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160 Cards in this Set

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What are the criteria for administering intrapartum group B Strep prophylaxis if the GBS status is unknown?
- gestation of <37 weeks
- membranes have been ruptured 18 hours or longer, or
- temperature of 38°C or greater
An infant is considered term at how many weeks?
37 weeks GA
What are findings seen at birth in infants with congenital CMV?
Jaundice
Chorioretinitis
Hearing loss
Hepatosplenomegaly
Intracranial calcifications
Microcephaly
Purpuric rash
Absolute contraindications to breastfeeding.
Maternal HIV infection
Active maternal drug abuse
Infants with galactosemia
Maternal benefits from breastfeeding.
Reduced risk of breast and ovarian cancer and osteopororis
What is considered a normal birth weight?
low weight?
very low weight?
extremely low weight?
> 2500 g
1500-2499
1000-1499
< 1000
How much weight should a term infant be gaining per day?
20-30 grams per day
How long should it take for an infant to double their birth weight? triple their birth weight?
2x birth weight by 5 months
3x birth weight by 12 months
When do infants develop stranger anxiety?
9 months
What are the 5 P's of pyloric stenosis?
Palpable olive
Peristalsis visible
Persistent
Projectile
Progressive
During treatment of DKA, what should be done if there are signs of neurological deficit?
Elevate head of bed
Decrease fluid rate by 1/3
Mannitol 1g/kg IV
Intubate and hyperventilate
CT scan when stabilized
What should be monitored, and how often during treatment of DKA?
Plasma glucose by glucometer q30min
Lytes q2-4h
Serum β-OH-butyrate q2-4h
Neurovital signs q15min until stable, then q1h until order discontinued
What investigations should you order in a case where you suspect child physical abuse?
CBC
Coag screen (PTT, PT)
Lytes, LFT, amylase, metabolic studies
Skeletal survey if < 2 y.o. or non-verbal
Bone scan
Retinal exam by ophthalmologist
CNS imaging if needed
Photographs of surface injuries
When is jaundice considered pathological?
< 24 hours
> 7 days, or starts before day 7 but persists > 2 weeks
High rate of rise
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
How high does bilirubin need to be for one to notice jaundice?
> 100 mmol/L
What are "hepatic" causes of jaundice?
Sepsis
Toxins - drugs, TPN
Infection - HAV, HBV, CMV, EBV
Metabolic - galactosemia
Treatment for bacterial tonsillitis in a child.
Take swab and give Rx at same time. Tell parent to fill Rx only if called with a +ve result.

Penicillin
250 mg po tid x 10 days if < 27 kg
500 mg po tid x 10 days if > 27 kg
Antibiotics to use for primary adenitis.
Cloxacillin
Ancef
Complications of post-septal orbital cellulitis.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Meningitis
Clinical manifestation of measles.
Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis.
2-3 days after, get Koplik spots.
5 days after, erythematous maculopapular rash starts on head, spreads caudally, and lasts 4-5 days.
Clinical manifestations of rubella.
Lymphadenopathy (postauricular and occipital), fever, arthritis
Rose pink macules and papules, start on head and spread caudally.
Rash lasts 3 days.
Clinical manifestations of roseola infantum (HHV-6).
Begin with abrupt fever for 1-5 days.
Then as the fever resolves, maculopapular rash appears on trunk and spreads peripherally.
Clinical manifestations of erythema infectiosum.
3 stages:
- Begin as slapped cheek appearance.
- Reticulate erythematous pruritic rash starts on arms and spreads to trunk and legs.
- Rash fluctuates in severity for 2-3 weeks.

