Obgyn Chapter 3 Embryology, Anatomy, And Reproductive Genetics

Front 1

The genital system develops from embryonic

Back 1

mesoderm

Front 2

The urogenital ridges give rise to elements of the

Back 2

reproductive system

Front 3

What part of the ovary comes to contain the developing follicles?

Back 3

Cortex

Front 4

The first indication of the sex of the embryo is the

Back 4

formation of the tunica albuginea

Front 5

The primordial germ cells can be identified during the fourth week of development in the

Back 5

yolk sac

Front 6

In the female, which of the following persists to form the major parts of the reproductive tract?

Back 6

Paramesonephric (mullerian) ducts

Front 7

The formation of the uterus and fallopian tubes

Back 7

does not depend on the presence of ovaries

Front 8

Absence of the ovaries

Back 8

typically occurs in association with other anomalies

Front 9

Which of the following results in the absence of the uterus?

Back 9

Paramesonephric ducts degenerate

Front 10

Which of the following results in the formation of a double uterus (uterus didelphys)?

Back 10

Inferior parts of the paramesonephric ducts do not fuse

Front 11

Which of the following results in the absence of the vagina?

Back 11

Vaginal plate does not develop

Front 12

Which of the following results in vaginal atresia?

Back 12

Vaginal plate does not canalize

Front 13

Which of the following arises from the urogenital sinus?

Back 13

Urethra

Front 14

Which of the following passes through an indeferent (undifferentiated) stage during development?

Back 14

All of the above (Genital ducts, Gonads, and External genitalia)

Front 15

The labia minora develop from the

Back 15

urogenital folds

Front 16

The labia majora develop from the

Back 16

labioscrotal swellings

Front 17

The clitoris develops from the

Back 17

genital tubercle

Front 18

Teh fallopian tube is derived from the

Back 18

mullarian (paramesonephric) ducts

Front 19

The vagina originates from the

Back 19

urogenital sinus and mullerian ducts

Front 20

In the female, the embryologic homolog of the penis is the

Back 20

clitoris

Front 21

The innominate bones are composed of fused ileum, ischium, nad

Back 21

pubis

Front 22

The false pelvis and true pelvis are separated by the

Back 22

linea terminalis

Front 23

The dimensions of which pelvis must be adequate to permit passage of the fetus during labor?

Back 23

true pelvis

Front 24

The false pelvis is separated from the true pelvis by the plane of the

Back 24

pelvic inlet

Front 25

Arrest of fetal descent occurs most commonly at the plane of the

Back 25

least diameter

Front 26

Which is the value of obstetric conjugate?

Back 26

10.0 - 11.0

Front 27

Which is the value of the transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet?

Back 27

13.5

Front 28

Which is the value of the bispinous diameter of the pelvic midplane?

Back 28

10.0

Front 29

Which is the transverse diameter of greatest diameter

Back 29

12.5

Front 30

Based on the Caldwell and Moloy classification, the most common pelvic type is the

Back 30

gynecoid

Front 31

Which of the following are found in the labia majora?

Back 31

All of the above (sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and hair follicles)

Front 32

Which of the following is NOT found in the labia minora?

Back 32

Hair follicles

Front 33

Bartholin duct is lined with what type of epithelium?

Back 33

Transitional

Front 34

Skene duct is lined with what type of epithelium?

Back 34

Transitional

Front 35

The urethra is lined with what type of epithelium?

Back 35

Transitional

Front 36

The vagina is lined with what type of epithelium?

Back 36

Squamous

Front 37

The endocervical canal is lined with what type of epithelium?

Back 37

Columnar

Front 38

Compared with the posterior wall, the anterior wall of the vagina is

Back 38

shorter

Front 39

The uterine (fallopian) tubes enter into which part of the uterus?

Back 39

Cornu

Front 40

The two main anatomic divisions of the uterus are the

Back 40

corpus and cervix

Front 41

In addition to the uterine arter, the uteris is supplied by teh

Back 41

ovarian artery

Front 42

The uterine veins enter the

Back 42

internal iliac veins

Front 43

The portion fo the fallopian tube that borders the ovary is the

Back 43

infandibulum

Front 44

Which of the following ligaments DOES NOT support the uterus?

Back 44

Infundibulopelvic (supensory) ligament

Front 45

Which of the following ligaments supports the ovary?

