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286 Cards in this Set

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1) Marline spike seamanship can be defined as the set of processes and skills used to

make, repair, and use rope.
2) These ropes are made of natural fiber:

cotton, manila, and hemp.

These ropes are made of synthetic fiber:
polypropylene, nylon, and dacron.
Synthetic fiber rope is more resistant to ________
A rope is _________________
a length of fibers, twisted or braided together.

A line is ___________________________

rope cut to a specific length to serve a specific purpose.
The working load limit of a line is the ___________________
minimum breaking strength divided by five.
_________ is the working load limit (WLL) of a line with a minimum breaking strength (MBS) of 23,450lbs.
4,690 lbs
Chafing gear is normally used on _______
mooring lines.
Chafing gear reduces and prevents ___________
wear caused by the rubbing of one object against another.
Shackles are _______than hooks of the same diameter.
__________ is the factor most likely to impair the strength and durability of synthetic line.
One method of removing kinks from fiber rope is to ____________
tow through the water astern until it straightens.
_______ line is best able to withstand sudden shock loads
The length of a standard shot of chain is ______
15 fathoms (90 feet).
A snatch block is a __________
hinged block.
27) A ___is a smooth, tapered pin, usually of wood, used to open up the strands of a rope for splicing.
28) A ____ is a tapered wood pin used when splicing heavy rope.

A deck fitting used to secure a line or wire rope, consisting of a single body and two protruding horns is a ______


If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, the best method is to ___________

bring the eye of the second line up through the eye of the first, then place it on the bollard (dipping the eye).
A __________ is used in covering wire or fiber rope.
serving mallet
serving mallet
A rope made of a combination of wire and fiber is known as a ______
spring lay.
Manila lines in which the strands are right-hand laid should be coiled in a _________ direction.
A chain stopper should be used to _______
stop off wire rope.
stop off wire rope.

35) Wire rope is ___________ to protect it from corosion due to contact with saltwater.
36) An advantage of having wire rope with a fiber core over that of wire rope of the same size with a wire core is __________
greater flexibility
37) The best line for towing small vessels is______
double braided nylon.
double braided nylon.

38) When inspecting wire rope that has been used for some time, one must look for _________
fishhooks, kinks and worn spots.
39) When securing a synthetic line to a bit, the minimum number of round turns you should take before figure-eighting the line is
40) A _______ stopper should be used on nylon mooring line.
41) On a small boat a ___________ is best used for attaching a line to the ring of an anchor.
fisherman's bend (anchor bend)
42) A mooring line is described as being 6x24, 1-3/4 inch wire rope. The above numbers refer to __________
strands, wires, and diameter.
strands, wires, and diameter.

43) This statement is TRUE concerning wire rope; wire rope should be condemned if ______________.
the outside wires are worn to one-half their original diameter.

44) This knot would serve best as a safety sling for a person working over the side_____________

French Bowline

45) This statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE; it provides lateral control without ____________.

affecting headway.

46) When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, pivot point tends to move ________
47) The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed by the _________
center of gravity.

48) The distance that a vessel travels from the time of the order to put engines full astern until she is dead in the water is known as ______

head reach.
49) This shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's speed past its "critical speed":

50) The effect of wind on exposed areas the vessel is most noticeable when _____

51) Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. This is called _____
52) The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from point where rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle is called the
53) When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled parallel to the turning circle is known as
advance .
54) The effect known as "bank suction" acts on a single screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel by ________
pulling the stern toward bank.
55) As a ship moves through the water, it causes wake, which is also moving forward relative to the sea. In addition to a fore and aft motion, this wake also has an __________ flow.
upward and inward
56) Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel’s stern to the right or left, depending on rotation. This force is caused by _________
torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges upon the propeller blades.
57) You are on a course of 000°T and put the rudder right 30°. _____ is the direction the transfer will be measured.
58) When hugging a bank in a narrow channel, you should take precautions against ________
bank suction, squat and the effects of vessels passing close aboard, clogged sea chests, plugged sea strainers and overheated machinery, and striking underwater obstructions close to the bank.
59) Your vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel. The effect called bank cushion has this effect on the vessel:
forces the bow away from the bank.
60) The effect speed through the water has on a vessel which is underway in shallow water is; an increase in speed results in _____
the stern sucking down lower than the bow.
61) River currents tend to cause the greatest depth of water to be along the _____ of a bend.

