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286 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1) Marline spike seamanship can be defined as the set of processes and skills used to |
make, repair, and use rope.
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2) These ropes are made of natural fiber:
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cotton, manila, and hemp. |
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These ropes are made of synthetic fiber:
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polypropylene, nylon, and dacron.
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Synthetic fiber rope is more resistant to ________
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rot.
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A rope is _________________
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a length of fibers, twisted or braided together.
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A line is ___________________________ |
rope cut to a specific length to serve a specific purpose.
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The working load limit of a line is the ___________________
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minimum breaking strength divided by five.
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_________ is the working load limit (WLL) of a line with a minimum breaking strength (MBS) of 23,450lbs.
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4,690 lbs
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Chafing gear is normally used on _______
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mooring lines.
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Chafing gear reduces and prevents ___________
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wear caused by the rubbing of one object against another.
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Shackles are _______than hooks of the same diameter.
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stronger
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__________ is the factor most likely to impair the strength and durability of synthetic line.
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Sunlight
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One method of removing kinks from fiber rope is to ____________
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tow through the water astern until it straightens.
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_______ line is best able to withstand sudden shock loads
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Nylon
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The length of a standard shot of chain is ______
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15 fathoms (90 feet).
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A snatch block is a __________
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hinged block.
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27) A ___is a smooth, tapered pin, usually of wood, used to open up the strands of a rope for splicing.
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fid
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28) A ____ is a tapered wood pin used when splicing heavy rope.
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fid
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A deck fitting used to secure a line or wire rope, consisting of a single body and two protruding horns is a ______ |
cleat
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If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, the best method is to ___________ |
bring the eye of the second line up through the eye of the first, then place it on the bollard (dipping the eye).
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A __________ is used in covering wire or fiber rope.
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serving mallet
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A rope made of a combination of wire and fiber is known as a ______
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spring lay.
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Manila lines in which the strands are right-hand laid should be coiled in a _________ direction.
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clockwise
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A chain stopper should be used to _______
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stop off wire rope.
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35) Wire rope is ___________ to protect it from corosion due to contact with saltwater.
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galvanized
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36) An advantage of having wire rope with a fiber core over that of wire rope of the same size with a wire core is __________
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greater flexibility
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37) The best line for towing small vessels is______
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double braided nylon.
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38) When inspecting wire rope that has been used for some time, one must look for _________
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fishhooks, kinks and worn spots.
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39) When securing a synthetic line to a bit, the minimum number of round turns you should take before figure-eighting the line is
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2
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40) A _______ stopper should be used on nylon mooring line.
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nylon
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41) On a small boat a ___________ is best used for attaching a line to the ring of an anchor.
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fisherman's bend (anchor bend)
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42) A mooring line is described as being 6x24, 1-3/4 inch wire rope. The above numbers refer to __________
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strands, wires, and diameter.
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43) This statement is TRUE concerning wire rope; wire rope should be condemned if ______________.
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the outside wires are worn to one-half their original diameter.
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44) This knot would serve best as a safety sling for a person working over the side_____________ |
French Bowline |
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45) This statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE; it provides lateral control without ____________. |
affecting headway. |
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46) When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, pivot point tends to move ________
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forward.
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47) The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed by the _________
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center of gravity.
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48) The distance that a vessel travels from the time of the order to put engines full astern until she is dead in the water is known as ______ |
head reach.
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49) This shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's speed past its "critical speed":
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squatting.
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50) The effect of wind on exposed areas the vessel is most noticeable when _____ |
backing.
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51) Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. This is called _____
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squatting.
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52) The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from point where rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle is called the
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advance.
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53) When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled parallel to the turning circle is known as
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advance .
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54) The effect known as "bank suction" acts on a single screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel by ________
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pulling the stern toward bank.
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55) As a ship moves through the water, it causes wake, which is also moving forward relative to the sea. In addition to a fore and aft motion, this wake also has an __________ flow.
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upward and inward
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56) Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel’s stern to the right or left, depending on rotation. This force is caused by _________
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torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges upon the propeller blades.
