New Af Contracting Cdc's Unit Reviews Vol. 2

Front 1

The purpose of acquisition planning is to
a. provide for the acquisition of noncommercial items.
b. determine the applicable provisions and clauses.
c. identify evaluation factors.
d. maximize competition.

Back 1

d. maximize competition.

Front 2

Planning must take place
a. upon receipt of funds.
b. once a purchase request is received.
c. as soon as an agency need is identified.
d. immediately upon completion of the source selection plan.

Back 2

c. as soon as an agency need is identified.

Front 3

According to OMB Circular A-76, during competitive sourcing the government competes
with
a. industry.
b. state government.
c. foreign governments.
d. General Services Administration.

Back 3

a. industry.

Front 4

Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the CO and
a. the head of the Contracting Agency.
b. a contract specialist.
c. the program manager.
d. the technical team.

Back 4

c. the program manager.

Front 5

Which of the following acquisition team members provides cost proposal analysis support?
a. Technical specialist.
b. Resource manager.
c. Program manager.
d. Auditor.

Back 5

d. Auditor.

Front 6

An SASS is required for acquisitions with a dollar value
a. exceeding $2,500.
b. exceeding $25,000.
c. between $8M and $25M.
d. between the SAT and $8M.

Back 6

d. between the SAT and $8M.

Front 7

Strategic sourcing focus areas are identified by
a. site surveys.
b. trend analysis.
c. spend analysis.
d. competitive sourcing.

Back 7

c. spend analysis.

Front 8

In order to understand the constant changes in organizational spend the process of strategic
sourcing must be performed
a. continuously.
b. randomly.
c. quarterly.
d. annually.

Back 8

a. continuously.

Front 9

In what phase of the strategic sourcing process is a solicitation issued?
a. Standup.
b. Execution.
c. Management performance.
d. CSS development.

Back 9

b. Execution.

Front 10

When conducting market research, the extent of research is normally based on
a. type of contract to be used.
b. urgency of the requirement.
c. end of fiscal year constraints.
d. availability of small businesses.

Back 10

b. urgency of the requirement.

Front 11

Market research may be used to
a. support the continued use of sole source requirements.
b. promote the use of noncommercial items.
c. determine if a price is fair and reasonable.
d. identify non-responsive offers.

Back 11

c. determine if a price is fair and reasonable.

Front 12

What specific information is included in a market research report?
a. Constraints to competition.
b. Review of offeror past performance.
c. Detailed analysis of cost and pricing data.
d. Identification of source selection evaluation criteria.

Back 12

a. Constraints to competition.

Front 13

When evaluating purchase requests, ensure descriptions are defined in terms that
a. encourage the use of commercial items.
b. require the use of military specifications.
c. promote other than full and open competition.
d. allow only the most qualified offerors to compete.

Back 13

a. encourage the use of commercial items.

Front 14

What action should a CO take when a purchase request contains an unreasonable delivery
date?
a. Cancel the purchase request.
b. Use a 30-day delivery standard.
c. Consult with customer and document discussions.
d. Include delivery terms in accordance with industry standards.

Back 14

c. Consult with customer and document discussions.

Front 15

An IGE is required for all construction requirements exceeding
a. $2,000.
b. $2,500.
c. $100,000.
d. $150,000.

Back 15

d. $150,000.

Front 16

When conducting an initial review of a requirements document ensure that purchase
descriptions
a. maximize the use of acronyms.
b. are arranged in a logical manner.
c. use the term “should” to describe mandatory requirements.
d. use vague and ambiguous terms to describe non-technical requirements.

Back 16

b. are arranged in a logical manner

Front 17

Failure to use clear and concise language may increase the
a. contractor’s performance.
b. potential for a contract claim.
c. ability for small businesses to compete.
d. government’s likelihood of winning a protest.

Back 17

b. potential for a contract claim.

Front 18

Construction specifications follow which format?
a. Simplified contract format.
b. UCF.
c. MIL-STD format.
d. CSI format.

Back 18

d. CSI format.

Front 19

A properly written statement of work facilitates
a. preparation of the contractor’s quality assurance plan.
b. use of the UCF.
c. use of other than full and open competition.
d. preparation of responsive proposals.

Back 19

d. preparation of responsive proposals.

Front 20

A PWS normally includes which of the following elements?
a. Instructions to offerors.
b. Performance requirements.
c. Provisions and clauses.
d. Evaluation criteria.

Back 20

b. Performance requirements.

Front 21

Which requirements document cites key agency goals and allows maximum flexibility of an
offeror to propose an innovative approach?
a. PWS.
b. SDS.
c. SOO.
d. SOW.

Back 21

c. SOO. (Statement of Objectives)

Front 22

A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more
than
a. 14 days.
b. 60 days.
c. 45 days.
d. 30 days.

Back 22

b. 60 days.

Front 23

Why are contractors required to mark supplies, or otherwise furnish notice with the
supplies, of the existence of a warranty?
a. Inform government personnel who store, stock, or use the supplies.
b. Decrease the cost of repair or replacement of defective supplies.
c. Inform government personnel responsible for contract award.
d. Decrease cost of shipping insurance.