62) When anchoring, good practice requires 5 to 7 fathoms of chain for each fathom of depth. In deep water you should use _____ chain for each fathom of depth.

63) A stream of water immediately surrounding a moving vessel's hull, flowing in the same direction as the vessel is known as:
wake current.
64) Your vessel has gone aground in waters where the tide is falling. The BEST action you can take is to ______
set out a kedge anchor.

65) In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the _____

distance gained at right angles to the original course.
66) The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is ______________
about one-third of the vessel's length from the bow.
77) As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake. The ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is called ______
wake fraction.
68) Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has __________
69) When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is about _____
one-third of the vessel's length from the stern.
70) This best describes an anchor buoy; _____
a buoy attached to the anchor.

71) You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, the best maneuver would be _____

full ahead, hard right rudder.
72) A vessel traveling down a narrow channel, especially if the draft is nearly equal to the depth of the water, may set off the nearer side. This effect is known as ______
bank cushion.
73) A common occurrence when a vessel is running into shallow water is that "squat" will cause a ________
decrease in bottom clearance and an increase in draft.
74) In order to reduce your wake in a narrow channel you should __________
reduce your speed.
75) When a vessel is swinging from side to side off course due to quartering seas, the vessel is ________
76) This action reduces the yawing of a vessel in a following sea; ___________
shifting weights to the stern.
77) A _______ mooring line has the least elasticity?
78) The best time to work a boat into a slip is at ___________
slack water.
79) After casting off moorings at a mooring buoy in calm weather, you should ____________
back away a few lengths to clear the buoy and then go ahead on the engines.
80) The best method of determining if a vessel is dragging anchor is to ____________
note changes in bearings of fixed objects onshore.
81) Generally speaking, the most favorable bottom for anchoring is ______________
a mixture of mud and clay.
82) Two mooring lines may be placed on the same bollard and either one cast off first if ____________
the eye of the second line is dipped.
83) When anchoring, it is a common rule of thumb to use a length of chain ___________ times the depth of water.
five to seven
84) Using a scope of five, you should put out ____ ft of chain to anchor in 12 fathoms (72 ft) of water.
85) You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should _______
put out the sea anchor.
86) The angle at which the fluke penetrates the soil is called the _________
tripping angle.
87) Anchors are prevented from running out when secured by ____________
the brake, devil's claw, and/or pawls.
88) Using a scope of 6, _______ of cable would have to be used in order to anchor in 24 feet of water.
144 feet
89) In stopping distances of vessels, ___________ can best be described as the distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the water.
head reach
90) The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been completed, is called the ____________
tactical diameter.
91) A twin-screw ship going ahead on the starboard screw only tends to move to _________
92) The BEST way to steer a twin-screw vessel if you lose your rudder is by _______________
using one engine running at reduced speed and controlling the vessel with the other.
93) You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, the best maneuver would be _____________
full ahead, hard right rudder.
94) The distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if there is no slip, is called _________
95) A twin-screw vessel can clear the inboard propeller and maneuver off a pier best by _______________
holding a forward spring line and going slow ahead on the outboard engine.

96) You may BEST turn a twin-screw vessel about, to the right, in a narrow channel by using _________________

