae, ribs, sternum, skull, proximal epiphyses



children : all bones



neonates: all bones, spleen, liver, lymph nodes

where is most iron used in the body?

Hgb

where is most iron absorbed in teh body?

duodenum and proximal jejunum

iron from __ is easier to absorb than __

meat, veggies

what are the three categoreis of anemia?

macrocytic (megaloblastic)



microcytic



normocytic

kind of anemia where RBC are large and contain a lot of HgB, usually due to impaired synthesis

macrocytic anemia

kind of anemia where RBC's are small and have low volume. usually due to lack of building materials (iron, folate, vitamin B12)

microcytic

kind of anemia where RBC's look normal, usually from loss of volume

normocytic

is necessary for all cellular DNA synthesis including RBC's. can cause microcytic anemia

vitamin B 12

what is the bodies response to anemia?

etiology, decrease in RBC's and hemoglobin, decreased in O2 carrying capcity, tissue hypoxia, compensatory mechanicsms (increase in erythropoietin, stroke volume, renin/aldosterone, DPG)

normal digestion of cobalamin (B 12) needs __ to be absorbed or metabolized

IF

an anemia caused by inpaied absorptin of vitamin B 12. could be due to a lack of intrinsic factor by partietal cells in teh stomach.

pernicious

dietary lack of B12, stomach, small bowel, and pancrease disorders, bacterial overgrowth in interstine, strict vegetarian diets, breast fed children of vegetarians, and classic prenicous snemia due to failure of intrenic factor production are all cuases of __

cobalamin deficinecy ( B 12)

pernicious anemia is probably an __ disease

autoimmune

very similar to pernicous anemia, absorpiton is impared inteh jejunum.

folate deficiency anemia

folate is needed for __

RBC production

pernicious anemia may be present in individuals with __ infections

H pylori

pts with weigh tloss of 10-15 lbs, lab value changes of Hct>20% well tolerated but <20% HR increases and angina, smoth tongue wihout papillae, changes in BM/urine and CNS chagnes may have __

pernicous anemia

inadequate intake of folate (green vegetables), pregancy, drugs that impair folate absorption (anticonvulsants, sulfadiazine), drugs that impair metabolism (ehtanol, triamterene), and diseases of teh jejunum are causes of __

folate deficiencs

anemia caused by lack of substrate (esepcailly Fe for Hgb). common forms are iron deficiency, thalassemia (improper Hgb formation), and anemia of chronic illness

microcytic anemias

caused by decreased iron intake, decreased iron abosrbtion, and increased iron loss

iron deficiency anemia

what is teh pathogensis of anemia of chonic disease?

there is a distrubance in iron metaboism, RBC survival is shortened, ther eis impaired production on bone marrow

a failure to make RBC's. can be caused by exposure to toxic substances to bone marrow, side effecst of meds, or from viral infectiosn or pregnancy

aplastic anemia

inherited disorder caused by a mutant sickle cell hemoglobin. highest risk groups are western affricans

sickle cell disease

how does sickle cell disease work?

Hemoglobin becomes sickle shapped and inflexibly and deoxygenated.

sickle cell anemia is an __ disease

autosomal recessive

what are teh outcomes of sickle cell disease?

sickled cells beocme sticky and lead to clots. thy obstruct microcirculation leading to hypoxia and can damage RBCs

the premature destruction fo RBC's. can be aquired or hereditary

hemolytic anemia

__'s clinical presentation is 5-15 min after a transfusion. you see anaphlaxis, bleeding at teh surgical site, falling BP, golden urine

hemolytic anemia

what is the normal reaction to hemorrhage?

vasconstiction, platelet adhsion/aggregation, fibrin formation and stabilization, clot dissolving

a loss of balance between teh clot promoting and lysing systems. mild forms have markes of thrombin formation but no clots/bleeding. more serious forms have depostion of fibrin and bleeding with inappropriate accelerated systemic activation of coagulation.

disseminated intravascular coagulation

low platelet counts caused by decreased production due to bone marrow disease or lack of vitamin B12

thrombocytopenia

how does DIC happen?

teh clot starts (small clots form impairing perfusion, tissue ischemia occurs, intravascular thrombin is reduced, fibrigogen is converted to fibrin, there is capillary clotting). bleeding ends (fibrin split products increase, inability of blood to cot, hemorrhage, hypovolemia, shock, and death)

an autoimmune bleeding disorder caused by antibodies being produced to a bodies own plateltes. causes sepsis and damgage to heart valves

idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

what is taking place in DIC?

much thrombin tips the Too much thrombin tips the balance toward the balance toward the prothrombic state, and the patient presents state, and the patient presents with thrombosis. Alternatively, with thrombosis. Alternatively, too much clot too much clot lysis (fibrinolysis) results from ) results from plasmin formation, and the formation, and the patient presents with a patient presents with a hemorrhagic state. hemorrhagic state.