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57) You are on a course of 000°T and put the rudder right 30°. _____ is the direction the transfer will be measured.
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090°T
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58) When hugging a bank in a narrow channel, you should take precautions against ________
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bank suction, squat and the effects of vessels passing close aboard, clogged sea chests, plugged sea strainers and overheated machinery, and striking underwater obstructions close to the bank.
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59) Your vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel. The effect called bank cushion has this effect on the vessel:
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forces the bow away from the bank.
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60) The effect speed through the water has on a vessel which is underway in shallow water is; an increase in speed results in _____
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the stern sucking down lower than the bow.
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61) River currents tend to cause the greatest depth of water to be along the _____ of a bend.
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outside
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62) When anchoring, good practice requires 5 to 7 fathoms of chain for each fathom of depth. In deep water you should use _____ chain for each fathom of depth. |
less
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63) A stream of water immediately surrounding a moving vessel's hull, flowing in the same direction as the vessel is known as:
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wake current.
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64) Your vessel has gone aground in waters where the tide is falling. The BEST action you can take is to ______
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set out a kedge anchor.
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65) In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the _____ |
distance gained at right angles to the original course.
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66) The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is ______________
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about one-third of the vessel's length from the bow.
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77) As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake. The ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is called ______
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wake fraction.
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68) Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has __________
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headway.
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69) When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is about _____
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one-third of the vessel's length from the stern.
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70) This best describes an anchor buoy; _____
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a buoy attached to the anchor.
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71) You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, the best maneuver would be _____ |
full ahead, hard right rudder.
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72) A vessel traveling down a narrow channel, especially if the draft is nearly equal to the depth of the water, may set off the nearer side. This effect is known as ______
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bank cushion.
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73) A common occurrence when a vessel is running into shallow water is that "squat" will cause a ________
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decrease in bottom clearance and an increase in draft.
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74) In order to reduce your wake in a narrow channel you should __________
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reduce your speed.
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75) When a vessel is swinging from side to side off course due to quartering seas, the vessel is ________
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yawing.
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76) This action reduces the yawing of a vessel in a following sea; ___________
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shifting weights to the stern.
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77) A _______ mooring line has the least elasticity?
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dacron
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78) The best time to work a boat into a slip is at ___________
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slack water.
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79) After casting off moorings at a mooring buoy in calm weather, you should ____________
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back away a few lengths to clear the buoy and then go ahead on the engines.
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80) The best method of determining if a vessel is dragging anchor is to ____________
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note changes in bearings of fixed objects onshore.
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81) Generally speaking, the most favorable bottom for anchoring is ______________
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a mixture of mud and clay.
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82) Two mooring lines may be placed on the same bollard and either one cast off first if ____________
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the eye of the second line is dipped.
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83) When anchoring, it is a common rule of thumb to use a length of chain ___________ times the depth of water.
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five to seven
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84) Using a scope of five, you should put out ____ ft of chain to anchor in 12 fathoms (72 ft) of water.
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360
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85) You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should _______
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put out the sea anchor.
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86) The angle at which the fluke penetrates the soil is called the _________
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tripping angle.
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87) Anchors are prevented from running out when secured by ____________
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the brake, devil's claw, and/or pawls.
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88) Using a scope of 6, _______ of cable would have to be used in order to anchor in 24 feet of water.
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144 feet
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89) In stopping distances of vessels, ___________ can best be described as the distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the water.
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head reach
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90) The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been completed, is called the ____________
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tactical diameter.
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91) A twin-screw ship going ahead on the starboard screw only tends to move to _________
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port.
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92) The BEST way to steer a twin-screw vessel if you lose your rudder is by _______________
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using one engine running at reduced speed and controlling the vessel with the other.
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93) You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, the best maneuver would be _____________
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full ahead, hard right rudder.
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94) The distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if there is no slip, is called _________
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pitch.
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95) A twin-screw vessel can clear the inboard propeller and maneuver off a pier best by _______________
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holding a forward spring line and going slow ahead on the outboard engine.