Other complications: arthritis, hemolytic anemia, encephalopathy.
What orthopedic problems is associated with intra-uterine packing syndrome?
External hip rotation
Internal tibial torsion
Metatarsus adductus
What are bad prognostic signs in orthopedic abnormalities in lower limbs?
Rigid position
Varus position
Multiple abnormalities
How much and when is internal tibial torsion normal?
Treatment for severe cases.
10-20 degrees at birth, later should become external tibial torsion at ~4-5 years old.
Treatment for severe/persistent cases: Dennis-Brown boot and bar. Tibial osteotomy.
Natural history of leg angular alignment.
At birth, 10-20 degrees genu vara.
At 4-5 years old, peak genu valga of 5-15 degrees.
At 6 years old, ~neutral.
Natural history of hip rotation.
At birth, externally rotated.
At 4 years old, peak of internal hip rotation.
At ~8 years old, becomes more externally rotated again.
What conservative treatments for developmental dysplasia of the hips is there?
Craig hip abduction splint
Pavlik harness
What are the 3 pathologies of the hip most common in age group 0-5? 5-10? 10-15?
DDH: 0-5

Leg-Calve-Perthes: 5-10
- very active kids
- avascular necrosis
- minimal pain

SCFE: 10-15
- obese children
In scoliosis, how large should the Cobb angle be to indicate referral to an orthopedic surgeon?
> 20 degrees
What is used for GH stimulation test?
Arginine
Glucagon
Clonidine
Dopamine
What is the cause of a thickened pituitary stalk?
Germinoma
Differential diagnosis of vomiting in infant.
GER/GERD
Anatomical (HPS, duodenal web/atresia, malrotation, microgastria)
Allergic (milk intolerance)
ICP raised
Infection (UTI, gastroenteritis)
Metabolic disease (galactosemia)
When does GER tend to peak in infants?
4-5 months.
However, it is normal to last until 10 months.
When does colic tend to peak? When does it tend to resolve?
Peak at 2-3 months
Resolve at 4 months
Treatment of GERD in infants
Non-pharmacological
- thicken feeds
- positioning
- 1 week trial of hypoallergenic formula

Pharmacological
- ranitidine 5-8 mg/kg/day
- omeprazole 0.7-3.5 mg/kg/day
- lansoprazole 1.4 mg/kg/day
Causes of rectal bleeding in neonates
Anorectal lesions
Swallowed maternal blood
Milk allergy
NEC
Volvulus
Hirschsprung's
Vascular malformation
Coagulopathy
Thrombocytopenia
What is the diagnostic test of choice when suspecting intussusception in an infant/child?
Ultrasound.
What is the test of choice when suspecting swallowed maternal blood in a neonate?
Apt test.
What is the difference between a type and screen, vs a type and cross?
Type and cross - done when there is high risk of need for transfusion (trauma, open heart surgery). The blood ABO type is determined, antibody screen is done, and patient + donors blood are mixed to check for incompatibility.
What can RDW be used to determine?
Helps determine thalassemia (low RDW) apart from iron deficiency anemia (high RDW)
Causes of pancytopenia
Aplastic anemia
Infection
Leukemia
Causes of isolated normocytic anemia (no other cell lines down).
Infection
Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA)
Acute blood loss
Renal disease
Transient erythroblastopenia of childhood (TEC)
Causes of normocytic anemia with a high retic count.
Hemolysis
Hemorrhage
Hypersplenism
Give examples of food allergies that are IgE mediated, mixed IgE/non-IgE mediated, and non-IgE mediated.
IgE mediated: anaphylaxis, oral allergy syndrome.

Mixed: eosinophilic esophagitis.

Non-IgE mediated: protein-induced enterocolitis.
When does hypertrophic pyloric stenosis usually present?
Vomiting starts at 3-6 weeks of life, and progressively worsens.
What is the name of a posterior hernia? Anterior hernia?
Bochdalek hernia - posterior
Morgagni hernia - anterior
Key physical findings in congenital diaphragmatic hernia.
Scaphoid abdomen
Bowel sounds in chest
Trachea deviation
Treatment of congenital diaphragmatic hernia.
ICU - O2, IV fluids and meds, NG. Wait until pulmonary hypertension settles, then surgery.
Associated abnormalities with omphalocele.
Chromosomal abnormalities
Cardiac defects
Renal defects
Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
What are some clinical problems that a SGA infant is at risk for?
Hypoglycemia
Hypothermia
Hypoxia
Polycythemia
What is lissencephaly?
AKA agyria-pachygyria

Gyri are too few in number, cortex is thicker than normal.
How many calories per day does a term infant need?
How many calories per oz of standard formula is there?
100-120 kcal/kg/day.