port engine ahead and the starboard engine astern.
97) You are docking an oceangoing single-screw vessel under normal circumstances with a single tug. The tug is usually used to ____________
control the bow and is tied to the offshore bow.
98) You are on a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller. The vessel is going full speed astern with full right rudder. The bow will swing probably to _______
99) The force exerted by a propeller which tends to throw the stern right or left is called _________
sidewise force.
100) The forward movement of a vessel in one revolution of its propeller is measured by _________
the pitch.
101) A twin-screw vessel with a single rudder is making headway. The engines are full speed ahead. There is no wind or current. This statement is _____ turning response by use of the rudder only is greater than on a single-screw vessel.
102) While moving ahead, a twin-screw ship has an advantage over a single-screw ship because ___________
side forces will be eliminated.
103) You are conning a twin-screw vessel going ahead with rudders amidships. If the port screw stops turning the bow will go to ______
104) Your twin-screw vessel is moving ASTERN with rudders amidships. The starboard screw suddenly stops turning. Your vessel's head will go to ______
105) A twin-screw ship going ahead on the starboard screw only tends to move to __________
106) The BEST way to steer a twin-crew vessel if you lose your rudder is by __________
using one engine running at reduced speed and controlling the vessel with the other.
107) With rudders amidships and negligible wind, a twin-screw vessel moving astern with both engines backing will back ___________
in a fairly straight line.
108) The pitch of a propeller is a measure of __________
the number of feet per revolution the propeller is designed to advance in still water without slip.
109) The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that _________
it accelerates erosion.
110) You are on watch at sea at night and a fire breaks out in #3 hold. This should be done IMMEDIATELY; ___________
shut down the cargo hold ventilation.

111) Control of flooding should be addressed _________ control of fire.

112) The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit is ___________
one B-II.

113) The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the ___________

lower explosive limit (LEL).
114) Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is
115) You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed at _________
the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge.
116) A B-III foam extinguisher contains _______ of foam.
12 gallons
117) You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should put the vessel's stern _______
into the wind.
118) This statement is _______ . Halon as a fire extinguishing agent is always non-toxic.
119) A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by _________
weighing the extinguisher.
120) A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by ________
stopping the flow of gas.
121) These statements are ______ concerning carbon dioxide; it is heavier than air, it is non-conductive, and it is used on class B and C fires.


122) A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________
pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher.
123) Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________
continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds.
124) A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class ____
125) Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by _______
breaking the chain reaction.
126) Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be in _______
a metal container with a tight cap.
127) On a class "B" fire, this portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable; __________
water (stored pressure).
128) A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________
enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen.
129) This is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire; __________
danger of shock to personnel.
130) The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to ________
cool fuel below ignition temperature.
131) An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to _________
de-energize the circuit.
132) Regular foam can be used on all but this flammable liquid, _______
133) Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pump room, provided that __________
the ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space.
134) When compared to high-expansion foam, low-expansion foam will be ____________
more heat resistant.
135) This firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire; ___________
flooding a paint locker with O2 and sealing the compartment.
136) A chemical additive to LPG (Liquid Propane Gas) gives it a characteristic _________
137) To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________
close all openings to the area.
138) Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is ____________
a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds.
139) Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by ___________
breaking the chain reaction.
140) You used a carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher but did not empty the extinguisher. You must have it recharged if the weight loss exceeds _________ of the weight of the charge.
ten percent
141) A person who sees someone fall overboard should __________
call for help and keep the individual in sight.
142) On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, you should __________
stop the propellers from turning and throw a ring buoy over the side.
143) If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________
remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position.
144) Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by ___________
rigging a sea anchor.
145) A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. This action should be taken; _____________
immediately put the rudder over hard left.
146) When plugging holes below the waterline you should _____________
reduce the entry of water as much as possible.
147) You receive word that a person has fallen overboard from the starboard side. You should FIRST ____________
put the wheel hard right.
148) You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. The primary advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances is; _____________
you will be on a reciprocal course and nearly on the track-line run during the night.
149) In plugging submerged holes; ____________ should be used in conjunction with plugs to reduce the water leaking around the plugs.
rags, wedges, and other materials
150) The key to rescuing a man overboard is __________
well-conducted drills.
151) A person who sees someone fall overboard should _____________
call for help and keep the individual in sight.
152) You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. You should administer ____________
30 chest compressions and 2 inflations in each sequence.
153) A patient in shock should NOT be placed in a position ____________
with their arms above their head.
154) The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by ________
pinching the victim's nostrils and applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth.
155) When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed _________
about 1-1/2 to 2 inches.
156) You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Pressure should be applied to the _____________ on the victim’s body.
lower half of the sternum
157) Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done without __________
losing the rhythm of respiration.
158) In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by ___________
applying direct pressure to the wound.
159) A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should not ___________
be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives.
160) A compound fracture is a fracture in which the bone ____ visible.
may be
161) In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for ____________
the injury and for traumatic shock.
162) This ___ a symptom of traumatic shock; slow, deep breathing.
is NOT
163) For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is ______________
to immerse the burn in cold water.
164) The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is ___________
ammonia inhalant.
165) Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given ____________
large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water to induce vomiting.
166) Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by ____________
applying direct pressure to the wound.
167) A compound fracture is the __________ serious type.
168) The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to ____________
flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold water.
169) You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by ______________

preventing further movement of the bone.

