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137 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the daily limit of caffeine intake per day?
450mg / 3-4 cups of coffee
Amount of crew rest after an 18 hour day?
15 hrs
After a 12 hour flight, how much time are you allotted by NATOPS for uninterrupted sleep?
8 hrs
A C.O. may extend a NATOPS checkride date during the last __ days of deplyment for no more than __ days after return.
90, 90
A grade of UQ is allowed how many days to re-fly the event?
30
How many days may elapse from the date of testing until completion of the checkride?
60
A UQ in any critical area or sub-area results in an overall grade of ___.
UQ
A unit NATOPS evaluation shall be conducted every __ months. Due to deployment cycles it may be extended to no more than __ months.
18 months, 24 months
CRM requirements are found in what publication?
OPNAV 1542.7
List the seven CRM skills.
Decision Making
Assertiveness
Mission Analysis
Communication
Leadership
Adaptablility/Flexibility
Situational Awareness
Ground time between flight operations should be sufficient to allow flight crew to eat and obtain __ hours of uninterupted rest.
8 hours
Aircrew should not be required awake for more than __ hours.
18 hours
If required awake for more than 18 hours __ hours of rest should be provided.
15 hours
Maxiums flight time for P-3 crewmen are as follows:
_____ per day
_____ per week
_____ per month
_____ per quarter
_____ per year
12 hr per day
50 hr per week
120 hr month
320 hr per quarter
1120 hr per year
Pregnant crewmembers may request to fly up to the ___ trimester.
Up to the 3rd trimester
Alcohol is prohibitted within __ hours of flight planning.
12 hours
Blood donations in a shipboard/combat enviroment downs you for __________.
4 weeks
Following simulator sickness you should not be scheduled to fly for __ hours.
12 hours
NASTP is required every __ years and may be performed __ days early without rebasing the qual.
4 years, 60 days
How many months without flying requires retraining prior to resuming flying?
18 months
NAVFLIRS are kept in maintenance for __ months.
3 months
Five basic sections of the engine
Intake; Compressor; Combustion chamber; Turbine section; Exhaust
One radar range mile
12.36 microseconds
Purpose of the Weight and Balance
Provides flight crews with accurate base line weight and center of gravity data
Afterburners
burning of the remaining unused air in the exhaust section to create additional thrust
Physical Characteristic of the P-3 aircraft
4 Engine, low wing A/C designed for patrol, anti-sub warfare and fleet support.
How much SHP does one engine have on a P-3
4,600 at take off
How is the P-3C readily identified?
sonobuoy chutes
How is the P-3 all weather
Its de-ice and anti-ice systems.
Engine bleed air from the 14th stage of the compressor is used for what?
Deice the wings and anti-ice the engines airscoop, compressor inlet and torquemeter shroud assembly.
How are the props and empennage deiced or anti-iced.
Electrically
Mission Commander
Naval Aviator or NFO that is properly qualified.
(PPC) Patrol Plane Commander
Responsible for the effectiveness of the aircraft and crew for all matters affecting safety of flight.
(PPP) Patrol Plane Pilot
Assist the PPC and is a backup for the PPC
(PPCP) Patrol Plane Copilot
Is a relief for the PPC or PPP during extended flight operations
Navigation Communication Officer
Maintain an accurate record of present and past positions
Acoustic Operators (SS1/2)
Responsible to detect, classify and report sonobuoy contact data.
Electronic Warfare Operator (SS3)
Support the mission by utilizing RADAR, ESM, MAD/SAD, IRDS, and IFF systems and subsystems, as directed by the TACCO.
General arrangement of the P-3 as stated on the NATOPS Flt Man.