20 kcal/oz
What are the most common side effects of immunizations?
Fussiness and fever x 24 hours.
When should a child double their birth length?
4 years old.
What sort of a lab investigation should be done for neuroblastoma?
Urine HVA/VMA will be elevated in 90-95% of cases.
Terminology for eyes turned medially/laterally.
Medially: esotropia
Laterally: exotropia
Questions to ask about exposure risk of TB.
• Symptoms of TB?
• Abnormal CXR?
• Close contact to sick person with active TB?
• Born outside NA or traveled outside NA?
• Does child have household member who was born outside NA or traveled outside NA?
• Is there exposure to person who: currently in jail, or has been in jail for the past 5 years? Has HIV? Is homeless? Lives in group home? Uses illegal drugs? Is a migrant farm worker?
• Does the child have HIV, or have risk to contract HIV, or have any other health problem that lowers the immune system?
• Is the child/teen in jail or ever been in jail?
Diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki disease.
Fever > 5 days
Plus 4/5 of the follow criteria:
1. Lymphadenopathy
2. Mucositis
3. Extremity changes
4. Rash
5. Conjunctivitis
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
Causative agent, and clinical manifestation.
Vector-borne (tick) disease, Rickettsia rickettsii.

Triad: fever, headache, rash (petechial, starts on wrists/ankles progresses centrally).
Describe the rash of Scarlet fever.
Erythematous, finely maculopapular
Sandpaper texture
Begins around neck, axillae, groin, then spreads over trunk and extremities
What diseases can cause a strawberry tongue?
Kawasaki disease
Group A Streptococcal pharyngitis
Causes of unilateral lymphadenopathy.
• Mycobacterial infection
• Cervical adenitis
• Pharyngeal infection
• Cat scratch disease
• Kawasaki disease
ADHD - DSM IV criteria.
6 or more symptoms of inattention
□ Does not pay attention to detail
□ Frequently makes careless mistakes in work
□ Has difficulty sustaining attention
□ Does not seem to listen when spoken to directly
□ Does not follow through on instructions
□ Has difficulty organizing tasks
□ Reluctant to engage in tasks requiring sustained mental effort
□ Often loses things
□ Easily distracted by extraneous stimuli
□ Forgetful in daily activities

OR 6 or more symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity
□ Fidgets
□ Squirms in seat/has trouble staying seated
□ Runs or climbs excessively in inappropriate settings
□ Has difficulty playing quietly
□ On the go/driven by a motor
□ Talks excessively/blurts out answers before question completed
□ Has difficulty awaiting turn
□ Interrupts or intrudes on others
ADHD - DSM IV criteria.
6 or more symptoms of inattention
□ Does not pay attention to detail
□ Frequently makes careless mistakes in work
□ Has difficulty sustaining attention
□ Does not seem to listen when spoken to directly
□ Does not follow through on instructions
□ Has difficulty organizing tasks
□ Reluctant to engage in tasks requiring sustained mental effort
□ Often loses things
□ Easily distracted by extraneous stimuli
□ Forgetful in daily activities