170) These spaces are deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage; _____________
boatswain's stores, chart room, and spaces for the exclusive use of the officers or crew.
171) This space is deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage; ________
chart room.
172) This space is deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage; __________
boatswain's stores.
173) These spaces are deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage; ___________
spaces for the exclusive use of the officers or crew.
174) During the course of a voyage, a seaman falls on the main deck and injures his ankle. The Master should submit a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death if ____________
the injured is incapacitated or unfit for duty.
176) The difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage is; net tonnage is the gross tonnage less ________
certain deductible spaces, such as machinery and other areas.
178) When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in _______
the Oil Record Book.
179) This U.S. Government agency can suspend or revoke a Merchant Mariner's license for violating the load line act; _______
the U.S. Coast Guard.
180) This statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat installations on Great Lakes vessels; all lifelines shall be able to reach the water at ____________
the vessel's lightest draft with a 20° list.
181) Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of; _____________

sewage, the galley trash can, and an oily mixture of one part per million.

182) True or False: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for signals that must be sounded when being towed in restricted visibility.
183) True or False: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for lighting of mobile offshore drilling units being towed.
184) When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, after reporting the discharge you should __________
contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water.

185) As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, he should FIRST __________

call the Coast Guard.

186) The term "gross tonnage" refers to the vessel's approximate ___________

volume including all enclosed spaces less certain exempt spaces.

187) According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry includes vessels that; operate in other than __________ service, have provisions only for _________, or both; or operate on a ___________ between two points over the _________ route.

ocean or coastwise

deck passengers, vehicles

short run on a frequent schedule

most direct water

188) When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the ___________ before using chemical agents.
Federal On-Scene Coordinator
189) The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is authorized _____________
only with prior approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator.
190) Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel must be reported to _______________
the vessel owner or owner's agent.
191) Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. This is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil; _______________
placing it in proper disposal facilities.
192) The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall keep a written record available for inspection by the _____ containing the name of each person currently designated as ____________, the date and result of the ________________ and hose information including the ___________ for each hose.


a person in charge

most recent test on the system relief valves

minimum design burst pressure

193) The service life of distress signals must be not more than ________ months from the date of manufacture.
forty two
194) For the purposes of distress signaling, small passenger vessels that operate on runs of more than 30 minutes duration on lakes, bays and sounds, and river routes must carry ______________
three hand red flare distress signals, and three hand orange smoke distress signals.
195) Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger vessels are not required aboard vessels on runs of ________, must be Coast Guard approved and stowed in ______________, and must be marked with an expiration date not more than 42 months from _________.

less than 30 minutes duration

a portable, watertight container

the date of manufacture

196) The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. This statement is TRUE; fusible links ______
must be replaced if a damper is activated.
197) The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill _______
every month.

198) These small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB; a coastwise vessel whose route does not take it more than _____ miles from shore, a vessel operating on ________________, and a vessel operating within ____________ from the coastline of the Great Lakes.


