• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off

Card Range To Study



Play button


Play button




Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

626 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Maintenance has asked you to check the oil, what level is considered normal?
One to two quarts low on dipstick
Your oil pressure is fluctuating by 10 psi, is this acceptable?
Yes, as long as pressure is 90-135 psi
What are two failures that will cause the ENG ICE FAIL annunciator to illuminate?
Immediate illumination: loss of electrical power, delayed illumination: inoperative actuator.
What is MAX idle ITT? If it is high how can we reduce?
750 C Reduce N1 loads, such as generators and air-conditioning, then by advancing condition levers to increase N1 RPM.
What is Max Take-off torque?
3950 ft-lbs
What is MAX Take-off ITT?
800 C
What is the normal oil pressure range
90-135 psi
What is a compressor stall?
At low N1 RPM, axial flow compressor stages produce more compressed air than the centrifugal stage can use. A compressor bleed valve compensates for excess airflow at low rpm by bleeding axial stage to reduce backpressure.
What is Max ITT for cruise?
760 C
What is the Torque limit if the primary governor fails? Why?
3538 ft-lbs Shaft Horsepower limit of 1279 SHP
What is the Torque limit if the oil pressure is less than 90 psi? Why?
2000 ft-lbs
Oil pressure below 90 psi is undesirable and tolerated only for completion of flight
What is the likely cause of a hung start at 38%? At 44%?
Stuck P2.5 valve
14 secondary nozzles not introducing fuel to the engine.
What should you do if you encounter a hung start?
Move condition lever to Fuel Cutoff and set the Ignition and Engine Start Switch to OFF. Follow engine Clearing or Restart procedures.
During start you notice fuel flow, but no ITT, what's the likely problem?
The ignitors are not on
What causes the L or R Fuel PRES annunciator to illuminate?
Fuel pressure below 5 psi STANDBY PUMP ON (failed side) consult checklist
Any limitations with the Fuel PRESS LO annunciator on?
Operation is limited to 10 hours before overhaul or replacement of the high pressure engine-driven fuel pump.
Can you depart with the Fuel PRESS LO annunicator on?
No, consult maint.
After pulling the Left T-handle, the L FW VALVE annunciator illuminates and stays lit, what does that indicate?
Left FW Valve has not reached its selected position
When are you supposed to use Auto-Ignition?
Used when runway contaminated, precipitation, icing or turbulence expected.
What is MAX ITT for start?
1000 C for 5 seconds
If the primary gov fails in flight, with an RPM of 1450 selected, what will control prop RPM?
Fuel Topping Governor
If the primary gov fails in flight, with an RPM of 1700 selected, what will control prop RPM?
OVerspeed Governor
If the low pitch solenoid burns out, what will happen to the prop in flight? On the ground?
On landing, will stay at flight idle until the power levers are lifted over the idle stop
If the cable to the prop control breaks, what will happen to prop RPM?
It will go to 1700
If the manual feather fails to feather the prop in cruise, how else could you feather the prop?
Arm autofeather, power full forward. If torquemeter oil pressure on either engine drops below 350 ft-lbs, oil is dumped from done, feathering starts the blades toward feather and AFX of other engine is disarmed
If the L Fuel QTY Annunciator illuminates what does that indicate?
LEss than 324 lbs fuel in tank - land as soon as practicable
If the R COL TANK LO annunciator illuminates what does that indicate?
Less than 53 lbs. LAND!
Can you MEL the Engine Driven boost pump? Limitation?
Yes. 10 hours before overhaul of high pressure engine driven fuel pump
Which standby bost pump must be operative to transfer fuel from the Left tank to the Right Tank?
The left engine standby boost pump must be operative.
Illumination of the XFER VALVE FAIL annunciator indicates?
The annunciator is activated if the transfer valve fails to move to its assigned position within 2 seconds.
If the cable to the prop breaks, what will happen to prop RPM?
It will go to 1700 RPM
If you pull the Left Condition lever to cut off in flight the engine will shut down, what should happen to the prop?
If AFX is inop, the prop will maintain on speed RPM unless feathered manually.
If the Engine Driven Boost Pump and the Standby Pump both fail, what happens to the engine?
Cavitation of the High Pressure Boost Pump is possible?
If both the Engine Driven Boost pump and Standby Pump fail, can fuel still get into the collector tank?
Yes Through Motive Flow and gravity feed.
What is the fuel transfer rate from Aux Tank to MAin Tank?
1.3 gallons per minute or 500lbs/hour
What is the power source for the firewall shutoff valves?
Hot Battery Bus
What is the maximum fuel imbalance between wing tank systmes?
200 lbs
If the Aux Tank Fuel Pump is inop, is the fuel in the Aux tank usable?
What is the situation - Gear Handle Down, Red light illuminated, CB not popped, one gear down position light is NOT illuminated
Gear is likely safe, proceed with checklist, Drag Brace Switch is the likely cause
What is the situation - GEAR Handle down, Red Light Illuminated, CB IS popped, one gear light is NOT illuminated.
Gear likely NOT safe - proceed with checklist and manually extend gear.
If the cable to the prop breaks, what will happen to prop RPM?
It will go to 1700 RPM
If you pull the Left Condition lever to cut off in flight the engine will shut down, what should happen to the prop?
If AFX is inop, the prop will maintain on speed RPM unless feathered manually.
If the Engine Driven Boost Pump and the Standby Pump both fail, what happens to the engine?
Cavitation of the High Pressure Boost Pump is possible?
If both the Engine Driven Boost pump and Standby Pump fail, can fuel still get into the collector tank?
Yes Through Motive Flow and gravity feed.
What is the fuel transfer rate from Aux Tank to Main Tank?
1.3 gallons per minute or 500lbs/hour
What is the power source for the firewall shutoff valves?
Hot Battery Bus
What is the maximum fuel imbalance between wing tank systems?
200 lbs
If the Aux Tank Fuel Pump is inop, is the fuel in the Aux tank usable?
What is the situation - Gear Handle Down, Red light illuminated, CB not popped, one gear down position light is NOT illuminated
Gear is likely safe, proceed with checklist, Drag Brace Switch is the likely cause
What is the situation - GEAR Handle down, Red Light Illuminated, CB IS popped, one gear light is NOT illuminated.
Gear likely NOT safe - proceed with checklist and manually extend gear.
What is the situation, Gear Handle Down, Red light NOT illuminated, CB NOT popped, gear down position light is NOT illuminated.
Gear light may be burned out, Proceed with checklist
Where does the alternate extension system gets its fluid?
The fluid is inside the reservoir in the main reservoir.
What indications would you expect if the hydraulic accumulator failed?
The hydraulic power pack would run more frequently.
Explain how the landing gear - gear up warning systems operates?
Flaps 17 and power retarded below approx 84-86% NI, horn will sound and handle illuminate if gear up. Beyond 17 flaps illumination and horn regardless of N1.
What does it mean when the HYD FLUID LOW annunciator is illuminated
Hydraulic Fluid is low. If gear fails to extend normally follow checklist.
After manual extension of gear red handle light is still on, what should you do?
Continue pumping until max resistance is felt and leave handle at the top of the stroke. Keep landing before and after landing.
A failure of which bus would render the landing gear motor inoperative?
Center Bus
A failure of which bus would render the landing gear indication system inoperative?
Triple Fed Bus
May you takeoff with the Yellow MAN STEER FAIL annunciator illuminated?
Where is the Hydraulic Power Pack located?
Left Inboard Wing
How do we check brake wear?
Wear pins should be visible
What is thermal runaway?
Thermal runaway is battery meltdown due to increasing temperature and decreasing resistance and increasing voltage.
What cockpit indications would lead us to suspect thermal runaway? What would you do?
Battery charge with voltmeter increasing or not decreasing.
What kind of battery do we have?
During cruise your L GEN TIE OPEN annunciator has illuminated, what equipment have you lost? What action do you take?
Nothing. Monitor L load meter, if less than 100% Bus Sense switch to RESET. If greater than 100%, turn off appropriate GEN and monitor opposite loadmeter not to exceed 100%
During cruise L AND R GEN TIE OPEN, L and R DC GEN, STALL HEAT, R ENVIR OFF, and R ENVIR FAIL lights illuminate, what has happened? Have you lost any equipment?
Dual Gen failure. Lost equipment, perform checklist.
In relation to the other buses, what should the voltage of the Triple Fed Bus be?
1 volt less - Diodes
During an electrical system check you find that the voltage of the TFB and other buses are the same. Is this normal?
NO - Diodes of the TFB have failed
How is AC power generated on the Beech 1900
By 2 AC Inverters
Where do the inverters get their power?
The #1 inverter is powered by the left generator bus and the left center bus. The #2 inverter is powered by the right generator bus and the right center bus.
What AC voltages do the inverters provide?
115 volt and 26 volt AC
What failure of what AC voltage triggers the L or R AC Bus Fail annunciators?
115 VAC
How is the failure of the 26-volt side of an inverter detected?
Instruments associated with it fail - Nav #1, RMI #2)
A Dual AC Bus failure has occurred, what is the correct response?
Use standy attitude indicator and Compass for attitude and heading control - Use checklist
What happens to the EFIS during a Dual Gen failure?
Depending on the strength of the battery, the captain's tube may stay illuminated for a short period of time. The FO's will blank out right away. Power can be restored by man-ties closed.
If neither generator will reset, will the landing gear work?
Extend gear manually
If neither generator will reset, will the flaps work?
No, Do not extend flaps if you elect to close the ties - to much of a drain.
If neither generator will reset will the prop deice work?
No, not without placing Gen Ties switch in Man Close and severly limiting battery duration.
What is the minimum voltage for a Battery Start? GPU start?
23 Volts, 20 Volts
If you have a dual BLEED air failure what flight instruments have you lost?
None, however the flight hour meter is inop
You are taxiing on a hot day, cold air is coming out of the eye ball vents and warm air is coming out of the floor vents, what steps could you take to further cool the cabin?
Open all the eyeball vents and allow time for bypass valve to close completely.
Does placing the TEMP control on full hot position warm up the cabin any faster than in the "normal" in-flight range.
What causes the CABIN DIFF Hi annunciator to come on? What action are you going to take?
Cabin diff exceeds 5.25 PSI, Bleed Air Valves to Envir. Off Oxygen as requried and descend as required.
What is the minimum oxygen quantity required for flight above 15,000ft?
1250 psi avg.
Which instruments use vacuum air pressure?
No flight instruments use vacuum pressure, however the Flight Hour Meter and vacuum gauge do use vacuum pressure.
Vfe Flaps 17
Vfe Flaps 35
Vmo sea level to 13,200
Vmo 13,200 to 25,000 ft
Emergency Descent Target Speed?
Maximum Range Glide
Turbulent Air Penetration
Holding Speed
Maximum Ramp Weight
Maximum Structural Take-Off Weight
Maximum Structural Landing Weight
Maximum Weight in Forward Cabin Baggage Compartment
250 pounds
What is the weight limitation of the closet hanger?
100 pounds
Aft Baggage Compartment - Forward Section
Aft Section - Aft Baggage Compartment