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96) You may BEST turn a twin-screw vessel about, to the right, in a narrow channel by using _________________ |
port engine ahead and the starboard engine astern.
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97) You are docking an oceangoing single-screw vessel under normal circumstances with a single tug. The tug is usually used to ____________
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control the bow and is tied to the offshore bow.
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98) You are on a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller. The vessel is going full speed astern with full right rudder. The bow will swing probably to _______
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port.
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99) The force exerted by a propeller which tends to throw the stern right or left is called _________
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sidewise force.
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100) The forward movement of a vessel in one revolution of its propeller is measured by _________
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the pitch.
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101) A twin-screw vessel with a single rudder is making headway. The engines are full speed ahead. There is no wind or current. This statement is _____ turning response by use of the rudder only is greater than on a single-screw vessel.
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FALSE
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102) While moving ahead, a twin-screw ship has an advantage over a single-screw ship because ___________
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side forces will be eliminated.
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103) You are conning a twin-screw vessel going ahead with rudders amidships. If the port screw stops turning the bow will go to ______
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port.
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104) Your twin-screw vessel is moving ASTERN with rudders amidships. The starboard screw suddenly stops turning. Your vessel's head will go to ______
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port.
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105) A twin-screw ship going ahead on the starboard screw only tends to move to __________
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port.
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106) The BEST way to steer a twin-crew vessel if you lose your rudder is by __________
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using one engine running at reduced speed and controlling the vessel with the other.
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107) With rudders amidships and negligible wind, a twin-screw vessel moving astern with both engines backing will back ___________
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in a fairly straight line.
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108) The pitch of a propeller is a measure of __________
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the number of feet per revolution the propeller is designed to advance in still water without slip.
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109) The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that _________
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it accelerates erosion.
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110) You are on watch at sea at night and a fire breaks out in #3 hold. This should be done IMMEDIATELY; ___________
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shut down the cargo hold ventilation.
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111) Control of flooding should be addressed _________ control of fire. |
following
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112) The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit is ___________
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one B-II.
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113) The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the ___________ |
lower explosive limit (LEL).
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114) Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is
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21%.
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115) You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed at _________
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the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge.
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116) A B-III foam extinguisher contains _______ of foam.
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12 gallons
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117) You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should put the vessel's stern _______
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into the wind.
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118) This statement is _______ . Halon as a fire extinguishing agent is always non-toxic.
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FALSE
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119) A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by _________
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weighing the extinguisher.
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120) A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by ________
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stopping the flow of gas.
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121) These statements are ______ concerning carbon dioxide; it is heavier than air, it is non-conductive, and it is used on class B and C fires.
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TRUE |
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122) A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________
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pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher.
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123) Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________
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continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds.
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124) A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class ____
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A.
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125) Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by _______
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breaking the chain reaction.
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126) Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be in _______
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a metal container with a tight cap.
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127) On a class "B" fire, this portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable; __________
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water (stored pressure).
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128) A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________
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enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen.
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129) This is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire; __________
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danger of shock to personnel.
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130) The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to ________
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cool fuel below ignition temperature.
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131) An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to _________
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de-energize the circuit.
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132) Regular foam can be used on all but this flammable liquid, _______
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alcohol.
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133) Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pump room, provided that __________
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the ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space.
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134) When compared to high-expansion foam, low-expansion foam will be ____________
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more heat resistant.
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135) This firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire; ___________
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flooding a paint locker with O2 and sealing the compartment.
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136) A chemical additive to LPG (Liquid Propane Gas) gives it a characteristic _________
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odor.
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137) To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________
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close all openings to the area.
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138) Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is ____________
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a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds.
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139) Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by ___________
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breaking the chain reaction.
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140) You used a carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher but did not empty the extinguisher. You must have it recharged if the weight loss exceeds _________ of the weight of the charge.
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ten percent
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141) A person who sees someone fall overboard should __________
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call for help and keep the individual in sight.
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142) On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, you should __________
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stop the propellers from turning and throw a ring buoy over the side.
