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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What does TART stand for? |
Tissue texture changes; Asymmetry; Restriction; Tenderness
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What is the difference in physiologic and anatomic barriers?
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physiologic - the amount that the pt can actively move the joint; Anatomic - the amount the physician can move the joint (passed the physiologic barrier) any movement beyond the anatomic barrier will cause injury
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Name the TART findings in Acute somatic dysfunction.
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Tissue Changes: edematous, erythematous, boggy with increased moisture; muscle hypertonic; Asymmetry: present; Restriction: present, painful with movement; Tenderness: severe, sharp
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Name the TART findings in Chronic somatic dysfunction.
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Tissue Changes: decreased or no edema, no erythema, cool dry skin, with slight tension; decreased muscle tone, flaccid, ropy, fibrotic; Asymmetry: present WITH COMPENSATION in other areas of the body; Restriction: present, DECREASED OR NO PAIN; Tenderness: dull, achy, burning
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According to Fryette's laws, if the spine is in the neutral position, which way would sidebending and rotation go?
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opposite directions (ie. NSlRr) - Neutral is Type I; sidebending precedes rotation in the neutral position; Left SB without flexion or extension will cause right rotation of ALL vertebrae - group dysfunctions
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According to Fryette's laws, if the spine is in the flexed or extended position, which way would sidebending and rotation go?
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Type II go to the same side; Left SB with flexion or extension will cause ONE vertebrae to rotate and sidebend to the same side - FRrSr or FSrRr - Single vertebrae
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What segments of the spine do fryette's laws apply?
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only to thoracic and lumbar - NOT cervical
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How are somatic dysfunctions named?
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for their freedom of motion
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facet orientation will determine the motion of the vertebral segments. name the facet orientation for cervical, thoracic and lumbar regions.
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Cervical - BUM backward,upward,medial; Thoracic-BUL backward,upward,lateral; Lumbar-BM backward and medial
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describe isotonic contraction.
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approximation of teh muscle's origin and insertion without a change in its tension; operator's force is less than the paitent's force
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describe isometric contration.
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muscle contraction that results in the increase in tension without an approximation of origin and insertion. Operator's and patient's force are equal - ie. pressing palms together
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describe the difference in direct and indirect treatment.
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INDIRECT: the DO "engages" the restrictive barrier - towards the barrier; INDIRECT: DO moves the tissues and joints away from the restrictive barrier into the direction of freedom - away from the barrier
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What is the difference in active and passive treatment?
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in ACTIVE: pt assists during tx (usually in the form of isometric or isotonic contraction); INDIRECT: patient relaxes while the Dr moves the body tissue
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name the techniques that are direct with passive action.
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Muscle energy(rarely indirect, but active not passive), HVLA, Lymphatic tx, and Chapman's relexes
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Name the indirect techniques.
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counterstrain, Facilitated Positional Release
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Name the techniques that can be both direct and indirect.
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myofascial release, cranial osteopathy, muscle energy (more likely direct)
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what is the main motion of segment OA and describe the SB and rotation.
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flexion and extention; SB and rotates to the opposite sides (SrRl)
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what is the main motion of segment AA (C1 on C2) and describe the SB and rotation.
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Rotation; SB and rotates to the opposite sides (SrRl)
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what is the main motion of segment C2-C4 and describe the SB and rotation.
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mainly rotation; SB and rotates to the same sides (SrRr)
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what is the main motion of segment C5-C7 and describe the SB and rotation.
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sidebending; SB and rotates to the same sides (SrRr)
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what is the main motion of the thoracic spine?
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Rotation
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what are the "rule of three's" for the thoracic cavity?
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T1-T3: the spinous process is located at the level of the corresponding transverse process; T4-T6: the spinous process is located 1/2 segment below the corresponding transverse process; T7-T9: the spinous process is located at the level of the transverse process of the vertebrae below; T10-T12: T10- follows T7-T9; T11 follows T4-T6; T12 follows T1-T3
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Name the anatomical landmarks. spine of the scapula.
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T3
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inferior angle of the scapula corresponds with the spinous process of __.
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T7
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the sternal notch is level with ___.
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T2
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the sternal angle attaches to the __ rib and is level with ___.
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2nd rib and level with T4
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the nipple is at the __ dermatome.
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T4
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the umbilicus is at the __ dermatome.
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T10
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what does the diaphragm attach to, what's its innervation?
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attaches to the xyphoid process, ribs 6-12 on either side, and bodies and intervertebral discs of L1-L3; Innervation phrenic C3,4,5
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the external, internal, innermost and subcostal intercostals do what?
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elevate the ribs during inspiration and prevent retractions during inspiration
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name the secondary muscles of respiration.
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scalenes, pectoralis minor, serratus anterior and posterior, quadratus lumborum, and latissimus dorsi
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which ribs are typical and atypical?
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typical: 3-10; atypical 1,2, and 11,12
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which ribs are true, floating, false?
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true ribs: 1-7 - attach to the sternum through costal cartilages; FALSE: 8-12 - do not attach directly to the sternum; FLOATING: ribs 11-12 (unattached anteriorly)
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what are the 3 types of rib motion and which ribs belong to what group?
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pump-handle motion (ribs 1-5), bucket-handle motion (ribs 6-10), and caliper motion (ribs 11 and 12)
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in inhalation rib dysfxns the key rib is the ____ rib of the dysfunction.
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lowest
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in exhalation rib dysfxns the key rib is the ___ rib of the dysfxn.
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uppermost
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why is the lumbar spine more susceptible to disc herniations?
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the posterior longitudinal ligament is 1/2 the width it normally is at L4 and L5
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name the muscles of the erector spinae group from lateral to medial.
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ILoveSex - iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis
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Name the type of spina bifida. a herniation of the meninges through the defect.
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spina bifida meningocele
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Name the type of spina bifida. no herniation through the defect. only a physical sign of this anomaly is a coarse patch of hair over the site. rarely associated with neuro deficits.
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spina bifida occulta
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Name the type of spina bifida. a herniation of the meninges and the nerve roots through the defect. associated with neuro deficits.
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spina bifida meningomyelocele
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what is the main type of motion of the lumbar spine?
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flexion/extension
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a herniated nucleus pulposus worsens with what type of movement?
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flexion - get a positive straight leg test - treated conservatively (<5% are surgical candidates)
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A flexion contracture of the iliopsoas is often associated with a _____ dysfxn at what level?
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nonneutral dysfxn of L1 or L2
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in what position is spinal stenosis worse?
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worsened with extension as when standing, walking, or lying supine
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name the term for anterior displacement of one vertebrae in relation to the one below.
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spondylolisthesis - increased pain with extension
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name the term that describes an defect usually of the pars interarticularis without anterior displacement of the vertebral body.
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spondylolysis - oblique views will identify the fracture as the "collar" on the neck of the scotty dog
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name the term that describes the degenerative changes within the intervertebral disc and ankylosing of adjacent vertebral bodies.
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spondylosis
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with what type of x-ray can you diagnose a spondylolisthesis and a spondylolysis?
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diagnose a spondylolisthesis with a lateral x-ray; diagnose a spondylolysis with oblique x-rays
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name the pathology. pressure on the nerve roots of that cause saddle anesthesia, decreased DTR, loss of bowel and bladder control and is a surgical emergency.
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cauda equina syndrome
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