Weight Limitations?
630 pounds
Special Airports
National, Harrisburg, Binghamton, Wilkes-Barre, Burlington, Elmira, Saranac Lake, Charleston, Roanoke, Rutland
Who is the prop manufacturer?
What changes the propeller blade angle?
Oil pressure in the prop dome.
How many prop governors are there on the PT6A-67D engine?
3. Primary gov, hydraulic overspeed gov and the fuel topping governor.
What is the purpose of the primary governor?
Controls the propeller through its normal operating range.
What is the purpose of the hydraulic overspeed governor?
Prevents the prop from exceeding 1802 RPM in the event of a primary governor failure.
What is the purpose of the fuel topping governor?
Prevents power turbine overspeed by reducing fuel to the FCU, if the propellor exceeds 106% of selected prop RPM ( 96% in reverse condition)
How does the primary governor work?
Pilot valve speeder spring tension is controlled by the prop levers to counteract a flyweight in order to maintain an on-speed condition within the normal operating range of 1395-1700 RPM. It also allows for the manual feathering of the propellor.
You shut down the left engine to load another bag, how long must you wait before restarting the engine?
3 minute cool down from when the starter was turned off
What are the normal starter limits for an aborted start, clearing and restart?
20 seconds on, 30 seconds off

20 seconds on, 60 sec. off

20 secs on, 5 minutes off
Is an emergency evacuation (for a fire) required, if you are 100% sure the fire is extinguished and the situation no longer poses an immediate threat?
Not necessarily required. PIC has emergency authority
Will the Fire Extinguishing system operate without pulling the T handle?
No, the fire T handle must be pulled to arm the fire extinguisher push button circuitry.
What should happen to the Red T handle light after the fire has been extinguished.
Should go out after fire detect amplifier detects temperatures within limits.
Will the Fire Extinguishing system operate with the battery switch gang-bar off?
Yes, the fire extinguisher control switches are powered from the hot battery bus.
Will the Fire detection system operate with the loop broken?
In the event of a single break, the system remains operational, however the resistance at which the fire is sensed will change.
You are scheduled to fly 4 hours today and 3.5 hours tomorrow, due to ATC you fly 6.5. Can you still fly 3.5 hours with 8 hours rest?
You are scheduled to fly 7.5 hours but you have to divert, you exceed 8 hours, is this legal?
Yes but you MUST have compensatory rest.
Describe rest requirements for any 24 hour period.
Scheduled Flight <8 <9 9+
Rest 9 10 11
Reduced 8 8 9
Comp. 10 11 12
You are scheduled to fly 4 days in a row followed by 3 days of Ground School without 24 hours off, is this legal?
How many hours may you legally be scheduled to fly in a 7 day period?
34 hours
May we exceed a MRB day?
Can we carry dead-heading crew members on a ferry flight?
When aircraft characteristics have not been appreciably altered or flight operations are not affected substantially, company personnel may, with approval of dispatch, DO and PIC be carried on board.
Are we allowed to ferry an aircraft if something is inop that is not in the MEL?
Is a dispatch release required for a ferry flight?
Yes, and filed under a CommutAir call sign
Can we MEL the left Gen?
What type of ice is associated with freezing rain?
The mins for ILS 1 in ALB is 1/2 mile, tower visibility is reported as 1/4 mile, surface vis is 3/4 mile, may you execute this approach?
No Tower visibility is controlling in this situation.
The minimums for the ILS 4 in ROC is 1800 RVR, the tower is reporting the RVR is 1400 variable 2000, may you execute this approach?
No The variable portion is advisory only - not controlling.
The F/O has less than 100 hours, what are the restrictions?
Cannot take-off or land under the following:

Special Airports
Vis less than 3/4 mile
RVR less than 4000
Runway less than bare and dry
Braking action less than good
15 knot crosswing
Windshear reported
PIC discretion
When may we use the call sign, Life-Flight or Life-Guard?
If passengers remain on the aircraft on a through flight, who must stay with them? What is the PAX are non-revenue?
For both situations, a qualified crew member only - not Ramp personnel
Can a seeing eye dog occupy the forward cabin closet?
What is max landing weight?
What is Max Zero Fuel Weight?
You have 213 lbs of airfreight - what do you put on the LM1?
Look on the back of the RIC book
What is Max Allowable Take-Off Weight and how is it determined?
Lesser of:
MATOW for runway intended
MATOW considering enroute performance limits
MATOW considering landing limitations
MATOW considering landing distance limits
What weather do you need at your destination before you can depart?
Approriate weather reports and forecasts to indicate WX will be at or above landings minimums at ETA
When is a full power takeoff required?
First flight of day - cannot reduce
Runway contaminated - can reduce
Performance reasons - can reduce
Do you need a dispatch release to reposition an aircraft under FAR Part 91?
You are diverting to your alternate, is an amended release required?
Do you need an amended release if you are on the ground for more than one hour?
Yes, on a multiple leg release an amended release is required. (Block in to Wheels Up)
Do you need an amended release if your destination weather goes below minimums enroute?
Do you need an amended release to go to a different destination?
Diversion to a designated weather alternate does not require an amended release.

Diversion to any other airport does require an amended release unless PIC declares an emergency.
On a VFR release may we depart IFR and cancel in the air?
List the 4 company requirements when doing a low RVR take-off.
No Intersection departures
No tailwind
Torque set prior to brake release
Designate takeoff alternate
What is the lowest take-off min we may use if we don't have CL or RCLM's?
RVV 1/4 SM or TDZ RVR 1600
TDZ RVR is controlling
Mid RVR may be substituted with one of the following
Operative HIRL
Operative CL
Adequate Vis Ref.
With all the RVR's, what if the the RCLM's are obscured by snow?
TDZ RVR 1200 and Rollout RVR 1000 with CL and 2 operating reporting systems.
(mid RVR may be substituted for either)
(Tower vis may also be substituted with inop TDZ if prevailing vis is favorable)
What is the lowest take-off minimum we may use?
600, 600, 6000

If one RVR has failed, Takeoff authorized with remaining 2 RVR values of 600 or greater.
Describe in detail the wx requirements for FAR 121 VFR.
Departure and Arrival airport = 3000/5
Enroute = Current and Forecast vis of 5 SM or greater AND ceiling to cruise below reported or forecast ceiling between 6000-18,000 MSL or 3000 AGL whichever is higher
Where will the Take-off alternate be written down?
Dispatch release in the remarks section
Can PLB be used as an alternate based on ILS mins?
No - See chart, approach plate 11-1
After leaving gate, ops calls you back for an extra pax, do you need an amended release?
Yes, for any flight interruption.
While enroute to destination the forecast for destination goes below mins, is an amended release needed?
No amended release needed.
Need required visibility before reaching the FAF
While enroute to destination your alternate goes below mins, what happens?
Dispatcher is required to issue an amended release
When is a second alternate required?
Both destination AND 1st alternate ETA forecast wx is Marginal

(Marginal = celiing within 100 ft OR vis is within 1/2)

3585 Exemption
Describe how the 3585 exemption works?
Relief from conditional remarks (at destination and/or alternate)
Main body at or above required mins
2 alternates
Forecast wx for one of the 2 alternates is at or above mins in BOTH main body and remarks
WX update enroute
"Released under 3585" stated on release
What weather do we need to consider when determining if an alternate is usable?
When selecting an alternate airport, how are alternate minimums determined?
Method 1
One or more navigation aids
Add 400 & 1 to ANY approach minimum

Method 2
2 or more nav aids to straight-in approaches to DIFFERENT AND SUITABLE runways
Add 200 to higher ceiling
Add 1/2 vis to higher vis

NEVER lower than 400 & 1
When is a take-off alternate required?
When departure airport weather is below PIC landing mins.