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143) If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________
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remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position.
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144) Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by ___________
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rigging a sea anchor.
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145) A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. This action should be taken; _____________
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immediately put the rudder over hard left.
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146) When plugging holes below the waterline you should _____________
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reduce the entry of water as much as possible.
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147) You receive word that a person has fallen overboard from the starboard side. You should FIRST ____________
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put the wheel hard right.
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148) You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. The primary advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances is; _____________
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you will be on a reciprocal course and nearly on the track-line run during the night.
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149) In plugging submerged holes; ____________ should be used in conjunction with plugs to reduce the water leaking around the plugs.
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rags, wedges, and other materials
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150) The key to rescuing a man overboard is __________
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well-conducted drills.
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151) A person who sees someone fall overboard should _____________
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call for help and keep the individual in sight.
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152) You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. You should administer ____________
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30 chest compressions and 2 inflations in each sequence.
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153) A patient in shock should NOT be placed in a position ____________
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with their arms above their head.
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154) The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by ________
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pinching the victim's nostrils and applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth.
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155) When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed _________
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about 1-1/2 to 2 inches.
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156) You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Pressure should be applied to the _____________ on the victim’s body.
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lower half of the sternum
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157) Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done without __________
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losing the rhythm of respiration.
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158) In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by ___________
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applying direct pressure to the wound.
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159) A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should not ___________
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be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives.
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160) A compound fracture is a fracture in which the bone ____ visible.
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may be
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161) In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for ____________
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the injury and for traumatic shock.
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162) This ___ a symptom of traumatic shock; slow, deep breathing.
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is NOT
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163) For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is ______________
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to immerse the burn in cold water.
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164) The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is ___________
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ammonia inhalant.
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165) Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given ____________
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large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water to induce vomiting.
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166) Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by ____________
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applying direct pressure to the wound.
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167) A compound fracture is the __________ serious type.
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most
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168) The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to ____________
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flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold water.
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169) You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by ______________
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preventing further movement of the bone. |
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170) These spaces are deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage; _____________
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boatswain's stores, chart room, and spaces for the exclusive use of the officers or crew.
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171) This space is deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage; ________
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chart room.
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172) This space is deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage; __________
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boatswain's stores.
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173) These spaces are deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage; ___________
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spaces for the exclusive use of the officers or crew.
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174) During the course of a voyage, a seaman falls on the main deck and injures his ankle. The Master should submit a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death if ____________
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the injured is incapacitated or unfit for duty.
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176) The difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage is; net tonnage is the gross tonnage less ________
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certain deductible spaces, such as machinery and other areas.
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178) When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in _______
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the Oil Record Book.
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179) This U.S. Government agency can suspend or revoke a Merchant Mariner's license for violating the load line act; _______
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the U.S. Coast Guard.
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180) This statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat installations on Great Lakes vessels; all lifelines shall be able to reach the water at ____________
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the vessel's lightest draft with a 20° list.
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181) Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of; _____________
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sewage, the galley trash can, and an oily mixture of one part per million. |
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182) True or False: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for signals that must be sounded when being towed in restricted visibility.
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TRUE
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183) True or False: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for lighting of mobile offshore drilling units being towed.
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TRUE
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184) When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, after reporting the discharge you should __________
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contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water.
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185) As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, he should FIRST __________ |
call the Coast Guard.
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186) The term "gross tonnage" refers to the vessel's approximate ___________ |
volume including all enclosed spaces less certain exempt spaces. |
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187) According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry includes vessels that; operate in other than __________ service, have provisions only for _________, or both; or operate on a ___________ between two points over the _________ route.
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ocean or coastwise deck passengers, vehicles short run on a frequent schedule most direct water |
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188) When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the ___________ before using chemical agents.
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Federal On-Scene Coordinator
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189) The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is authorized _____________
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only with prior approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator.
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190) Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel must be reported to _______________
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the vessel owner or owner's agent.
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191) Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. This is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil; _______________
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placing it in proper disposal facilities.