OR 6 or more symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity
□ Fidgets
□ Squirms in seat/has trouble staying seated
□ Runs or climbs excessively in inappropriate settings
□ Has difficulty playing quietly
□ On the go/driven by a motor
□ Talks excessively/blurts out answers before question completed
□ Has difficulty awaiting turn
□ Interrupts or intrudes on others
Side effects of methylphenidate.
Decreased appetite, decreased growth velocity.
Tics.
Insomnia.
Sudden death in pt with pre-existing cardiac abnormalities.
Staging of hypertension in children.
Stage 1: 95-99th percentile + 5 mmHg
Stage 2: > 99th percentile + 5 mmHg
What is Blount disease?
Disordered ossification of proximal tibia in physis, epiphysis, and metaphysis. Results in varus angulation and internal rotation of the tibia.
Normal pubertal developmental timeline for girls
Breast 10-11
Pubic hair 10-11
Growth spurt 12
Menarche 12-13
Adult height 15
Normal pubertal developmental timeline for boys
Testicular growth at 12
Pubic hair at 12
Growth of penis, scrotum at 13-14
First ejaculation 13-14
Growth spurt 14
Adult height 17
What is the difference between DTaP and Tdap vaccine?
DTaP contains 3-5 times more diphtheria toxin than Tdap.
What causes the murmur of HCM to get louder?
Standing.
How do you diagnose perinatal asphyxia?
Umbilical artery blood gas
- hypoxemia
- metabolic acidosis
Differential diagnosis of neonatal cyanosis.
Congenital heart disease
Pulmonary disease
CNS anomalies
Sepsis/shock
Hypothermia
Maternal medication
Define LGA and SGA
SGA: < 10th percentile of birth weight for GA

LGA: > 90th percentile of birth weight for GA
Risk factors for respiratory distress syndrome.
Prematurity
IDM (insulin inhibits surfactant production)
Sibling with RDS
Males
C/S without labour
Perinatal asphyxia
Differential diagnosis for neonatal respiratory distress.
Respiratory distress syndrome
TTN
Meconium aspiration
Pneumothorax
CHF
Sepsis/pneumonia
Hypothermia
Difference in CXR appearance of TTN, RDS, and meconium aspiration.
TTN: wet, hyperinflated, no air bronchograms.

RDS: low lung volumes, ground-glass appearance, air bronchograms.

Meconium aspiration: diffuse patchy opacities (atelectasis/consolidation), hyperinflation.
What are the indications for checking a newborn's blood glucose? When should it be checked? What is normal?
Check if: SGA, LGA, IDM, preterm.

Check at 2 hours. Normal if ≥ 2 mM.

Check again at 6 hours, then q3h ac meals until 3 consecutive readings ≥ 2.6 mM.
What is apnea?
What is the differential diagnosis?
> 20 seconds of no breathing, or other signs of no breathing (cyanosis).

DDx:
- apnea of prematurity
- reflux
- sepsis
Risk factors for severe illness in newborn.
Premature
Ex-preemie with BPD
CHD with left to right shunt
What is the max bili-total that is still considered reasonable for physiologic jaundice?
What are the causes of physiologic jaundice?
257 mmol/L.

1. Higher RBC turnover (higher hematocrit, HbF has shorter halflife)
2. Higher enterohepatic circulation
3. Immature liver enzyme (glucuronyl transferase)
When does breastfeeding jaundice occur? When does breastmilk jaundice occur?
Breastfeeding jaundice: first 2-4 days of life.
Breastmilk jaundice: day 4-6 of life, peaks at 2 weeks, and may persist until 12 weeks.
When is screening imaging for DDH indicated? What modality of imaging?
Females born in breech position should be given hip US at 4-6 weeks, or hip/pelvic x-ray at 4 months
Definition of FTT.
Weight below 2nd percentile on more than 1 occasion.
Rate of weight gain that causes a decrease in 2 or more percentile lines over time.
Failure to regain birth weight by 3 weeks, or continuous weight loss after 10 days of life.
Definition of lethargy.
Poor or absent eye movements.
Failure to recognize parents, interact with persons or objects.
What is the normal fontanel size?
Mean of 2.1 cm +/- 2 SD = 0.6-3.6 cm
What can cause large fontanel?
High ICP
Skeletal disorders (Rickets, osteogenesis imperfecta)
Chromosomal abnormalities (DS)
Hypothyroidism
Malnutrition
What can cause small fontanel?
Microcephaly
Craniosynostosis
Hyperthyroidism
Normal
What risk factors increase the probability of umbilical hernia?
Prematurity
Congenital hypothyroidism
How is OTC deficiency inherited?
How is it diagnosed?
X-linked recessive.
Hyperammonemia and elevated urine orotic acid.
How is CAH diagnosed?
17-OH progesterone elevated in 21 hydroxylase deficiency.