Must be within 1 hour on 1 engine in still air (150 miles for us)
When are you required to list an alternate for a destination airport?

123 Rule (time, ceiling, vis)
Takeoff Alternate
Supplemental = operations outside of our defined route structure

Cabin Door or Cargo Door Annunciator
Which bus may fail without an annunciation? How do you check it?
TFB fault Check with overhead meter
Why do we use the fuel in the aux tank first?
Because a loss of electrical power or failure of the transfer pump will prevent the use of the aux tank fuel.
Name our special airports.
Washington National, Harrisburg, Binghamton, Wilkes-Barre, Burlington, Elmira, Saranac, Charleston WV, Roanoke, Rutland
What are the requirements for landing at a special airport?
Within the past 12 months the PIC or SIC has made a takeoff and landing while serving as a crewmemeber. OR PIC has qualified using pictorial means for that airport
Is there a grace month associated with the 12 month requirement for special airports?
If your qualification for a particular special airport has expired under what circumstances may you land if the pictorial review is unavailable?
Weather is 3 miles OR 1000 feet above lowest MOCA, MEA or Initial approach alitude for the instrument approach.
Can we carry HAZMAT?
What items of HAZMAT may we carry?
Small items:
self-defense spray - 4 fluid oz
May we carry small arms ammunition?
In checked baggage only.
How does the hydraulic overspeed governor (HOG)work?
The HOG speeder spring tension is set to oppose the flyweight at a speed of 1802 RPM. If the propeller speed increases above 1802 oil is released from the prop dome, which causes the prop blade to move to a coarser pitch preventing further overspeed.
How does the fuel topping governor work?
The gov compares N1 speed to power lever setting and adjusts the fuel flow to the FCU. Fuel may be reduced to min flow.
What is the low pitch stop?
A mechanically monitored, hydraulic stop.
What is the blade angle for Feather?
79 degrees
What is the blade angle for cruise?
What is the blade angle for Flight Idle?
What is the blade angle for Ground Idle?
What is the blade angle for Ground Fine?
What is the blade angle for Reverse?
How does BETA and reverse work?
Power levers change the position of the low pitch stop
What happens when you move the power levers?
The speeder spring on the N1 governor in the FCU is reset, which causes the FCU to increase, or decrease the fuel flow.
What happens when you move the prop levers?
Pilot indirectly controls the pilot valve by resetting the speeder spring withing the range of 1395-1700 RPM.
What happens when you move the prop levers rearward?
The pilot valve moves up, allowing oil to be removed from the dome, moving the blade angle to a coarser pitch.
What are the limits of the fuel topping governor?
In the ALPHA and BETA range, the fuel topping gov is set to 106% of the primary gov. In reverse range, the gov is reset to 96% of the primary gov.
Why is the fuel topping gov reset to 96% of the primary gov, in reverse?
To maintain an underspeed condition, which ensures that the prop will remain on the low-pitch stop.
What will happen if the primary gov control linkage were to fail?
An external spring on top of the gov will move the gov to a set speed of 1700 RPM
How does the Autofeather system work?
With AFX in ARM, when power levers are advanced above 90% N1, with torques above 1000ft-lbs, the power lever quadrant microswitches close. This illuminates the L/R AFX annunciator lights
What happens if the torque drops below 1000 ft-lbs and AFX is armed? And continues to fall below 350 ft-lbs?
The opposite engine AFX system is deactived. Below 350ft-lbs the associated AFX dump valve is powered to ground. IT will open and release oil from dome and will feather prop.
What happens when the AFX system is in TEST position?
The power quadrant microswitches are overridden.
When a propeller has autofeathered, what annunciator light changes occur?
The L/R AUTO FEATHER and AFX annunciators extinguish and the AFX DISABLE annunciator illuminates.
Is the propeller synchrophase a master-slave system?
No The slower prop is matched to the faster prop
Within how many RPM must the two propellers be for the prop synchrophaser to operate?
25 RPM
What is the path of the fuel from the collector tank to the engine?
Collector Tank, Manifold, Manual Shutoff Valve, Fuel Filter, Firewall shutoff valve, low pressure boost pump (45 psi), fuel-oil heat exchanger, high pressure boost pump (850 psi), fuel flow transmitter, to the nozzles
What is the total quantity of usable fuel?
1621, 621, 4484
What happens if the engine driven low pressure pump fails?
The L/R FUEL PRES LO annunciator illuminates. The high pressure pump suction feeds the engine to keep it running
What does the primary jet pump do?
By use of motive flow, it takes fuel from the collector tank and directs it towards the engine.
How is the collector tank filled?
From the main tank by gravity feed and two jet transfer pumps
What powers the firewall shutoff valves?
The hot battery bus or the opposite generator bus
How does the purge tank operate?
The tank pressurizes with P3 air when the engine is operating. During shutdown, pressure is released to push the remaining fuel into the manifold.
What happens when the fuel transfer switch is turned ON?
The standby pump (11 psi) is energized, the transfer valve opens, and the white FUEL TRANSFER annunciator illuminates.
What is the source of power for the standby pump?
Center Bus
What happens if the low pressure pump and the standby pump are inoperative?
Fuel will be suction fed to the engine by the high pressure pump
What are the limitations for suction feeding?
10 hours of operation before the high pressure pump needs to be overhauled or replaced
With the AUX pump switch in AUTO, what conditions must be met for fuel to transfer?
Fuel in the AUX tank and motive flow (engine running)
What happens if the L/R NO AUX XFR annunciator illuminates, but fuel is in the AUX tank?
Fuel is not transferring from the AUX tank to the collector tank.
What should the pilot do if the above situation is encountered?
Place associated AUX pump switch in the ON position. if the L/R/ NO AUX XFR annunciator remains illuminated, flight time may be limited do to loss of fuel availablity. Monitor the other AUX tank quantity to remain within balance limits.
What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
200 lbs
What turns OFF the auxiliary tank fuel pump?
Pump overheat (thermal cutout switch)
Loss of Motive Flow (10 psi switch)
AUX tank empty (float switch)
No Transfer (5 psi switch)
or pump switch to OFF position
How is fuel transferred into the auxiliary tank?
Thermal expansion only
Does the AUX tank gravity feed into the collector tank?
What is indicated if the FUEL TRANSFER annunciator is illuminated and the XFR VALVE FAIL annunciator is illuminated and stays ON after the fuel transfer switch is placed to the OFF position?
The transfer valve is fully open
When will the L/R FUEL QTY annunciator illuminate?
When the fuel sensor in the associated tank indicates less than 324 lbs of fuel remaining.
What is indicated if the XFR VALVE FAIL annunciator light remains illuminated, but the FUEL TRANSFER annunciator extinguishes, when the fuel transfer switch is placed in the OFF position?
The transfer valve is partially open
When does the visual fuel quantity indicator show RED?
When the fuel quantity is less than 1150 lbs on the outboard viewport, or less than 745 lbs on the inboard viewport
What are the limitations regarding the use of Avgas?
150 hours max of operation before engine overhaul, standby pumps must be operational and ON for takeoff and landing, and altitude not greateer than 180 MSL
What is indicated when the COL TANK LOW annunciator light is illuminated?
The fuel sensor in the associated collector tank indicates less than 53 lbs of fuel remaining.
What 2 fuel system components are lost with a dual generator failure?
The auxiliary fuel transfer pumps and the fuel vent heaters
What supplies DC electrical power to the aircraft?
DC Power is supplied by a 24 volt, 34 amp hour NICAD battery and two 28 volt, 300 amp starter/generators
What is normal system voltage?
27.5-29 volts DC
What is indicated by a BATT TIE OPEN annunciator illuminating?
The HED has opened the battery tie relay, isolating the battery from the center bus
What is the indication of a of a short on the left generator bus?
L GEN TIE OPEN and L DC GEN annunciators illuminate. The HED has sensed an excessive current flow and opens the left generator tie relay. The GCU opens the generator line contactor.
What happens when you get a short on the triple fed bus?
The voltage indicator reads zero volts in the TPL BUS position. All three 60 amp current limiters have blown
What closes the generator ties?
External power available and EXT PWR switch ON, generator on line, or MAN TIES CLOSED
What does the GCU do?
Provides votage regulation, line contactor control, overvoltage and overexcitation protection, paralleling and load sharing, reverse current protection, and cross start current limiting.
What supplies AC power to the aircraft?
By two inverters
What types of AC power are produced?
26 volt, 400 hz for engine instruments and some avionics; 115 volt, 400 hz for most avionics.
How are the inverters powered?
#1 off L Generator Bus, or the center if L GEN is unpowered
#2 is powered off R GEN, or Center if unpowered
What can be done if an inverter fails?
All of the items powered by the failed inverter can be transferred to the operating inverter by placing the failed inverters switch to the TRANSFER position
Why is the battery switch turned ON before the external power switch?
To prevent electrical spikes to the avionics
What does the white circle around certain switches indicate?
They are powered by either the center bus or the triple fed bus.
What is the rated output of the generators?
28.0 to 28.5 volts DC and 300 amps
What are the indications of a severe short on the center bus?
BATT TIE OPEN, L GEN TIE, and R GEN TIE annunciators illuminate and zero volts on the center bus
What electrical system protection is provided during the start cycle?
All HED's are desensitized to prevent the battery tie and generator tie relays from opening.
Regulated to 28.0-28.5 volts
Gen voltage within .5 volts of aircraft voltage. GCU closes line contactor connecting gen to gen bus; both gen ties are closed connecting the gen busses to the center bus; provides power to the battery charger and all aircraft systems
Generator will be disconnected if its output exceeds 32 volts
Load balance within 10% when total load is above 25%
If a generator is unable to produce 28.0-28.5 volts, it will draw power from the aircraft electrical system. The GCU will open the line contactor, isolating that generator
During cross start, the GCU controls the generator output to 400 amps
What does the external power high voltage sensor do?
It prevents the external power relay from closing when the voltage exceeds 32 +/-.5 volts
What are the battery voltage limits for starting?
23 volts for battery start
20 volts for an external power start
What precautions should be taken regarding the use of external power?
300 continuous, 1000 amps intermittent
Negative Ground
Avionics Master OFF, generator switches OFF and Battery switch ON prior to turning the external power switch to ON
How many times may a circuit breaker be reset?
Once, for essential equipment only
Under normal operating conditions, what is lost if the battery switch is turned OFF
Right pitot heat and the battery charger
Why is the landing gear relay circuit breaker pulled after a center bus short?
During landing gear operation, the HED is desensitized. When the landing gear handle is selected down, if the motor is not rendered unpowered, the battery tie relay would close, allowing the battery to drain to the center bus. The landing gear motor is a high draw item.
IF the left generator bus were to become isolated (L DC GEN and L GEN TIE OPEN annunciators illuminated), what systems would be lost?
The worst case situation would be if it occured at night. Some of the systems lost would be the flap motor, autofeather system, instrument background lights, #2 avionics bus and pilot intercom.
Which annunciators will illuminate with a center bus short?
Which annunciators will illuminate with a right generator bus short?
Which annunciators will illuminate with a triple fed bus short?
What is the production process for the four aircraft voltages?
24 VDC from the battery
Gens produce 28 VDC
Transormer-rectifier in the inverter changes the DC to 115 VAC. The step-down transformer in inverter reduces the 115 VAC to 26 VAC
What does illumination of the L/R AC BUS annunciator indicate?
The associated inverter has failed. Place the failed inverter switch to the TRANSFER
Does the loss of the #1 inverter 26 VAC illuminate the L AC BUS annunciator?

