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126 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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example of conduction

hot/cold pack, parrafin, ice massage, cryocuff
example of convection ? Defined: loss or gain of heating resulting from _____ moving in constant motion.
example: whirlpool
air/ H20
example of conversion
diathermy and ultrasound
example of evaporation
vapocoolant spray
freezer for cold packs should be kept in what temperature?
25 degrees
cold bath temperature?
55-64 degrees
controlled cold compression temperature?
50--77 degrees
vapocoolant spray , 3-4 sprays, spray ___ to ____ direction
proximal to distal
Temperature of fluidotherapy?
100-118 degrees
Hot packs should be kept at what temperature?
158-167 degrees
temperature of paraffin?
113-122 degrees
US for deep tissues can reach ___ depth
5 cm
US for superficial tissues can reach ___ depth
1-2 cm
coupling agent such as water for US, must be held to tx area at distance of
.5-3.0 cm parallel to area
area of the transducer that transmits ultrasound energy. This area is always smaller than the US head.
ERA (effective radiating area)
higher or lower? BNR is more favorable, resulting in less "hot spots" or discomfort...
lower
the average ratio of BNR
somewhere b/w 2:1-8:1, the higher the ratio, the more critical it is to move the transducer head more rapidly.
term for depth of penetration of US
frequency
1 mHz deep tissues
3 mHz superficial tissues
to determine whether US is continuous or pulsed you must adjust what?
duty cycle
20% pulsed
100% continuous
An area 2-3x the size of the transducer head requires duration of ___ mins
5
POOL TEMPS

pain mgmt?
therex?
woundcare and spasticity?
99-110
79-92
92-96
LUMBAR TRACTION

25% of body weight is for?
50% of body weight is for?

duration?
-soft tissue stretch
-actual separation of vertebrae

done for 5-30 mins
CERVICAL TRACTION

force for soft tissue stretch?
force for joint distraction?
7-10 % of bodyweight
13-20% of body weight
Compression for prevention of DVTs?
16-18 mmHg
compression for scar tissue mgmt
20-30 mmHg
compression range for edema control
30-40 mmHg
smaller electrodes----> inc/dec? current density?
increase
smaller electrodes inc or dec? current flow?
decrease
smaller electrodes inc/dec? impedance ?
increase
intensity in e-stim is termed _____ and can be in what units?
amplitude
volts, microvolts, millivolts....
in NMES, off time should be ___ times longer
5
What type of TENS is this?
-used for a sensory response, no motor response
conventional tens
What type of current is used for Iontophoresis?
direct current
theory for into?

like charges ____.
repel
INTO IONS

for calcific deposits
acetate
IONTO IONS

for scar tissue, keloids, muscle spasms
Ca chloride
IONTO IONS

for fungus
copper sulfate
IONTO IONS

for inflammation
dexamethasone
IONTO IONS

for adhesive capsulitis
iodine
IONTO IONS

for analgesia
lidocaine
IONTO IONS

for warts and joint pain
salicylates
IONTO IONS

for dermal ulcers, wounds
zinc oxide
These kids end up with mental retardation if left untreated, with behavioral and cognitive issues.
present a few months after birth
excess phenylalanine
PKU
these kids usually die by the age of 5 yrs old. Noticed when at 6 months they start to miss developmental milestones
Tay Sachs
kids with ________ usually experience loss of coordination and muscle weakness, as well as visual and hearing problems
mitochrondrial disorders
decreased ability to metabolize copper.
severe disability b/w 4-6 years old.
Kayser fleischer rings round IRIS
affects basal ganglia
WIlsons disease
increased ph
increased bicarbonate

(metabolic disorder)
metabolic alkalosis

(bicarbonate is basic)
hypoventalation is a symptom of
metabolic alkalosis
metabolic alkalosis is treated with
potassium chloride
excessive diuretic therapy can cause metabolic ____
alkalosis
decreased pH
decreased bicarbonate

(metabolic disorder)
metabolic acidosis
s&s of metabolic acidosis
hyperventalation, cardiac arrythmias
conditions that can cause metabolic acidosis?
renal failure, starvation, DM.......
tx for metabolic acidosis?
sodium bicarbonate
-type of bone affected with osteoporosis?
-caused by loss of?
-trebecular and cortical bone
-calcium and phosphorus
Osteoporosis is associated with decreased osteo____ function.
osteoblast
t- score for osteoporosis
-2.5 SD or lower
this condition is characterized by increased osteoclast activity?
excessive bone formation; increased turnover rate.
Pagets
master gland
secretes endorphins and controls ovulation
pituitary gland
controls the rate at which cells burn fuel from food
thyroid gland
gland that controls reabsorbtion of Ca and phosphate
Parathyroid gland
secrete epinephrine
regulates h20/sodium balance and immune system
adrenal glands
in the pancreas
alpha cells produce ___.
beta cells produce _____ .
-glucagon
-insulin
the hypothalamus regulates the ___.
CNS
Dwarfism is associated with ? as well as diabetes insipidus
hypopituitarism
gigantism and acromegaly is associated with?
hyperpituitarism
Addisions and cushings is associated with what type of dysfunction
adrenal
decreased cortisol
hypotension
weight loss, anorexia
Addisons
"moon" face and buffalo hump are associated with increased cortisol
Cushings disease
S&S:
fatigue/weakness
decreased HR
weight gain
possible rhabdomyolysis
HYPOthyroidism
S&S