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192) The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall keep a written record available for inspection by the _____ containing the name of each person currently designated as ____________, the date and result of the ________________ and hose information including the ___________ for each hose.
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COPT or OCMI a person in charge most recent test on the system relief valves minimum design burst pressure |
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|
193) The service life of distress signals must be not more than ________ months from the date of manufacture.
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forty two
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194) For the purposes of distress signaling, small passenger vessels that operate on runs of more than 30 minutes duration on lakes, bays and sounds, and river routes must carry ______________
|
three hand red flare distress signals, and three hand orange smoke distress signals.
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|
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195) Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger vessels are not required aboard vessels on runs of ________, must be Coast Guard approved and stowed in ______________, and must be marked with an expiration date not more than 42 months from _________.
|
less than 30 minutes duration a portable, watertight container the date of manufacture |
|
|
196) The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. This statement is TRUE; fusible links ______
|
must be replaced if a damper is activated.
|
|
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197) The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill _______
|
every month.
|
|
|
198) These small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB; a coastwise vessel whose route does not take it more than _____ miles from shore, a vessel operating on ________________, and a vessel operating within ____________ from the coastline of the Great Lakes. |
three lakes, bays, sounds, and rivers three miles |
|
|
199) If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, you will not be able to discharge plastic ____________
|
anywhere at sea.
|
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200) You detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging. The FIRST thing to do is _________
|
shut down operations.
|
|
|
201) Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, you must be ______ from land to throw wooden dunnage into the sea.
|
25 nm
|
|
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202) Air-cooled gasoline auxiliary engines are allowed on vessels not more than ________ in length, carrying not more than passengers if they have a and are installed __________
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65 feet; 12; self-contained fuel system; on an open deck.
|
|
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203) The minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on small passenger vessels which are more than 65 feet in length is ______.
|
1-1/2"
|
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204) You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within ___________
|
1650 feet (500 meters).
|
|
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205) A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least _________
|
12 nautical miles.
|
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206) Your fishing vessel is required to have a compass. It must also have a ___________
|
deviation table.
|
|
|
207) Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the “Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in a _____ against the _________________.
|
$650 civil penalry; person in charge of the vessel
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|
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208) A long ton is ___________.
|
2,240 pounds
|
|
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209) The meaning of the term tare weight is the ___________
|
weight of a container.
|
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210) This emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel; ____________
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recovering an individual from the water.
|
|
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211) On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe is not accessible, it’s shut off valve must be operable from _______, may be operable from ____________, and must be labeled at its operating point to show its _______________
|
the weather deck; any accessible location above the bulkhead deck; identity and direction of closing.
|
|
|
212) It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to __________
|
stop insects from entering.
|
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213) The Tonnage Certificate indicates ______
|
net tons.
|
|
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214) If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, the _________ must also be aboard.
|
radio station license
|
|
|
215) A vessel's Certificate of Documentation _______________
|
must be carried on board.
|
|
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216) On the cargo manifest, the total weight of an empty cargo box is the ____________
|
tare weight.
|
|
|
217) The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. This information should be transmitted as __________, if time allows.
|
a series of short messages
|
|
|
218) The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________
|
156.8 MHz (channel 16).
|
|
|
219) The frequency the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications is __________
|
156.650 MHz channel 13.
|
|
|
220) The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to _____________
|
every power-driven vessel of 20 meters and upward while navigating.
|
|
|
221) You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger. You should use ____________
|
the urgent signal "PAN-PAN".
|
|
|
222) The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by the word _________
|
pan.
|
|
|
223) This item __________ required to be marked with the vessel's name; hand-portable fire extinguisher.
|
is NOT
|
|
|
224) This statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged; ________________
|
they should be replaced.
|
|
|
225) The minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel is ______________
|
four feet.
|
|
|
226) Life jackets should be marked with __________
|
the vessel's name.
|
|
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227) This approved lifesaving device must be carried by a small passenger vessel carrying passengers for hire carry for each person on board (small passenger vessel regulations); _____________
|
life jacket.