What are the indications?
Indications are a flag on the #1 EHSI and a flag on the #2 RMI
When the battery switch is place ON, what lights illuminate?
Why does the triple fed bus indicate one volt less than the generator buses and the center bus?
Ove volt is consumed by the three blocking diodes leading to the triple fed bus.
What does the CRS SEL pushboutton do on the DSP-84?
It selects the navigation sensors that display info as the active and preset arrows.
What does holding the course knob to the spring-loaded position do on the DSP-84?
It causes the preset course to be exchanged with the active course.
What is good operating practice regarding the EADI and EHSI?
Turn the brightness control down when maximum brightness is not needed. This will help prevent CRT image burnout.
Where does the radar receive its stabilization input?
From the #1 vertical gyro
What happens when a DPU fails?
A DPU FAIL annunciator appears on the EADI and EHSI. After 5 seconds both screens go blank, except for the DPU FAIL.
What annunciators come on when the EADI's differ by more than 4 degrees roll?
the ROL annunciator on both EADI's and the COMPARE PUSH TO RESET annunciators
If an XDTA warning flag appears on the Captain's EADI, what has been lost?
The ability to transfer the F.O's attitude information to the Captain's EADI, the #2 navigation info, and the DSP reversionary switch will not operate
Will the TCAS warn of all traffic?
No Only traffic with operating transponders within 2,700 feet of altitude, and within 20 nautical miles
What is the maximum pressure differential?
5.1 psid
What happens to the pressurization if electrical power is lost?
The aircraft will depressurize because the pressure regulating shutoff valve fails closed. The cabin cannot be dumped, but the outflow valves can be controlled.
What happens to the pressurization if vacuum is lost?
The outflow valves will close and the aircraft will pressurize to 5.1 psi.
Why doesn't the aircraft pressurize on the ground?
The preset solenoid valve is closed and the dump valve is opened when the left main gear squat switch is compressed.
Which annunciators will illuminate with a center bus short?
Which annunciators will illuminate with a right generator bus short?
Which annunciators will illuminate with a triple fed bus short?
What is the production process for the four aircraft voltages?
24 VDC from the battery
Gens produce 28 VDC
Transformer-rectifier in the inverter changes the DC to 115 VAC. The step-down transformer in inverter reduces the 115 VAC to 26 VAC
What does illumination of the L/R AC BUS annunciator indicate?
The associated inverter has failed. Place the failed inverter switch to the TRANSFER
Does the loss of the #1 inverter 26 VAC illuminate the L AC BUS annunciator?
No Indications are a flag on the #1 EHSI and a flag on the #2 RMI
When the battery switch is place ON, what lights illuminate?
Why does the triple fed bus indicate one volt less than the generator buses and the center bus?
Ove volt is consumed by the three blocking diodes leading to the triple fed bus.
What does the CRS SEL pushboutton do on the DSP-84?
It selects the navigation sensors that display info as the active and preset arrows.
What does holding the course knob to the spring-loaded position do on the DSP-84?
It causes the preset course to be exchanged with the active course.
What is the primary function of the outflow valves?
To allow control rate at which air can escape from the pressure vessel.
What other functions do the outflow valves provide?
Positive and negative pressure relief, depressurization of the pressure vessel, maintain an unpressurized vessel on the ground
What is the purpose of the volume tank?
It acts as a shock absorber for aircraft pressure bumps.
What provides negative pressure protection?
The outflow valves are designed to relieve pressure at -0.1 psid
What does placing the cabin pressure switch to DUMP accomplish?
The outflow valves are vacuumed to an open position and the ram air door solenoid is deenergized.
How does the air flow from the engine to the air cycle machine ACM?
P3 air ducted through or around the precooler, then routed through pressure regulating shutoff valve, envir air passes a temp and press sensor then a check valve, the routed through the ACM (mix of bypass air) then to the cabin
Where is the precooler located?
Behind the oil cooler, in the lower engine nacelle.
To what temperature and pressure is the environmental air normally regulated?
450F and 38 psi
At what temp & press will the L/R ENVIR FAIL annunciator illuminate?
500F or 44psi
How is cold air supplied to the cabin?
Both bypass valves fully closed, Bleed air flows across primary heat exchanger where cooled, then compressor (temp & press raised), ducted through secondary heat exchanger 2 times, exits as cool high pressure air, expansion turbine (press & temp drops), then through ejector and to cabin
How is warm air supplied to the cabin?
ACM bypass begins to open. This air is mixed with cold ACM air as it enters the ejector prior to entering the cabin. Full open bypass = max warmth.
What is the vapor cycle machine VCM?
It is a closed-loop heat exchanger
What happens to the environmental system if electrical power if lost?
The precooler through valve, precooler bypass valve and PRSOV close.
What is the cooling process of the VCM?
Freon compressor is operated by right engine accessory drive. Freon exits as high pressure, hot gas. Routed to condenser where freon becomes high pressure cool liquid. Flows to evaporators which cools cabin air and turns freon to hot gas. Gas returns to the compressor
When does the condenser blower operate?
When the landing gear is in the extended position
What is the purpose of the bleed air precooler?
To modulate bleed air temp to 450F
What valves close when the bleed air valve switch is placed to ENVIR OFF?
Precooler through valve, precooler bypass valve and pressure regulating shutoff valve
How is the environmental system reset after an ENVIR FAIL annunciator illuminates?
By placement of the bleed air switch to the ENVIR OFF position.
What does the mode control do.
AUTO-automatically controls the ACM bypass vlave
MANUAL - allows the pilot to control the ACM bypass valve
How long does it take for the ACM bypass valve to move full travel?
30 seconds
What happens when the mode controller is placed to MANUAL COOL?
The VCN will operate regardless of the ACM bypass valve position, as long as the temperature is 45F or greater.
What happens if the ACM bypass valve freezes in position?
The temperature is unable to be changed.
On a July morning while taxiing to the gate, you notice both ITT's indicating 690C. Later, during taxi for takeoff, you observe the left ITT at 730C and the right ITT at 760C, What is the probable cause and is any pilot action required?
The VCM compressor clutch is engaged. Reduce the electrical load on the engine or increase power, to drop the ITT to 750C or less (idle limit)
On hot days with the environmental temperature selected to full cold, why does the L/R ENVIR FAIL annunciator sometimes illuminate on or after takeoff, when the bleed air switches are placed OPEN?
It may be caused by back pressure from the ACM as air begins to turn the compressor turbine.
When both bleed air valve switches are place to INSTR & ENVIR OFF, what system still has P3 air supplied to it?
Brake Deice
In the above quiestion, is overheat detection still available?
No 18 psi air is not available to the EVA tubing.
Where are the oxygen bottles located?
In the right side of the nose compartment
How do you get oxygen to the passengers?
Pull the pilot oxygen knob, then pull the passenger oxygen knob
How can the pilot tell if the oxygen bottles are empty?
Oxygen pressure gauges on the co-pilot's subpanel indicate zero pressure.
How can the pilot tell if the bottles are empty from an overpressure situation?
Blowout disks on the lower sides of the forward fuselage are missing.
What is the maximum oxygen cylinder pressure?
Normal system pressure is 1850 psi. The bottles are capable of a maximum pressure of 2775 psi. If pressure reaches this point, the relief valve will open and the green discs will blow.
What is the difference between the pilot and passenger oxygen systems?
The pilot system is constant flow (3.8 lpm) while the passenger system is altitude compensated.
What is the flow rate to the passengers?
0.1 lpm at 1,000 feet to 2.9 lpm at 25,000 feet
Approximately how long will the oxygen supply last for a crew of two and 19 passengers, when operating at 25,000 feet msl, with full system pressure.
60 minutes
Can an aircraft be ferried with both oxygen bottles empty?
No Oxygen is required for the Electrical Smoke and Fire emergency procedures
What is vacuum pressure used for on the BE1900?
Deflate the wing deicing boots, and opening the outflow valves.
What is pneumatic air used for?
Production of vacuum pressure, inflation of the wing deicing boots, pressurize the environmental and brake deice EVA tubing, pressure for the hydraulic fluid reservoir.
What is the normal pressure of the pneumatic air?