weight loss
anxiety
increased HR
aka: Graves dx
HYPERthyroidism
tx for hyperthyroidism
iodine
name 3 S&S of DM
polydipsia
polyuria
weightloss
blurry vision
dehydration
fatigue
Hypo/hyperglycemia?
-thirst, polyuria

blood sugar > than?
hyperglycemia
> 180-200 mg/dl
hunger, sweating, HA, shakiness is S&S for
hypoglycemia
blood sugar < 70
all about bile. :)

produced in?
stored in?
released to ____ to assist with digestion.
-liver
-gallbladder
-duodenum
The pancreas has 2 components, exocrine and endocrine parts.

exocrine part does what?
endocrine part does what?
-secretes digestive enzymes into duodenum
-secretes insulin, regulates serum glucose
Air or blood in the abdominal cavity is termed ____ sign.
Kehr's
When someone has an electrolyte imbalance , PT should watch for........?
orthostatic hypotension
Type of gastritis caused by h. pylori bacteria?

tx for this?
non erosive gastritis
proton pump inhibitor
HEPATITIS (inflammatory condition of the liver)

which type?
transmitted through personal contact, fecal oral route
flulike symptoms
self limiting
A
TYPE OF HEPATITIS?

transmitted through needles and sex.
associated with liver failure
C
S&S of cirrhosis
ascites, jaundice, edema, itching, encephalopathy
acute renal failure can be caused 2ndary to ?
shock, hemmorrhage, burns, PE, kidney stones
chronic renal failure is caused by?
DM, HTN, kidney dx
NKF stages

score <15 is considered?
kidney failure
incontinence associated with involuntary detrusor muscle activation.
urge incontinence
incontinence associated with narrowed or obstructed urethra, prolapsed pelvic organs
overflow
Pregnant women should exercise at _______ % max HR for __ mins
50-60%
30 mins
CANCER STAGING

present only in layer of cells in which it began
stage 0
CANCER STAGING

in the tissue of origin but no lymph involvement
stage 1
CANCER STAGING

spreading into adjacent tissues, lymph nodes may show signs of micro metastasis
stage 2
CANCER STAGING

fixation to deeper structures, high likelihood of tissue involvement
stage 3
CANCER STAGING

metastasis to another organ or bone
stage 4
4 characteristics of a synovial joint
joint cavity
articular cartilage
synovial fluid
fibrous capsule
Capsule sensory nerves?
liagments?
-pacinian corpuscles, ruffini endings
-free nerve endings, golgi tendon organs
shoulder OPP
55 and
30 horiz add
ankle OPP
10 pf
cervical rotation comes from which joint mainly?
atlantoaxial joint
Delorme principle?
1st set
2nd
3rd
50%
75%
100%
of 10 rep max
Oxford technique
1st set
2nd
3rd
100%
75%
50%
RLA

1. initial contact
2.
3.
4.
2. loading response
3. midstance
4.terminal stance
RLA
(swing parts)

5. pre swing
6.
7.
8.
6. initial swing
7.midswing
8. terminal swing
RLA 1-8
heel strike
loading response
midstance
terminal stance
preswing
initial swing
midswing
terminal swing
how much hip flexion maximally needed? during which phase?
30 degrees
swing, loading response
max hip extension during gait is ___ degrees and needed at ___ ?
10 degrees
terminal stance
max knee flexion during gait is ___ degrees and needed during ___?
60 degrees
initial swing
max knee extension is 0 degrees and needed during?
terminal swing/initial contact
max PF needed during gait is __ degrees at ___ ?
20 degrees
pre swing
reasons for circumduction gait
decreased hip/knee flex or insufficient DF
special test (+) for rupture of long head of the biceps
ludington's test
speeds test?
forearm supination shoulder flex to 90 degrees and resist.
(+) for bicipital tendonitis
Adson's maneuver
rotate head to involved side, extend and LR shoulder
(+) if pulse diminishes
3 tests for lateral epicondylitis
lateral epicondylitis test
Mill's
Cozen's
Medial epicondylitis test
supinate and extend wrist and extend elbow
resisting middle finger
lateral epicondylitis test
pronation, wrist flexion, elbow ext
tests for?
mills test, lat epi
UPPER LIMB TENSION TEST
for median/musculocutaneous?
shoulder depression, 10 degrees and, elbow extension, supination, finger and thumb extension
if 3rd MCP is level with 2nd /4th MCP
(+) dislocated lunate; Murphy's sign
What is the tripod sign?
sitting at EOB, passively extend knee...
(+) person leans back (trunk ext) tight HS
normal anteversion?
8-15 degrees
MR foot 30 degrees
tests for anterolaterall instability
slocums
ER foot 15 degrees
checks for anteromedial instability
houghstons
Pt is prone, knee flexed to 90, cup heels, MR and LR tibia as you apply compressive force; this test is called ____. and tests for?
Apley's
meniscus
Normal LR of tibia in adult
12-18 degrees
Normal Q angles for men and women?
men: 13
women: 18