Back 45

Broad ligament

Front 46

Before puberty, the ratio of the length of the body of the uterus to the length of the cervix is approximately

Back 46

1:1

Front 47

The portion of the broad ligamnet between the ovaries and the fallopian tube is called the

Back 47

mesosalpinx

Front 48

The uterosacral ligaments

Back 48

prevent prolapse of the uterus into the vagina

Front 49

Oogonia cease to form after

Back 49

birth

Front 50

The blood supply to the fallopian tubes is from

Back 50

both the ovarian and uterine arteries

Front 51

Compared with the reproductive years, the size of the ovary of a menopausal woman is

Back 51

decreased

Front 52

The diploid number of chromosomes in humans is

Back 52

46

Front 53

At least what percent of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have a structuralor numerical chromosomal anomaly?

Back 53

50%

Front 54

Overall, what percent of live births have a chromosome abnormality?

Back 54

0.6%

Front 55

Which of the following chromosome abnormalities is the most common among live-born infants?

Back 55

Trisomy 21

Front 56

Chorionic villus sampling can be used for the detection of

Back 56

trisomy 18

Front 57

The most commmon chromosomal abnormality reliably diagnosed by amniocentesis is

Back 57

trisomy 21

Front 58

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of del(5) (cri-du-chat) syndrome?

Back 58

Microcephaly, distinctive facial features

Front 59

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Klinefelter syndrome?

Back 59

Tall, eunuchoid habitus

Front 60

Which of the following is a characteristic of trisomy 16?

Back 60

No live births

Front 61

Which of the following is a characteristic of trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)?

Back 61

Severe mental retardation

Front 62

Which of the following is a characteristic of trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome)?

Back 62

Multiple organic abnormalities

Front 63

In autosomal dominant inheritance,

Back 63

one half of the children born to an affected person are affected

Front 64

If there is complete failure of testicular development following the formation of an XY zygote,

Back 64

the individual will develop as a female with uterus, tubes, vagina, and vulva

Front 65

The level of alpha-fetoprotein is normal in amniotic fluid in hwich of the following conditions?

Back 65

Postmaturity

Front 66

In which of the following will an afflicted individual typically live to at least 10 years of age?

Back 66

Trisomy 21

Front 67

Advanced maternal age as a screening test questioin fails to detect pregnancies with Down's syndrome in what percent of cases?

Back 67

80%

Front 68

Triple screen detects about what percent of fetal Down syndrome?

Back 68

60%

Front 69

Finding a fetal cardiac malformation on antepartum obstetric ultrasound examinations is associated with what percent chance of the fetus having a chromosomal abnormality?

Back 69

40%

Front 70

The most commonly used maternal serum screening test involves measurement of

Back 70

maternal alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, and unconjugated estriol

Front 71

The most common genetic cause of mental retardation is

Back 71

fragile-X

Front 72

In a woman who has a child with a neural tube defect, in subsequent pregnancies she should take a prenatal vitamin that contains how much folic acid?

Back 72

4mg

Front 73

Prenatal ingestion of an appropriate dose of folic acid daily acts to prevent

Back 73

both the occurrence and recurrence of neural tube defects

Front 74

The developing brain is most susceptible to teratogens during what specific period?

Back 74

3 to 16 weeks

Front 75

The developing neural tube is most susceptible to teratogens during what specific period?

Back 75

2 to 4 weeks

Front 76

The developing heart is most susceptible to teratogens during what specific period?

Back 76

3 to 6 weeks

Front 77

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors have which of the following teratogenic effects?

Back 77

Intrauterine growth retardation, fetal hypotension, pulmonary hypoplasia

Front 78

The antiepileptic drugs have which of the following teratogenic effects?

Back 78

Skeletal defects, cleft palate

Front 79

Cyclophosphamide has which of the following teratogenic effects?

Back 79

CNS and ear defects, cleft lip/palate, cardiac and great vessel defects

Front 80

Warfarin has which of the following teratogenic effects?

Back 80

Nasal hypoplasia, vertebral abnormalities, CNS malformations

Front 81

Accutane has which of the following teratogenic effects?

Back 81

CNS and ear defects, cleft lip/palate, cardiac and great vessel defects

Front 82

Thalidomide has which of the following teratogenic effects?

Back 82

Limb reduction, phocomelia, ventricular septal defect, gastriointestinal atresia

Front 83

Diethylstilbestrol has which of the following teratogenic effects?

Back 83

Vaginal and cervical carcinoma, genital tract abnormalities

Front 84

Tetracycline has which of the following teratogenic effects?

Back 84

Staining of primary dentition