To what psi is the overpressure relief valve set?
The pressure regulator produces 18 psi air. The regulator incorporates an overpressure relief valve set to 21 psi.
Where does air for the engine inlet lip heat come from?
Exhaust Gas
When should the pilot use ice protection?
When the outside air temp is at or below +5C in visible moisture
What happens when the surface deice switch is place in the SINGLE position?
The outboard wing boots inflate for 6 seconds (then deflate) next the inboard wing boots, stabilon boots, and stablizer boots inflate for 6 seconds (then deflate)
What happens when the surface deice switch is place in the MANUAL position?
All surface boots inflate and will remain inflated until the switch is released
What is the time limit for MANUAL inflation of the boots?
6 seconds
If electrical power is lost, can the boots be inflated?
No When there is a loss of power to the distributor valve, it fails to the vacuum (deflate)
What engine indications do you see when the ice vanes are selected down?
A rise in ITT and a drop in torque
How many motors control the ice vanes?
How many actuators move the ice vanes?
What is the time limit for the ice vanes to reach the extended position?
30 seconds
What happens when the prop deice switch is selected to the AUTO position?
32-38 amps are supplied to one prop for 90 seconds, then to the other side for 90 seconds. They will continue to alternate until turned OFF
What happens when the prop deice switch is selected to MANUAL?
32-38 amps are supplied to both props for as long as the switch is held.
Is there any precaution the pilot should take when using prop deice with the engines not running?
The props should be manually rotated to prevent heat damage to the brush blocks and slip rings
What is the difference between NORMAL and HIGH on the windsheild heat?
NORMAL heats the entire windshield surface HIGH heats 2/3 of the windshield surface
What are the precautions regarding the use of pitot heat?
The pitot heat should not be operated on the ground for extended periods of time
What part of the stall warning system is heated?
Both the lift transducer vane and the metal plate surrounding the vanes are heated.
Is a generator required to be on line for the stall heat to operate?
The battery and stall vane heat switch must be ON.
If the boots fail to deflate after the 6 second inflation period, what can be done?
Pull the SURF DEICE circuit breaker. This removes power to the distributer, which will then fail to the vacuum position. The boots will deflate.
What has happened if the L/R ENG ANTI-ICE annunciator light illuminates immediately after placing the switch to ON?
There has been a loss of power to the motor (switch to the other motor)
What would be the indication of a frozen limit switch on the engine anti-ice?
Both the L/R ENG ANTI-ICE and L/R ENG A/I FAIL annunciators would illuminate at the same time
Which annunciator lights illuminate when using the surface deice in the AUTO position?
OUTBD WG DEICE during the first 6 seconds, then INBD WG DEICE and TAIL DEICE for the next 6 seconds
How much power is provided to the stall vane and transducer when using the stall heat?
24-28 volts in the air. A reduced amount is supplied on the ground.
What will happen if the Captain's pitot and static ports become blocked?
The Captain's airspeed will read zero but the static instruments will read normally.
Do both pilot's static instruments operate from the same static source?
They are interconnected but are separate units
How are the static instruments affected when the alternate static source is used?
The airspeed indicator and altimeter will indicate high; the VSI will indicate a momentary climb when the alternate static source is selected
What other equipment receives a direct input from the F/O's static source?
The air data computer (GPWS) and the flight data recorder.
What causes the CABIN DIFF HI annunciator to illuminate?
The differential pressure switch has sensed a pressure difference greater than 5.25 psid between the cabin pressure and the alternate static source.
What is the asymmetric flap protection in the BE1900?
If adjacent flap segments differ by 3-6 degrees, power to the flap motor is interrupted and all 4 flap segments stop. This situation cannot be reset in flight. The flaps will remain at the setting they were at when the asymmetric condition occurred. The protection is designed to work between flap segments on the same side only, not right side/left side.
How many limit switches are associated with the flaps?
Where are the flap limit switches located?
In the right wing, forward of the inboard flap segments.
What warning system is associated with the flaps.
If the flaps are selected beyond the approach position, or the flaps are beyond the approach position, the landing gear wanring horn will sound. In this situation, the horn cannot be silenced.
What is the number of degrees associated with each flap position
17 & 35
What electrical bus is the flap motor located on?
Left generator bus
What would cause the flap indicator to point well left of the UP position?
Loss of power to the indicator
Which flap segment drives the position indicator potentiometer and the flap limit switches?
The inboard right flap
Can the pilot stop the flaps between handle positions?
Where is the hydraulic powerpack located?
Left wing, inboard of the engine nacelle
What prevents the landing gear from retracting on the ground?
The "J" hook in the landing gear control handle and a squat switch on the right main landing gear strut. The squat switch removes power to the motor.
What holds the landing gear UP?
Hydraulic Pressure
What holds the landing gear down?
When does the hydraulic motor shut off, in the retracted position?
When the system reaches 2775 psi.
When does the hydraulic motor turn on, in the retracted position?
When system pressure drops to 2320 psi
What keeps the landing gear motor from cycling on/off as hydraulic pressure bleeds off?
There is an 800 psi accumulator connected to the up lines
What happens if the hydraulic motor keeps running?
After 16 seconds, the landing gear relay circuit breaker pops, interrupting power to the motor.
The landing gear lever is put in the DOWN position one green light does not illuminate, the red in-transit light in the handle is illuminated; is the gear safe?
No Do Checklist
Approximately how many strokes does it take to manually extend the landing gear?
80 up and down strokes
What bus powers the landing gear motor?
Center Bus
How much pressure is needed to unlock the downlocks?
200 to 400 psi
How are the light bulbs tested in flight?
By pressing the annunciator test switch.
What is the maximum tire speed?
What is the normal inflation of the main struts and nose strut?
5 - 5 3/4 inches
Does the nose wheel turn when using the rudder pedals in flight?
No An actuator and cam in the stering linkage disconnects the steering
What is the source of hydraulic fluid for the power steering?
The brake reservoir located in the nose compartment
Where is the hydraulic accumulator located?
In the left wheelwell
Most likely caused by the drag brace switch signal to the gear handle. These switches tend to freeze in winter. Consult checklist
The power for the landing gear control, gear position indicating control and the aural warning are located on the TFB. Try restting the circuit breakers. Consult checklist
Probably caused by faulty actuator switch. Check to see that the 2 amp LANDING GEAR RELAY circuit breaker is in. Consult checklist
Probably caused by a gear strut that did not contact the UP position switch. Check that the 2 amp LANDING GEAR RELAY circuit breaker is in. That would indicate that the motor had shut off within 16 seconds. Checklist
The 2 amp LANDING GEAR RELAY circuit breaker should have popped. The problem may be located in an actuator shuttle valve. Checklist
Check that the landing gear manual extension handle is properly stowed. Checklist
Where is the brake fluid reservoir located?
In the upper side of nose avionics compartment
What is a precaution to use when using the parking brake system?
Do not use the parking brake for extended periods of time in either hot or cold weather. The system is not thermally protected.
What pressurizes the brake fluid reservior?
Pressurized cabin air, or atmospheric air.
What is an unusual characteristic of the avionics system?
It is powered off
From where does the #1 avionics bus get power?
From where does the #2 avionics get power?
Left Generator Bus
From where does the #3 avionics get power
Right Generator Bus
If the avionics master switch were to become inoperative, what other way is there to turn on the avionics?
Pull the avionics master circuit breaker
What is the power source to the EHSI?
CDI Needle = 26 Vac
Compass Card = opposite RMI (26 VAC)
ILS = 28 VDC
What is the power source for the EADI?
115 VAC
What indicates loss of the #1 26 VAC?
Flight recorder OFF annunciator illuminates, HDG flag on the Captain's EHSI, and a flag on the F/O's RMI.
What indicates the loss of 115 VAC?
L/R AC BUS annunciator illuminates
At what voltage will the EASI and EHSI displays " blank out"
Below 18 VDC Normal operation resumes when the voltage rises above 18.4 VAC
How is the landing gear extended and retracted?