|
|
|
228) Life jackets should be stowed (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations) _____________
|
throughout the accommodation spaces.
|
|
|
229) A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________
|
pendants.
|
|
|
230) You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry, "Man overboard starboard side". You should instinctively __________
|
give full right rudder.
|
|
|
231) When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will _________________ any rudder commands before executing them.
|
repeat back to the watch officer
|
|
|
232) A look-out at the bow sights an object on your port side. He should sound __________
|
two bell strokes.
|
|
|
233) A look-out should report objects sighted using __________________
|
relative bearings.
|
|
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234) When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should know ________________
|
the course per magnetic steering compass.
|
|
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235) When steering a vessel, a good helmsman ____________ as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course.
|
does NOT use
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|
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236) You are standing wheelwatch on entering port, and the Master gives you a rudder command that conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. You should obey ___________
|
the Master.
|
|
|
237) When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should find it handy to know ______________
|
the amount of helm carried for a steady course.
|
|
|
238) You are standing watch on entering port and the Master gives a rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. You should ensure the helmsman ____________
|
obeys the Master. |
|
|
Ullage |
or headspace is the unfilled space in a container, particularly with a liquid. |
|
|
You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry "Man overboard starboard side". You should instinctively_______
|
give full right rudder.
|
|
|
A tunnel bow thruster ______________
|
provides lateral control without affecting headway.
|
|
|
___________ is loose material used to support and protect cargo in a ship's hold.
|
Dunnage
|
|
|
____________ is the carriage of cargo beyond the port for which it was intended.
|
Overcarriage
|
|
|
_____________is small durable packages or pieces of cargo that may be stowed in spaces between larger pieces yielding reduced dunnage costs and maximum hold space utilization.
|
Filler cargo
|
|
|
Defense plans may cause the operation of electronic aids to navigation to be suspended with _________
|
no notice.
|
|
|
The primary hazard of loading a bulk shipment of steel turnings is that it is ______________
|
subject to spontaneous heating and ignition.
|
|
|
A person found operating a vessel while intoxicated is liable for ____________
|
a civil penalty of not more than $5000.
|
|
|
The maximum length allowed between main transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the _______________
|
permissible length.
|
|
|
Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this you should ______________
|
install shoring so the shoring supports the damaged bulkheads without pushing on them.
|
|
|
Floors aboard ship are _________________
|
frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a double bottomed ship.
|
|
|
When underway and proceeding ahead as the speed increases the pivot point tends to__________
|
move forward.
|
|
|
To determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold you would refer to the ______________
|
deck capacity plan.
|
|
|
The vessel's "quarter" is located ____________
|
on either side of the stern.
|
|
|
A wildcat is a _________________
|
deeply-grooved drum on the windlass with sprockets which engage the links of the anchor chain.
|
|
|
A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by ________________
|
drilling a hole at each end of the crack.
|
|
|
The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees isthe path followed by the ______________
|
center of gravity.
|
|
|
The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed is _____________
|
one-third the length of the vessel from the bow.
|
|
|
Under title 46 of the United States Code the person in charge of a documented vessel who fails to reporrt a complaint of a sexual offense may be ___________
|
fined up to $5000.
|
|
|
The stowage factor for a cargo is based up on _____________
|
one long ton.
|
|
|
When improperly tied the ____________ becomes a granny or thief's knot.
|
Square Knot
|
|
|
A vessel trawling will display a ____________
|
green light over a white light.
|
|
|
A towing light is __________
|
yellow in color has the same characteristic as a stern light and is shown on the stern of the vessel.
|
|
|
A 50 Meter barge anchored in a "Special Anchorage Area" designated by the Secretary requires ____________
|
2 lights.
|
|
|
A vessel approaching a bend in a river or an obstruction that blocks it's view would sound a whistle signal of ______________
|
one prolonged blast.
|
|
|
When a power driven vessel notices a sailing vessel approaching from astern it should ______
|
stand on.
|
|
|
Orange smoke is
|
a distress signal.
|
|
|
More than two vessels meeting would be considered a _____________
|
"Special Circumstance".