11-deoxycortisol elevated in 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency.
Conditions that can mimic a seizure.
Motor tics
Myoclonus
Sandifer syndrome
Pseudoseizures
Common causes of fever without source in an infant/child.
Meningitis
Bacteremia (occult)
UTI
Roseola
Pneumonia
What is the best empiric PO antibiotic for pyelonephritis in children?
Septra.
Give 10 mg/kg/day
Follow-up investigations after pyelonephritis in children.
10 days after, do an abdominal US and voiding cystourethrogram.
How quickly within the onset of Group A Strep infection do antibiotics need to be started in order to be effective at preventing rheumatic fever?
Within 9 days of symptom onset.
Expected lab values in Kawasaki Disease.
CBC+diff - normocytic anemia, neutrophilia, platelets markedly elevated in 2nd week of illness.
AST and ALT mildly elevated.
Serum albumin low.
CRP high.
U/A - sterile pyuria due to urethritis.
Treatment of Kawasaki Disease
High dose ASA 30-50 mg/kg/day div qid, decrease to 2-5 mg/kg/day when fever settles. Shortens febrile course.

High dose IVIG 2 g/kg over 12 hours - decreases complication of coronary artery aneurysms.
Describe the rash of Scarlet Fever.
Diffuse, erythematous finely maculopapular rash that blanches. Sandpaper texture. Begins around neck, axillae, groin, and spreads over trunk and extremities.
How long after TB exposure does it take before a skin test will show up as positive?
8-10 weeks.
3 stages of pertussis.
Catarrhal stage (1-2 weeks) - URTI symptoms.
Paroxysmal stage (4-6 weeks) - coughing followed by inspiratory whoop.
Convalescent stage
Epiglottitis - which age range is affected? underlying organism?
Age 2-5.
HiB.
Ataxia-telangiectasia
Etiology.
When does it start?
Other clinical manifestations.
Autosomal recessive disorder.
Ataxia begins in infancy.

Immunodeficiency due to hypoplastic thymus.
Malignancy predisposition.
Name for what looks like neonatal acne.
Etiology.
Neonatal cephalic pustulosis.
Associated with Malassezia.
Erythema toxicum neonatorum
2-10 days after birth, macular erythema progresses to yellow/white papules-pustules.
Complications of measles.
Causes a transient immunodeficiency
□ Pneumonia
□ Bronchitis
□ Otitis
□ Gastroenteritis
□ Myocarditis
□ Subsclerosing panencephalitis
Vesicles and bullae, which turn into verrucous lesions, and then streaks of hyperpigmentation, and then streaks of hypopigmentation/atrophy.
Incontinentia pigmenti.
X-linked dominant disorder.
Neurofibromatosis type 1, cause and diagnostic criteria.
Autosomal dominant disorder, loss of NF1 gene causes tumors in multiple systems.

1. 6 café-au-lait spots that measure 0.5 cm or more before puberty, or 1.5 cm or more in adults

2. Freckling of axillary and/or inguinal regions

3. ≥ 2 neurofibromas of any type, or 1 plexiform neurofibroma

4. ≥2 iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules)

5. Optic nerve glioma

6. Pathognomonic skeletal dysplasia

7. Affected first-degree relative
Circumscribed scaly hypopigmented patch commonly seen in patients with atopic dermatitis.
Pityriasis alba
Sturge Weber syndrome.
Rare congenital vascular disorder of unknown etiology.