Hydraulic Power Pack in conjunction with Hydraulic Actuators located at each landing gear.
What does the Hydraulic Power Pack consist of?
Hydraulic Pump
28 Volt DC Motor
2-section fluid reservoir
4-way gear selector valve
Up and Down selector solenoid
Fluid level sensor
Retract pressure switch
What is a current limiter?
Slow Blow fuse
What is a Diode?
Permits current flow in only one direction.
What is a relay?
May require energizing to open or close
What is a Hall Effect Device?
Current sensing unit, which will open its respective gen bus tie (above 325 amps) in an overcurrent condition. Desensitized during engine start and landing gear operation (Bat Tie Only)
What are the dimensions of the BE 1900?
58 feet long, 58 feet wide, 15 1/2 feet high
What is the prop tip to ground clearance?
14 inches
How many emergency exits are on the BE-1900?
Four. The main cabin airstair and three overwing exits
What prevents the airstair door from being opened in flight?
There is a differential-pressure-sensitive diaphragm in the release button mechanism.
What lights are controlled by the airstair door switch?
Five threshold step lights, and one interior partition light.
How are the control surfaces operated?
What powers the engine instruments?
ITT Gauges = 28 VDC
Torque Gauges = 28 VDC
Prop RPM Gauges = 28 VDC
N1 Gauges = 28 VDC
Fuel Flow Gauges = 28 VDC
Oil Temp and Press Gauges = 28 VDC
How many rotary camlocks engage in order to lock the airstair door?
The Beech 1900D is powered by what type of engine?
PT6A-67D, reverse flow, free turbine, turboprop, rated at 1279 shp
How does the air flow through the engine?
Air enters air inlet near rear of engine, passes four axial stages of compressor, through centrifugal stage compressor, into burner can mixed with fuel for combustion, then single stage compressor turbine, 2 stage power turbines and exhasuted overboard
What is the purpose of the P2.5 valve?
To prevent backup of the pressure against the axial compressor blades, the P2.5 valve is open at low N1, and air is routed back to first stage. As N1 speed increases and centrifugal compressor becomes more effective, P3 air pressure increases and gradually closed the P2.5 valve.
Is the compressor section and power section physically connected?
No, hence the name free turbine
How many fuel nozzles are located in a burner can?
28 nozzles, 14 primary and 14 seconday. The secondary nozzles are opened at 40-45% N1. They provide for a cooler start and an increased rate of engine acceleration.
What indication will the pilots see if all 28 nozzles are opened during initial engine start-up?
Higher than normal fule flow. Hot Start
When is autoignition used?
During flight in moderate or greater turbulence, in icing conditions, or in heavy precipitation.
What is oil used for in the PT6A-67D?
Oil lubricates the engine bearings, controls prop blade angle by way of the prop gov, fuel heat, and engine torque measurement.
What should the pilot do if the L/R OIL PRESS LO annunciator illuminates?
What are the indications of the P2.5 valve being stuck open?
At high power settings - high ITT and low torque
What are the indications of the P2.5 valve being stuck closed?
At low power settings - compressor stall.
When do the secondary nozzles open?
Approximately 40-45% N1
How much combustion energy is used to operate the compressor section?
60% The remaining 40% is used by the power section
What main items are located on/in the accessory section?
Starter generator, high pressure fuel pump, N1 tach generator, low pressure fuel pump, lubricating oil pumps, scavage oil pumps, fuel-oil heat exchanger and fuel control unit.
What happens when the engine start switch is placed in the IGNITION AND ENGINE START position?
The battery or external power is connected to the starter/generator, the standby fuel pump is energized the HED's are deenergized, the starter turns the N1 shaft, and the igniters are energized
What happens when the start is placed in the STARTER ONLY position?
The battery, or external power, is connected to the starter/generator, the HED's are de-energized, the starter turns the N1 shaft.
After a start, if a generator will not go on-line, what should be checked first?
The starter switch is in the OFF position.
After a start, if a generator will not go on-line, what should be checked first?
The starter switch is in the OFF position.
Initial Windshear recovery procedures include?
Pitch 15 degrees, Power - Maximum, Configuration - Maintain
All avionics drop off line but circuit breaker does not trip?
Avionics Master Switch may be the cause - Pull that CB
What do winglets do?
Enhance Climb performance and extend effective wing span to improve range
Why were stabilons added to the 1900?
Improve pitch stability for the unusually wide CG range of 4-40% MAC
Great positive recovery characteristics from deep stall flight
What do you do if the brakes are frozen?
Use anti-ice solution that DOES NOT contain oil-based lubricants
If tires are frozen, use defrosting fluid or a ground heater
What is the normal rate of climb for 2 engine? 1 engine? 1 engine @ 5000?
2350 fpm
500 fpm
390 fpm
What is the cabin heigth of the B1900?
71 inches
Where is the Aux Tank located?
Inboard section of the wings between the engine nacelle and the fuselage
How is the cabin heated and cooled?
Engine Bleed Air - ACM but bypass opens for heating.
The ACM provides cooling-Ejector bypass valve closes and max cooling is available
What electrical components protect against power loss should a ground fault occur?
HED sensors, bus tie relays, current limiters isolate a fault from it's power source
How do you monitor the voltage of the EXT PWR?
Voltmeter select on overhead panel
When using Ext. power are the starters powered?
Describe Slow Flight procedures
5000 AGL and Above
Bank Angles less than 20 degrees
CLEAN = 110
T/O = 100
Landing = 95
How are collector tanks fed?
Filled from Main Tank by gravity feed and 2 jet transfer pumps which maintain fuel level in collector tank
What does the fuel purge system do?
Makes sure that residual fuel in the fuel manifolds is consumed during engine shutdown.
P3 air pressurizes a small air tank
Air forces all residual fuel out through the nozzles and into the combustion chamber where it is consumed. May have a short N1 spike
Visual Fuel Quantity Sensors
Lower surface of each wing.
When NOT submerged in fuel are red with a black dot. Submerged = Black
Outboard - <1150 lbs
Inboard - <745
What happens if the outflow valve is stuck open?
Cabin altitude climbs with airplane.
What do you do if you see the L DC GEN/ R DC GEN light?
What charge rate will illuminate the yellow Battery Charge annunciator light?
More than 7 amps, for 6 or more seconds
What do the positions of the Bleed Air switches indicate?
OPEN = pneumatic/Instr air valves are open
ENVIR OFF = Envir close, instr open
INST & ENVIR OFF = All bleed air valves are closed
What are some Fuel system Anti Ice systems?
Fuel vent system is heated (electrically)
Oil-to-Fuel heat exchanger
Will there be any indication in the cockpit if Engine Anti-Ice is ON?
YES 2 Green advisory annunciators
How does prop deice work?
Used as ANTI ICE system
AUTO provides 90 second cycle one prop at a time
MANUAL wil heat both at the same time
Monitor prop ammenter 32-38 normal range
No prop deice while static
What are the dimensions of the B1900D?
58 X 58 X 15.5
Where are the replacement bulbs for the Annunciator Panel?
The bulbs are where you see the dashed lines on the panel
What is the HED amp limit?
What aircraft objects have deice boots?
Wings, Stabilons, Horizontal Stabilizer, Tailets
How does the surface deice system work?
Pneumatic pressure inflates - vacuum pressure deflates
Turn Switch to SINGLE = one cycle, outboard first 6 seconds all others in the next 6 seconds.
Turn switch to MANUAL - all boots inflate together, remains inflated until switch is released - this is used if timer has failed.
What is the Ground Turning Clearance?
What is the tolerance for load balance between the 2 generators?
Within 10% when above 25% on load meters
Describe the Autoignition system?
Used for icing flight, turbulence and heavy precipitation
If armed, ignitors automatically activated when torque falls below 750 ft lbs
If activated, Ignition will illuminate
How long after engine start will you see the Battery Charge light illuminated?
5 mins
What items operate off the Hot Battery Bus and why are they on the Hot Battery Bus?
L/R Eng Fire Extinguisher
L/R FW Shutoff Valve
Ext Power over-voltage sensor and advisory light
Door entry lights
Cockpit Emergency Lights
Cabin Loading Lights
Cargo Comp Lights
What do the ENG AUTO Ignition switches do?
While in ARM position, igniters will automatically operate if engine torque falls below 700-750 ft lbs and IGNITION ON annunciators will illuminate
Where do you monitor the electrical loads on the GCU's?
Overhead Meter Panel
What is normal system voltage?
28.25 maintains battery @ full charge
How many buses are there? And what are they?
Triple Fed Bus
Hot Battery Bus
Advisory Annunciator: ENG ANTI-ICE
Ice Vane is extended
What do the white rings around the switches indictate?
That switch receives power from the Center OR Triple Fed buses
Under what conditions should Engine anti-ice be used?
BEFORE visible moisture is encountered at OAT +5degrees and below