lakes, bays, sounds, and rivers

three miles

199) If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, you will not be able to discharge plastic ____________
anywhere at sea.
200) You detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging. The FIRST thing to do is _________
shut down operations.
201) Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, you must be ______ from land to throw wooden dunnage into the sea.
25 nm
202) Air-cooled gasoline auxiliary engines are allowed on vessels not more than ________ in length, carrying not more than passengers if they have a and are installed __________
65 feet; 12; self-contained fuel system; on an open deck.
203) The minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on small passenger vessels which are more than 65 feet in length is ______.
204) You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within ___________
1650 feet (500 meters).
205) A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least _________
12 nautical miles.
206) Your fishing vessel is required to have a compass. It must also have a ___________
deviation table.
207) Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the “Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in a _____ against the _________________.
$650 civil penalry; person in charge of the vessel
208) A long ton is ___________.
2,240 pounds
209) The meaning of the term tare weight is the ___________
weight of a container.
210) This emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel; ____________
recovering an individual from the water.
211) On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe is not accessible, it’s shut off valve must be operable from _______, may be operable from ____________, and must be labeled at its operating point to show its _______________
the weather deck; any accessible location above the bulkhead deck; identity and direction of closing.
212) It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to __________
stop insects from entering.
213) The Tonnage Certificate indicates ______
net tons.
214) If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, the _________ must also be aboard.
radio station license
215) A vessel's Certificate of Documentation _______________
must be carried on board.
216) On the cargo manifest, the total weight of an empty cargo box is the ____________
tare weight.
217) The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. This information should be transmitted as __________, if time allows.
a series of short messages
218) The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________
156.8 MHz (channel 16).
219) The frequency the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications is __________
156.650 MHz channel 13.
220) The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to _____________
every power-driven vessel of 20 meters and upward while navigating.
221) You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger. You should use ____________
the urgent signal "PAN-PAN".
222) The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by the word _________
223) This item __________ required to be marked with the vessel's name; hand-portable fire extinguisher.
is NOT
224) This statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged; ________________
they should be replaced.
225) The minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel is ______________
four feet.
226) Life jackets should be marked with __________
the vessel's name.
227) This approved lifesaving device must be carried by a small passenger vessel carrying passengers for hire carry for each person on board (small passenger vessel regulations); _____________
life jacket.
228) Life jackets should be stowed (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations) _____________
throughout the accommodation spaces.
229) A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________
230) You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry, "Man overboard starboard side". You should instinctively __________
give full right rudder.
231) When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will _________________ any rudder commands before executing them.
repeat back to the watch officer
232) A look-out at the bow sights an object on your port side. He should sound __________
two bell strokes.
233) A look-out should report objects sighted using __________________
relative bearings.
234) When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should know ________________
the course per magnetic steering compass.
235) When steering a vessel, a good helmsman ____________ as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course.
does NOT use
236) You are standing wheelwatch on entering port, and the Master gives you a rudder command that conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. You should obey ___________
the Master.
237) When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should find it handy to know ______________
the amount of helm carried for a steady course.
238) You are standing watch on entering port and the Master gives a rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. You should ensure the helmsman ____________

obeys the Master.


or headspace is the unfilled space in a container, particularly with a liquid.