Triad: port-wine stain in V1 distribution, seizures, glaucoma.
Vesiculopustular lesions on chin, forehead, neck, lower back, shins.

Rupture easily and evolve into hyperpigmented lesions with collarette pattern.
Transient neonatal pustular melanosis
Some features of tuberous sclerosis.
Seizures
Mental retardation
Facial angiofibromas
Hypopigmented macules
Shagreen patches (patch of rough, leathery skin)
Brown fibrous plaque on forehead
Hamartomas of the skin, brain, eye, heart, lungs, kidneys, bone
Retinal hamartomas
Ash-leaf spots
Disease that causes atopic dermatitis, thrombocytopenia and platelet dysfunction with associated petechial lesions, and immunodeficiency.
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.
X-linked recessive disorder.
Diagnose with low IgM levels.
Criteria for proteinuria within nephrotic syndrome range in paediatric patients.
≥ 50 mg/kg/day, or
≥ 40 mg/m²/hour

But this requires 24 hour collection of urine, so the easier thing is to use the protein:creatinine ratio in a random urine sample
> 300 mg protein/mmol creatinine
Types of nephrotic syndrome causes.
MCD
FSGS
Membranous
Membranoproliferative
Treatment for pneumonia
Clarithromycin
Alternatively, use Clavulin

If IV needed, use Cefuroxime or Clox+Cefotaxime.
Treatment for sepsis/meningitis.
Vancomycin + Cefotaxime.
Treatment for skin infections.
Cephalexin
Clinda
Pen + Clox
Treatment for ruptured appendix.
Flagyl + Amox + Cefotaxime
Treatment for UTI/urosepsis.
Oral: septra
IV: Amp + Gent, or Cefotaxime
Treatment for neonatal sepsis.
Amp + Gent or
Amp + Cefotaxime
What are creases under a child's eyes called? What is it indicative of?
Dennie-Morgan lines.
Sign of allergies.
Due to intermittent edema.
What are some conditions that mimic seizures?
Motor tics
Myoclonus
Sandifer syndrome - stiffening and opisthotonic posturing due to GER in infants
Pseudoseizures
Difference between simple and complex febrile seizures.
Simple febrile seizures
□ Last < 15 minutes
□ Occur once in a 24 hour period
□ Generalized seizures

Complex febrile seizures
□ Last > 15 minutes
□ Occur more than once in 24 hour period
□ Focal seizures
Cause of opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome
Often caused by neuroblastoma which results in paraneoplastic syndrome.

Manifests as ataxia, opsoclonus and myoclonus.
Name the functional disorders that cause chronic abdominal pain.
Functional dyspepsia
IBS
Abdominal migraine
Functional abdominal pain
Criteria for irritable bowel syndrome diagnosis.
In last 2 months, at least weekly occurrence of abdominal pain with ≥ 2 of the following:
- Relieved with defecation and/or
- Onset with change in frequency or form of stool and
- No evidence of organic disease
Name some of the multifactorial causes of cerebral palsy.
Prematurity
Intrauterine growth retardation
Intrauterine infection
Perinatal asphyxia
Important side effects of using topical steroid medication.
Skin atrophy
Telangiectasia
Hypopigmentation
Suppression of HP axis
Most effective treatment for lice.
Malathion 0.5% topical (Ovide)
Recurrent pneumonia that resolves quickly, hemoptysis and anemia.
What disease is the cause? What test should be done?
Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis. Bronchoalveolar lavage (contains hemosiderin-laden macrophages).
Treatment of croup.
Mild: dexamethasone 0.6 mg/kg to max of 10 mg po. Outpatient humidified air.