At night when freedom from visible moisture is not assured and the OAT is +5 degrees or below
What are the Bus Items on the Battery Bus
Right Hand Pitot Heat
What % of SHP = Jet Thrust
Why do we use fuel from the Aux Tanks first?
No gravity flow from the Aux Tanks to Main. So, if there is a problem with the Aux we've used them up already
Where are the emergency exits and how many are there?
2 on right side of fuselage @ leading and traling edges of the wings and one on left side of trainling edge. Cargo Door and Entry door as well
What is max cabin alt before the CABIN ALT HI annunciator illuminates?
10,000 Feet
At what altitude do you set the cabin altitude selector for descent?
500 feet above landing PRESSURE ALTITUDE
FLAPS - 17 degrees
Airspeed - 180 knots

a 30 degree bank helps get the 10-20 degree nose down attitude - sqwak 7700
What is the oil capacity for each engine?
3.6 gallons
What fuel can be used in the B1900?
Jet A and AvGas
What should our tire pressure be?
Mains = 95 psi
Nose = 60 psi
What is the min battery voltage for battery start?
23 volts
How does the fire extinguishing system work?
Fire extinguishers in each wheel well
2.1 lbs of Halon @ 360 psi -700F
2 nozzles - one for engine exhaust and one for accessory section
Once activated it's fully depleted
On Hot Battery Bus
Armed via pulling the T-handle
How is Bleed Air cooled and regulated?
Bleed air from P3 is precooled to 450F by precooler heat exchanger aft of the engine oil cooler
Regulated to 38 psi by regulator valve
What is the minimum battery charg allowable for Ext PWR starts?
20 volts
Oil Pressure Limititations
0-200 START
60 min for IDLE
90-135 T/O
90-135 MC
90-135 CC/MC
90-135 MR
40-200 TRANS
Engine Limitations - Prop RPM N2
950 min IDLE
1700 T/O (may be exceeded with cold oil & props full forward)
1735 - 5 min while setting props
1650 MR
1870 = 20 seconds
Engine Limitations - Oil Temp
10-105 Normal Ops
-40 - 110 Trans
-40 min Start
110 - 10 minute limit
105-110 = 5 minutes
Engine Limitations - ITT
1000-870 = 5 seconds
870-800 = 20 seconds
800-780 = 5 minutes
780 and below - N/A
Engine Limitations - Gas Gen RPM %N1
65 min IDLE
Engine Limitations - SHP
1279 = 5 minutes
Amount of Oxygen - Minimum Required
To 10,000 - avg 300 PSI
10,000 - 15,000 Avg 900 PSI
15,000+ = AVG 1250 PSI
Engine Limitations - Torque
3950-5000 = 20 seconds
3750-3950 = 5 minutes
BUS SENSE TEST - Why is it done?
Spring loaded to NORM position
Pressing test connects bus voltage to each current test circuit
Only press momentarily
Where is P3 located? What is P3 air used for?
Bleed air is located after centrifugal compressor and prior to combusition chamber is P3. Used for Cabin Heat, pressurization and pneumatic system
What is the function of the Oil cooler and how does it work?
Thermostatically controlled to maintain temperature
When scavange oil reaches 71C its diverted through the cooler
A seperate unit oil-to-fuel heat exchanger uses the hot oil to heat the fuel before going into the engine.
How do fuel quantity probes work?
Capacitance type probes
Measures density of fuel and are calibrated to read pounds of fuel
Each tank has 6 probes
Each Aux tank has 2 probes
What are Firewall Shutoff Valves?
Motor driven and require electrical power for opening and closing
One each engine
Activated by the T handles

If either generator will reset, do not exceed 100% load on operating generator, procedure ends here
If neither generator will reset, turn-off non-essential equipment, continue with follow up items



If condition persits:

if confirmed

BLEED AIR VALVE - INST & ENVIR OFF (affected engine)
Warning Light:
Cabin Altitude exceeds 10,000 feet


Oil Pressure Gauge Confirm Below 60 psi

If confirmed, secure suspect engine, OR land at nearest suitable airport using min power to sustain flight

If Not Confirmed, monitor engine instruments, continue to destination, consider alternatives in the event the situation changes

Battery isolated from GEN BUSES
What is the min temperature for use of the deice boots?
Below -40F
How many engine driven fuel pumps are there?
What air is used for pressurization?
P3 or Bleed Air
What happens if there is a complete electrical failure (in terms of pressurization)?
Envir regulator/shutoff fails to closed and cabin leaks down
What is the basic air delivery?
Compressor-Precooler-Regulator/Shutoff - Envir Bleed system-ACM-Outlets in side wall-Outflow Valves
What senses an engine fire?
Temperature sensing cable looped around each engine - approx set value is 100 ohms
What is one load sharing action?
When battery is only source of power - automatically both gen buses are isolated
How does the oil travel?
Pumped from a tank - passes through press & temp sensors - travels through external transfer line below engine-scavage pumps return oil through external oil cooler below the engine
Situation: High N1, Torque decrease, ITT increase slightly - What is happening?
Bleed Air Valve Stuck Open
Name 5 items on the R Center Bus
#2 Inverter Power
Ground Warning Light
Taxi Lights
Windsheild Wiper Motor
L Fuel Boost Pump
L/R Fire Extinguisher Monitor
Ice Lights
What does the hydraulic accumulator do?
Precharged to 800 psi and located in the left wheel well and aids in maintaining pressure in the retract mode
Name a key landing gear warning system?
Flap position sensing
Where is ITT measured?
How do you monitor individual buses?
Voltmeter Bus Select
What are the 2 Module Sections of our Powerplant? What are their functions?
Power and Gas Sections

Power section converts gases into mechanical action

Gas section draws air, adds energy and produces gases
What is in the Compressor?
4 axial stages and 1 centrifugal stage on one shaft
With the master switch on, what buses are powered? What lights are illuminated?
Battery, Center and TFB


Taxi Light is on with landing gear UP

Gen Bus isolated from Center Bus

Firewall Valve has not reached selected position
What does the hydraulic accumulator do?
Precharged to 800 psi and located in the left wheel well and aids in maintaining pressure in the retract mode
Name a key landing gear warning system?
Flap position sensing
Where is ITT measured?
How do you monitor individual buses?
Voltmeter Bus Select
What are the 2 Module Sections of our Powerplant? What are their functions?
Power and Gas Sections

Power section converts gases into mechanical action

Gas section draws air, adds energy and produces gases
What does the GEN-TIES MAN CLOSE/OPEN switch do?
Closes, manually, the gen bus tie relays and connects the gen buses to the center bus allowing the battery to feed the entire system.

L AC BUS has inop inverter
How does the Synchrophaser work?
Matches the RPM of the slower prop to the faster prop. It actually resets the governor.


If the Envir Fail annunciator extinguishes continue operation, if remains illuminated:

What is a Compressor Bleed Valve?
With low RPM there is too much air for the Centrifugal, this valve alleviates backpressure to prevent compressor stalls. As power goes beyond 72% N1 it closes progressively and above 90% it's closed
How is the fuel system powered? From which buses?
Powered by Aux Transfer pumps = gen bus

All others = battery powered
What are the limitations when you've mixed fuels?
150 hour limit
Prohibited if a standby pump is inop
Prohibited flight above 18,000
When do you need a Full Power Take-Off?
First Flight of the Day
Runway Contaminated
Flaps 17 not available or desired
Ice Vanes Extended
What are some conditions in which you would have a red gear handle warning?
Ldg gear handle is in the UP position while on the ground

A power lever retarded below 84-86 % and landing gear is not down and locked.

1-3 gears not down and locked

Warning horn is silenced with gear unsafe

Pitot Heat
Insufficient current to provide heat to prevent icing
Does automatic load sharing occur when you lose an inverter?
No. Must select XFER. No loss of any operational capability.
What happens to the L Inverter if the L Gen bus is not operating?
Goes to the Center Bus
Where do your Avionics buses connect to?
#1 = Triple Fed Bus
#2 = L GEN BUS
#3 = R GEN BUS

Collecter Tank is below 53 lbs - 8 mins of cruise fuel left @ 400 lbs per hour
What is the Prop/Shaft Gear Ratio?
What is the function of the stator vanes?
They diffuse the air, raise it's static pressure and direct to next stage
Name 6 elements of airborne holding?
1) Reduce speed 3 minutes out to 160 knots indicated
2) Clean Configuration
3) 1 min turns below 14,000 and DME or 1.5 above 14,000
4) Get an EFC time
5) Advise ATC when established and include altitude
6) Communicate with dispatch when entering include fuel supply and EFC
At what degrees are Flight and Ground Low pitch stops?
In flight the low pitch stop is 12.7

Once wheels touch, low pitch stop is 4.9

Landing Gear hydraulic fluid level is low
What does the Jet Transfer Pump do?
Maintain fuel level in the collector tanks

One or both ground idle low pitch stop solenoids are malfunctioning

Below 324 lbs Usable
What causes a Compressor Stall?
Bleed Air Valve is stuck closed @ low RPM and you bring power up.
What are the Stall speeds in the sim?
Flaps 0 = 101
Flaps 17 = 92
Flaps 35 = 84
What is the function of the GCU's?
Regulate output to supply constant voltage to the buses, compensating for variations in engine speed and electrical loads.
What are the 3 positions of the Condition Levers and corresponding N1?
Fuel Cutoff, Lo Idle, Hi Idle

Lo = min 65% N1
Hi = 71%
What is the range for the overspeed Gov Test?
1535-1595 RPM
What do the Power Levers do?
What are the 3 regions?
They Control engine power from idle to Takeoff power by operation of the N1 governor in the FCU.