You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry "Man overboard starboard side". You should instinctively_______
give full right rudder.
A tunnel bow thruster ______________
provides lateral control without affecting headway.
___________ is loose material used to support and protect cargo in a ship's hold.
____________ is the carriage of cargo beyond the port for which it was intended.
_____________is small durable packages or pieces of cargo that may be stowed in spaces between larger pieces yielding reduced dunnage costs and maximum hold space utilization.
Filler cargo
Defense plans may cause the operation of electronic aids to navigation to be suspended with _________
no notice.
The primary hazard of loading a bulk shipment of steel turnings is that it is ______________
subject to spontaneous heating and ignition.
A person found operating a vessel while intoxicated is liable for ____________
a civil penalty of not more than $5000.
The maximum length allowed between main transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the _______________
permissible length.
Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this you should ______________
install shoring so the shoring supports the damaged bulkheads without pushing on them.
Floors aboard ship are _________________
frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a double bottomed ship.
When underway and proceeding ahead as the speed increases the pivot point tends to__________
move forward.
To determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold you would refer to the ______________
deck capacity plan.
The vessel's "quarter" is located ____________
on either side of the stern.
A wildcat is a _________________
deeply-grooved drum on the windlass with sprockets which engage the links of the anchor chain.
A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by ________________
drilling a hole at each end of the crack.
The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees isthe path followed by the ______________
center of gravity.
The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed is _____________
one-third the length of the vessel from the bow.
Under title 46 of the United States Code the person in charge of a documented vessel who fails to reporrt a complaint of a sexual offense may be ___________
fined up to $5000.
The stowage factor for a cargo is based up on _____________
one long ton.
When improperly tied the ____________ becomes a granny or thief's knot.
Square Knot
A vessel trawling will display a ____________
green light over a white light.
A towing light is __________
yellow in color has the same characteristic as a stern light and is shown on the stern of the vessel.
A 50 Meter barge anchored in a "Special Anchorage Area" designated by the Secretary requires ____________
2 lights.
A vessel approaching a bend in a river or an obstruction that blocks it's view would sound a whistle signal of ______________
one prolonged blast.
When a power driven vessel notices a sailing vessel approaching from astern it should ______
stand on.
Orange smoke is
a distress signal.
More than two vessels meeting would be considered a _____________
"Special Circumstance".
A vessel __________________is exempt from the regulations regarding separation schemes to the extent necessary to carry out their work.
servicing an aid to navigation
Two vessels meeting on inland waters that will pass starboard to starboard 1/4 mile apart without any maneuvering required for safety require passing signals of ____________
two short blasts.
A vessel constrained by her draft is one which _________________
must be a power driven vessel only applies when operating in international waters and must remain in a channel for safe operation.
You are navigating in a narrow channel in inland waters and must remain in the channel for safe operation - another vessel is crossing the channel ahead of you from your starboard and you doubt whether your vessel will pass safely - you must ________________
sound the danger signal.
When you come dead astern on inland waters of another vessel and desire to overtake you should sound ____________on your whistle signal.
one short blast
The masthead light may be located at other than the fore and aft centerline of a vessel less than ___ meters in length.
The duration of a prolonged blast of the whistle is _____________
4 to 6 seconds.
A bell is used to sound a fog signal for a _______________
sailing vessel at anchor.
If you see a vessel's green sidelight bearing due east from you the vessel might be heading ___________
south or southwest or southeast.
A vessel shall be deemed to be overtaking when she can see at night only the ______________
sternlight of the vessel.
A vessel trawling will display _______________
a green light over a white light.
If your vessel is not making way but is not in any way disabled and another vessel approaches you on your starboard beam - your vessel is the __________________
give-way vessel in a crossing situation.
Two vessels meeting in a "heads on" situation are directed by the Rules to ____________
alter course to starboard and pass port to port.
In Inland Navigation Rules the term "Inland Waters" includes:
a) the Western Rivers b) the Great Lakes c) shoreward of COLREGs line
Downbound vessel on the Western Rivers:
a) has the right of way b) shall propose the manner of passage c) shall initiate signals
Barge greater than 50m at a "special anchorage area" must have ___________
2 white anchor lights.
A partially submerged object towed by a vessel must show during the day one ____________
diamond shape regardless of length of the tow.
An _______________shall be used to indicate the presence of a partly submerged object being towed.
all-round white light at each end of the tow
Single barge towed alongside requires ____________
sidelights a special flashing light
A power-driven vessel must give - in addition to one prolonged blast - when backing out of a berth with another vessel in sight: ______________
3 short blasts
A power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside on the Mississippi River above the Huey P. Long Bridge shall cary ________________
sidelights and two towing lights
A chart position enclosed by a semi-circle is a(n) ______________
dead reckoning position.
In order to insure that the racon signal is visible on your 3 cm radar the rain clutter control should be _____________
off but if necessary may be on low.
The magnitude of a star can range from ______________
-1 to 10 with -1 being the brightest.
The range of tide is the ___________________
difference between the heights of high and low tide.
A rhumb line is a _________________
line crossing all meridians of longitude at the same angle and appears as a straight line on a Mercator projection.
A great circle is the _______________on the surface of a planetary body assuming a spherical model.
shortest distance between two points
To make sure you get full advantage of a favorable current you should reach an entrance or strait _____________the predicted time of the favorable current.
30 minutes before
You would check the ____________publication for complete information on the Puget Sound weather conditions.
Coast Pilot

A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a ___________


NGA (NIMA) charts are adopting the metric system. In order to change a charted dept in meters to feet you may use the conversion table found in:

a) the Light List b) Bowditch Vol. II c) on the chart.