Moderate/severe: Humidified oxygen. Dex 0.6 mg/kg to max of 10 mg po. Inhaled epinephrine nebulizer.
Treatment of bacterial tracheitis.
Antistaph: Vancomycin or Clinda, PLUS 3rd generation cephalosporin.
What age group does Mycoplasma pneumoniae affect?
How about S aureus?
Mycoplasma - older children and young adults.
S. aureus - children under 5 months of age.
What is the cause of meconium ileus?
Cystic fibrosis.
Antibodies for inflammatory bowel disease.
ASCA +ve in 40-80% of patients with Crohn disease.
p-ANCA +ve in 60-80% of patients with UC.
Typical presentation of visceral larva migrans.
Diagnostic test.
Toxocara canis, which is a roundworm.
Caused by eating ova, which is usually in dirt. Get dyspnea, wheezing, hepatomegaly, eosinophilia.
Dx with ELISA for Toxocara.
Which primary teeth erupt first, and at what age?
Central incisors : 6–12 months
Lateral incisors : 9–16 months
Canine teeth : 16–23 months
First molars : 13–19 months
Second molars : 22–33 months
Which drug ingestions can be treated with activated charcoal?
Carbamazepine, dapsone, phenobarbital, quinine, theophylline, TCAs.
Diagnostic test for NEC.
Abdo x-ray, showing pneumatosis intestinalis.
Most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula.
Phimosis is normal up to a certain age...
3 years old.
Clinical features of prune-belly syndrome.
Absent abdominal wall muscles.
Urinary tract abnormalities.
Cryptorchidism.
What kind of imaging can be used to detect acute pyelonephritis and renal scarring?
DMSA radionuclide scan.
What is the most common type of hereditary nephritis?
It causes microscopic hematuria, as well as...
Alport syndrome.
Hearing loss, eventual end-stage renal disease, ocular abnormalities.
Clinical features of idiopathic hypercalciuria.
Intermittent gross hematuria.
Permanent microscopic hematuria.
Dysuria, abdominal pain.
Clinical features of homocystinuria.
Poor growth
Arachnodactyly
Osteoporosis
Lens dislocation
Mental retardation
Thromboembolism (can cause acute hemiplegia)
An immunodeficiency syndrome with petechiae, easy bleeding, eczema, and chronic draining ears
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
An immunodeficiency syndrome with coarse features, chronic infected eczema, and deep-seated abscesses.
Hyperimmunoglobin E syndrome
An immunodeficiency syndrome with short stature, chondrodystrophy and fine hair.
Cartilage-hair hypoplasia
An immunodeficiency syndrome with congenital heart disease, developmental delay, and dysmorphic facies with low-set ears, hypertelorism, downturning eyes, and micrognathia.
DiGeorge syndrome
An immunodeficiency syndrome with early onset of seborrheic dermatitis and alopecia.
SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency)
An immunodeficiency syndrome with oral ulcers, gingivitis, and impetigo.
Chronic granulomatous disease, or leukocyte adhesion defect.
Major causes of recurrent infections in a child.
Normal child with recurrent infections.
Atopic disease mistaken for infections.
Chronic disease (CF, GER, CHD, chronic aspiration, anatomic defects, resistant organisms).
Immunodeficiency syndrome.
Useful physical exam maneuver to test a boy for Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Gower sign.
Tell child to lie prone and get up to standing position. They will walk their hands up extremities and trunk to complete the maneuver, a sign of proximal muscle weakness.
Which newborns should be screened for neonatal hypoglycemia?
LGA
IDM (infants of diabetic mothers)
SGA
Preterm
When should at-risk neonates be screened for neonatal hypoglycemia, and for how long?
2 h of age, then q3-6 h. Discontinue after 12 h in LGA and IDMs if BG ≥ 2.6, and after 36 h in SGA and preterm if feeding established and BG ≥ 2.6.
Risk factors for developing jaundice, and might make you want to order screening bilirubin levels before discharge.
Shorter gestation < 38 week
Sibling with jaundice
Male
Asian/European background
Visible bruising
Cephalohematoma
Maternal age > 25
Dehydration