The 3 regions are Flight, Beta and Reverse
What does the FCU do?
Compares gas generator speeds (N1) with power lever setting and regulates fuel to the engine fuel nozzles.

Also sense compressor discharge pressure and compares it to N1 rpm to establish acceleration and deceleration fuel flow limits

Pressure in wing deice boots is sufficient to deice

Partial power loss to some annunciator lights
What engine indications vary with altitude, ambient air temp and prop setting?
ITT, Torque and Fuel Flow
What is the pitch range of the prop?
Feather = 79 degrees
Max Reverse = -14.5

Total Range = 93.5
What are the 2 primary operating parameters which limit engine power?
ITT & Torque

Cold or Low = Torque limiting factor
Hot or High = ITT limits power
Is generator bus power required for engine start?
What switch controls battery and generator power to the electrical system?
Master Switch
What is the normal range for vacuum pressure?

5.9 is the normal reading
Where is the battery located?
Right Center Wing
What are a couple of precautions when using external power?
External Power unit is turned off before connecting it
Radio etc switch are off

Battery should be on

Use checklist
What are the limitations of the Vapor-Cycle System?
Temp sensor shuts system off when outside air temperature is 45F and below

If pressures are exceeded pressure switches deactivate freon air conditioner
How many ignitors do we have, what type and how many do we need?
We have 2 spark-type ignitors and need only one for start.
What is the volt range of the ignitors? How many volts are produced?
9-30 volt range, 3000 volts are produced.

They are turned off after engine start when combustion becomes self-sustaining
What do the following indicate?
MAN CLOSE = Battery power is closing relay
OPEN = No power closing relay
NORM = Either gen or ext power causing closure

Autofeather Off
AFX System is turned off with landing gear extended
How does the FCU Operate?
The flyweight gov is the feedback element of the speed select system. As N1 increses or decreases the flyweight action changes the 3-D cam setting which changes the fuel flow valve to maintain selected N1 speed.

P3 air is used to protect overspeeds. P3 will decrease and reduce fuel flow to the gas generator
When is Autofeather required to be armed? How does it work?
Required to be armed on Takeoff, Climb, approach and landing

If torque meter oil pressure on either engine drops below 350 ft lbs oil is dumped AND autofeather on the good engine is DISABLED.
What kind of battery do we use?
24 Volts, 34 Amps
What is the air delivery rate?
8-16 lbs per minute
What are the 4 functions of the outflow valve?
1-Control rate that air can leave pressure vessel
2-Provide positive and negative diff pressure relief
3-To depressurize when DUMP is selected
4-Keep unpressurized on the ground - Left Sqwat Switch
If extension or retraction of the Ice Vanes fails what happens and what do you do?
If after 30 seconds the vanes have not reached their position the L/R ENG ICE FAIL light will come on.

If illuminated, standby actuator should be selected
What are the positions on the Bleed Air Valve and what are the functions?
OPEN = BA Regulator/shutoff valves and pneumatic/instrument air valves are OPEN

ENVIR OFF = BA Regulator/shutoff valve CLOSED pneumatic/inst = OPEN(no BA is allowed for pressurization or temp control)

INSTR & ENVIR OFF = Nothing Open
What are normal climb speeds?
Sea Level - 10,000 = 160
10,000 - 15,000 = 150
15,000 - 20,000 = 140
20,000 - 25,000 = 130
How do you bring your invertors back on line after a dual gen failure?
Manually close the gen ties switch
How many jet pumps do we have and what functions do they serve?
3 Pumps (main, forward, aft)
Main is in the collector tank and sends fuel to engine
Aft is in collector tank and brings fuel to collector tank
Forward draws fuel from main and sends to collector

Collector may also be gravity fed

Transfers via a venturi effect.
Cross Transfer Ops

Where is the line?
How is cross transfer initiated?
Cross transfer line connects the collector tanks

Standby pump sends the fuel bar are in the off position while transferring. It pushes the fuel to other tank
What are three reasons why you wouldn't pressurize?
1) Cabin Pressure switch is in DUMP
2) Failure of the L Main gear squat switch
3) Failure of the dump solenoid
What are the components of the landing gear assemblies?
Shock strut, torque links, drag brace actuator, wheel, tire and brakes
How does the landing gear work?
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.

Downlocks/Actuators hold gear in extension

Hydraulic pressure holds the retracted gear

R Main gear has the squat switch interupts power to motor - also secures landing gear control handle in the down position

Both L & R AC BUS Annunciators (Dual AC BUS Failure)
Use standby Attitude Indicators and Compass for Attitude and Heading Control
What items should be on before entering icing conditions?
Fuel Vent Heat
Pitot Heat
Prop Deice
Windshield Heat
Stall Warning Heat
From which bus does the starter normally get it's power?
Center bus through a starter relay
Name 4 items of the L Center Bus?
Landing Gear Motor
#1 Inverter power
R Fuel Boost Pump
L Manual Prop Deice
At which volts are the Inverters rated?
250 volt/amp
115 volt 400 hz = avionics
26 volt 400 hz = engine instruments
What systems are Pneumatic?
Surface deice, bleed air warning

Pneumatic pressure is used to create vacuum for air-driven gyros, pressurization and deflation of the deice boots
How does unpressurized ventilation work?
Bleed air valves open and air enters cabin through floor outlets
Press control system must be in DUMP position
Volume regulated via CABIN AIR control knob
Ambient air via ram-air door via VENT AIR PULL ON
What psi and ply is each of the tires
10 ply/60 psi = Nose
10 ply/97 psi = Main
From what bus is landing gear powerpack powered?
When will the CB pop?
Center Bus

If the power pack motor runs for more than 16 seconds the CB will pop
Describe the 3 regions of the power levers?
Forward Thrust Range - Gas generator gov speed, regulating fuel flow

Beta Range - Controls Beta valve to reduce blade angle

Reverse Range - Selects blade angle, selects fuel flow, resets fuel topping gov to 93-97%
When does the autofeather system become armed?
Only when both power levers are advanced above 90% N1 AND engine torque is above 1000
How many generators do we have and what volt/amp?
2 generators

2 28 volt/300 amp
How are the accessories driven?
Where are they located?
By the compressor N1 shaft via coupling

Located at the rear of the engine.
What items are on the Right Main Gear Squat Switch?
Ground Idle Low pitch stop system

Landing Gear Powerpack

Gear Handle downlock solenoid
What items are effected by the Left Main Gear Squat switch?
Stall Vane heat control

Nosewheel steering disconnect

Pressurization system - dump solenoid

Flight Hour ground path
What is the maximum allowable generator output before disconnection happens?
32 volts
What are the various psi concerns for the pneumatic system?
Bleed Air comes in @ 90 - 150 psi

Regulator maintains 18 psi

Overpressure relief valve opens @ 21 psi

Name 6 items on that bus
Flap Motor
#2 Avionics Bus
#1 Inverter
L/R Engine Anti Ice
L Landing Light
Flap Control & Indicators
R Bleed Air Control
What feeds the Triple Fed Bus?
What current flow will activate the bus tie sensors causing them to open their respective bus tie relays?
325 amps
Once a bus tie has opened when will it close again?
What is the indication?
Circuit will need to be reset - press the Bus Sense Reset Switch


Name 6 Bus items
Inverter #2
#3 Avionics Bus
Pitch Trim
R Fuel Vent Heat
L Firewall Valve
Prop Gov Test
Recog Lights
Stall Warning Heat
What protects the triple fed bus?
3 60 amp current limiters. Isolation will occur only if all 3 are open
What are the Anti-Ice and De-Ice equipment on the 1900D?
Deice = Surface deice systems

Anti Ice = Ice vanes, Engine Intake Lip Heat, Pitot Heat, Alt Static, Prop deice, Windshield Anti-Ice, Stall Warning Heat, Fuel Vent Heat

When does the Cabin DIF HI annunciator come on?
5.25 psid

AC BUS SWITCH - off, then On

Name 10 items on this Bus
L/R ITT, L/R Low Fuel Warning, R/L Fuel Flow Indicator, L/R Oil Temp and Press ind., Stall Warning, LDG Warn Horn, LDG Gear position control, #1 Avionics Bus, overspeed sensor, Annunciator Power, Cabin Press Control, l/R Fuel Quantity ind, Annunciator indicator, Fuel Transfer Valve
What prevents fuel icing?
The oil-to-fuel heat exchanger
How many fuel drains are there and where are they located?
5 drains per wing
1 - Collector Tank
2 - Main Tank
1 - Fuel Filter
1 - Aux Tank drain
What is the Fuel Quantity at the top of the yellow arc?
363 lbs

When do the landing gear actuators know when to retract?

When does the pump stop pumping and when does it start again?
When 200-400 psi hyd. pressure is applied

2775 psi/2320 psi
How does the pneumatic system work?
High pressure bleed air from engine compressor is routed through pneumatic air valve and regulated to 18 psi to supply system pressure.
How many fuel vents do we have?
3 on each wing

Flush vent w/flame arrester
Heated ram air vent to maintain pressure
Recessed ram vent
Under what conditions may you accept a LASHO clearance?
1000 and 3
No tailwind
No windshear
Dry Runway
Operational PAPI, VASI, GS
Flaps 35 must be used