|
|
|
A vessel __________________is exempt from the regulations regarding separation schemes to the extent necessary to carry out their work.
|
servicing an aid to navigation
|
|
|
Two vessels meeting on inland waters that will pass starboard to starboard 1/4 mile apart without any maneuvering required for safety require passing signals of ____________
|
two short blasts.
|
|
|
A vessel constrained by her draft is one which _________________
|
must be a power driven vessel only applies when operating in international waters and must remain in a channel for safe operation.
|
|
|
You are navigating in a narrow channel in inland waters and must remain in the channel for safe operation - another vessel is crossing the channel ahead of you from your starboard and you doubt whether your vessel will pass safely - you must ________________
|
sound the danger signal.
|
|
|
When you come dead astern on inland waters of another vessel and desire to overtake you should sound ____________on your whistle signal.
|
one short blast
|
|
|
The masthead light may be located at other than the fore and aft centerline of a vessel less than ___ meters in length.
|
12
|
|
|
The duration of a prolonged blast of the whistle is _____________
|
4 to 6 seconds.
|
|
|
A bell is used to sound a fog signal for a _______________
|
sailing vessel at anchor.
|
|
|
If you see a vessel's green sidelight bearing due east from you the vessel might be heading ___________
|
south or southwest or southeast.
|
|
|
A vessel shall be deemed to be overtaking when she can see at night only the ______________
|
sternlight of the vessel.
|
|
|
A vessel trawling will display _______________
|
a green light over a white light.
|
|
|
If your vessel is not making way but is not in any way disabled and another vessel approaches you on your starboard beam - your vessel is the __________________
|
give-way vessel in a crossing situation.
|
|
|
Two vessels meeting in a "heads on" situation are directed by the Rules to ____________
|
alter course to starboard and pass port to port.
|
|
|
In Inland Navigation Rules the term "Inland Waters" includes:
|
a) the Western Rivers b) the Great Lakes c) shoreward of COLREGs line
|
|
|
Downbound vessel on the Western Rivers:
|
a) has the right of way b) shall propose the manner of passage c) shall initiate signals
|
|
|
Barge greater than 50m at a "special anchorage area" must have ___________
|
2 white anchor lights.
|
|
|
A partially submerged object towed by a vessel must show during the day one ____________
|
diamond shape regardless of length of the tow.
|
|
|
An _______________shall be used to indicate the presence of a partly submerged object being towed.
|
all-round white light at each end of the tow
|
|
|
Single barge towed alongside requires ____________
|
sidelights a special flashing light
|
|
|
A power-driven vessel must give - in addition to one prolonged blast - when backing out of a berth with another vessel in sight: ______________
|
3 short blasts
|
|
|
A power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside on the Mississippi River above the Huey P. Long Bridge shall cary ________________
|
sidelights and two towing lights
|
|
|
A chart position enclosed by a semi-circle is a(n) ______________
|
dead reckoning position.
|
|
|
In order to insure that the racon signal is visible on your 3 cm radar the rain clutter control should be _____________
|
off but if necessary may be on low.
|
|
|
The magnitude of a star can range from ______________
|
-1 to 10 with -1 being the brightest.
|
|
|
The range of tide is the ___________________
|
difference between the heights of high and low tide.
|
|
|
A rhumb line is a _________________
|
line crossing all meridians of longitude at the same angle and appears as a straight line on a Mercator projection.
|
|
|
A great circle is the _______________on the surface of a planetary body assuming a spherical model.
|
shortest distance between two points
|
|
|
To make sure you get full advantage of a favorable current you should reach an entrance or strait _____________the predicted time of the favorable current.
|
30 minutes before
|
|
|
You would check the ____________publication for complete information on the Puget Sound weather conditions.
|
Coast Pilot
|
|
|
A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a ___________ |
bifurcation. |
|
|
NGA (NIMA) charts are adopting the metric system. In order to change a charted dept in meters to feet you may use the conversion table found in: |
a) the Light List b) Bowditch Vol. II c) on the chart. |