Fuselage is pressurized from the forward bulkhead of the flight station to the aft bulkhead in the cabin. Entrance to the cabin is by way of the door in the port side of the fuselage. The flt station is entered from the cabin. An electromechanical folding ladder, which stows in the cabin, can be used for personnel loading and unloading at stations where external loading ramps are not available. Emergency ext hatches are located over each wing in the sides of the fuselage, aft of the pilot side windshield panel, and in the top of the flight station. Lavatory, galley, and other convenience facilities are located in the aft fuselage.
IFF
Five modes 1&2 are used exclusively by the military for identification. Mode 3A is used by both military and civilian ATCs.
ADF
Automatic Direction Finder operates on AM signals in the 190-1750Khz ARN-83
ISAR
Inverse Synthetic Aperture Radar
IRDS
InfraRed Detection System - converts infrared radiation emanating from a heat source and converts it to a black and white television image at SS3 nose radom
ESM
Electronic Suppport Measures - a passive system doesn't admit any waves can be displayed at SS3 and TACCO
ISAR
Invers Synthetic Aperature Radar - radar system that generates true, recognizable, two-dimensional images of any selected ship target.
DFW has a minimum of what total requirments?
Complete 1 DFW per month with a min of 6 landings
Complete 1 night DFW per quarter with a min of 6 landings
Complete 1 Instructor DFW per quarter which includes a 3 engine, 2 engine, and no flap landing, etc.
Crew training does what?
Improves the effectiveness of the crew's ability to complete the mission due to better cordination.
Condition 1
Battle - all stations are manned
Condition 2
High altitude operations you can move about the cabin
Condition 3
Operation check all stations manned by primary operators who will op ICS
Condition 4
Aircraft inspection all designated areas will be inspected and reported to in person to pilot and FE
Condition 5
Landing and Take Off
How long are you down after immunizations?
12 hours
how long are you down after simulator sickness?
24 hours
What is the delay of the onset of Simulator sickness?
18 hours
How long are you down after receiving an epidural or spinal shot?
48 hours
How long are you in a down status if you get dental work using injectable drugs (Novocain)?
24 hours
How long are you down after scuba diving?
24 hours
How long after HEEDS are you down?
12 hours
How long are you down after a hyperbolic chamber ride above 30,000 ft?
12 hours (within 12 as a pax)
Whater a BUMED 6410/1 and a BUMED 6410/2?
Grounding notice and Clearance notice
What is the minimum altitude over wilderness and noise sensitive areas?
3000 ft.
Whenever practical, fuel shall not be dumped below what altitude?
6,000 ft
What type of ice can a survivor eat?
Blue Ice
How much water does a solar still hold?
2 pints
How high can a MK-79 flare shoot?
250-650 ft (10 mile visibility)
How many chambers are in the LPA-2?
2
What frequency does the PRC-90 operate on?
243.0 and 282.8 Mhz
Life of the PRC-90?
18 hours
What is teh Anti-exposure suits requirements?
OAT of 32 degrees F
Water 50 degress F
Water 50-60 at the CO's discretion
At what altitude is supplemental oxygen required?
10,000 ft.
How much white reflective tape must the helmet be covered with?
100%
If you fail any portion of a NATOPS evaluation, how long do you have to re-qual?
30 days
What is the maximum time lapse between NATOPS exam and a NATOPS check ride?
60 days
When does the NATOPS 18-months qualification period begin?
Date upon check-in
Minimum hours to be a designated Aircrewman?
50 hours or a CNO approved school.
If an Aircrewman does not qualifiy in 18 months, when may he/she reapply for the aircrew program?
2 years or next re-enlistment
How long is an Aircrewman allowed to re-qual with less than 2 years out of platform?
6 months
When, if ever, can an Aircrewman fly again if he/she signs a Page 13?
Never; must submit for rate change.
What happens to a Aircrewman if he/she withdraws from flying?
Minimum prescribed sea-tour
What notice shall be given to an Aircrewman under DIFCREW orders that is involuntarily removed from flight status through no fault of their own?
120 day notice
Does the 120 day notice apply to performance, medical, disciplinary, or non-volunteer disqualification?
No.
Where can you find information on the 120 day notice to Aircrewman?
BUPERSINST 1326.4
WHat covers the maintenance of the NATOPS training jackets?
OPNAVINST 3710.7
A routine change in NATOPS goes to whom?
Model Manager
How should an Urgent change be sent?
Via Priority Message
What is the minimum passing score aon an Open Book NATOPS test?
3.5
How much time is allowed for the open book test?
2.0 hrs.
What is the minimum passing score on the closed book test?
3.2
How much time is allowed on the closed book test?
1.5 hours
How long does an EEBD last?
15 min.
A child must be how old to be listed as a PAX on naval aircraft?
2 years
Master flight files must be forwarded when?
August 31
What delay, if any, is afforded master flight files of less than one cubic foot?
Forward the following next 12 months
Master Flight Files can have up to what classification?
Confidential
Who can sign the MFF?
CO or OIC
Where do the MFFs get sent?
National Records Center (Pensacola, FL)
How many flight purpose codes are there?
6
What is the maximum airspeed below 10,000ft where FAR applies?
250 kts
When can maximum airspeed be exceeded?
During drug interdiction flight / in warning area
When shall position lights be displayed on aircraft?
30 min. before sunset, 20 after sunrise, or less than 3 mile visibility
Are landing taxi lights mandatory?
No. Exercise good judgement
Which department is NATOPS program under?
Safety
Flight suits will char at what temperature?
700-800 deg F
SDU-5 strobe light can last how long?
8 hours (10 Mile Vis)
What frequencies does that PRT-5 operate on?
243.0 MHz and 836.4MHz
What frequency does the URT-26 operate on?
243.0 MHz
How many individual entries can be made in the Flight Log Book?
19 Flights
How many extra pounds of optional survival gear can be added to the SV-2?
5 lbs.
What is the minimum age required for seat belts on board naval aircraft?
2 years old
What score is a NATOPS Conditionally Qualified score?
2.0
What time interval is required for Emergency Egress training?
Annually
How many time zones can interrupt the Circadian Rhythm?
3
What is the distance that a whistle can be heard?
1,000 yds
Number of people on a Flight Audit Board?
3 - one must be the Supply Officer -- audit monthly
What is the only required item for an Aircrewman?
Dog Tags
Who is responsible for safety procedures?
All hands at all times
When shall simulated emergencies not be conducted?
Any time passengers are on board.
What is the minimum flight gear required for passengers on fixed wing aircraft?
Anti-exposure suits and LPP-1
What is the minimum flight gear for a helicopter?
Helmet and LPP-1
What are the classifications of Mishaps?
A - $1million or more/aircraft destroyed/loss of life or perm. disablility
B - $1million to $200,000 / perm. partial disability / 3 or more people hospitalized (inpatient)
C - $200K to $20K / non-fatal injury or illness results in lost time from work (beyond day of incident) /
How often is Crew Resource Management training required?
Annually
How many CRM skills are there?
7
How many people can the LRU-12 accommodate?
4
How long are flight schedules kept for?
3 months
How far can you see a signal mirror
up to 40 miles.
What is the time limit to redo the SWIM quals after re-enetering CONUS?
90 days
What ist he visual acuity with NVG?
20/40
What is the NAVFLIR code for an Un-Qual crewman?
T
Who has access to the NATOPS jackets?
The person, and those desginated by the CO
What survival radio gives identity and position
PRC-112
How long is an Aircrewman required to participate in DAPA aftercare after an ARI?
3 years
Who can provide drugs to Aircrewman?
Flight Surgeon
What is the maximum flight time for a week?
50 hrs
What is the maximum amount of days you can be scheduled in a week?
6 days
How long is a med-up/down chit kept in the NATOPS jacket?
Until the next annual flight physical
What is the grade of a checkride if you recieve a grade of UQ in a critical sub-area?
UQ (UnQualified)