Back 23

a. Inform government personnel who store, stock, or use the supplies.

Front 24

The implied warranty of merchantability provides that an item
a. can be repaired by any authorized merchant that sells the product.
b. will endure normal wear and tear for at least one year from receipt.
c. is reasonably fit for the ordinary purposes for which such items are used.
d. has undergone quality assurance testing procedures by the manufacturer.

Back 24

c. is reasonably fit for the ordinary purposes for which such items are used.

Front 25

The principal purpose of a warranty is to delineate the rights and obligations of the
contractor and the government for defective items and services and to
a. expedite delivery.
b. allow refunds for defects.
c. foster quality performance.
d. provide for product replacements.

Back 25

c. foster quality performance.

Front 26

Brand name requirements must be supported by a
a. determination and finding.
b. justification and approval.
c. memorandum approved by the Competition Advocate.
d. small business dissolution approved by the Small Business specialist

Back 26

b. justification and approval.

Front 27

Brand name justifications should describe unique capabilities and
a. at least three suggested sources.
b. the wing commander’s preference.
c. the impact on the mission if substituted.
d. alternative brands that may be considered.

Back 27

c. the impact on the mission if substituted.

Front 28

Who has the final authority for determining adequacy of a sole source justification?
a. Technical expert.
b. Contracting officer.
c. Competition advocate.
d. Requiring activity’s unit commander

Back 28

b. Contracting officer.

Front 29

Which online business system provides data on federal contract actions over $3,000?
a. EPLS.
b. CCR.
c. PPIRS.
d. FPDS-NG.

Back 29

d. FPDS-NG.

Front 30

What FAR part prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses?
a. FAR Part 12.
b. FAR Part 17.
c. FAR Part 19.
d. FAR Part 26.

Back 30

c. FAR Part 19.

Front 31

Small business size standards are established on an industry-by-industry basis according to
the
a. NAICS.
b. FSC.
c. FSG.
d. PSC.

Back 31

a. NAICS.

Front 32

Which socio-economic category includes the 8(a) program?
a. HUBZone.
b. SDB.
c. WOSB.
d. SDVOSB.

Back 32

b. SDB.

Front 33

Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity is a requirement of the
a. Small Business Act.
b. Regulatory Flexibility Act.
c. National Defense Authorization Act.
d. Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act.

Back 33

d. Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act.

Front 34

The approval authority for justification and approval (J&A) actions over $650,000, but not
exceeding $12.5 million?
a. SAF/AQC.
b. Contracting officer.
c. Competition advocate.
d. HCA.

Back 34

c. Competition advocate.

Front 35

Which of the following scenarios require the CO to promote competition to the maximum
extent practicable?
a. $2,500 construction requirement.
b. $3,500 open market supply purchase.
c. $75,000 order placed against a federal supply schedule.
d. $160,000 delivery order against an IDIQ contract previously awarded using FAR Part 6
procedures.

Back 35

b. $3,500 open market supply purchase.

Front 36

When placing an order against a federal supply schedule expected to exceed the SAT, the
CO is required to place the order
a. with any schedule holder.
b. on a competitive basis.
c. on a competitive basis using e-Buy.
d. on a competitive basis using FedBizOpps.

Back 36

c. on a competitive basis using e-Buy.

Front 37

All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except
a. sealed bids.
b. two-step sealed bidding.
c. brand name requirements.
d. requirements using FAR Part 15.

Back 37

c. brand name requirements.

Front 38

Which of the following exceptions to full and open competition must be supported by a
determination and finding?
a. Section 8(a) competition.
b. Set-aside for small business concerns.
c. Establishing or maintaining alternative sources.
d. Set-aside for local firms during a major disaster or emergency.

Back 38

c. Establishing or maintaining alternative sources.

Front 39

Small business specialists are required to review all acquisitions at what minimum
threshold?
a. $3,000.
b. $10,000.
c. $25,000.
d. $150,000.

Back 39

b. $10,000.

Front 40

What dollar amount is automatically reserved for small business concerns?
a. $3,000 and below.
b. Between $3,000 and $150,000.
c. Between $150,000 and $650,000.
d. $650,000 and above.

Back 40

b. Between $3,000 and $150,000.

Front 41

What FAR Part 6 exception satisfies the requirement for sole source and brand name
justifications?
a. Public interest.
b. National security.
c. Unusual and compelling urgency.
d. Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements.

Back 41

d. Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements.

Front 42

What FAR Part 6 exception must be supported by a determination and finding?
a. Public interest.
b. National security.
c. International agreement.
d. Authorized or required by statute.

Back 42

a. Public interest.

Front 43

What special form of written approval is used by an authorized official as a prerequisite to
taking certain contracting actions?
a. Memorandum for record.
b. Justification and approval.
c. Determination and finding.
d. Determination of circumstance.

Back 43

c. Determination and finding.

Front 44

The “findings” in determination and findings means that
a. it is required by statute or regulation.
b. a special form of written approval by an authorized official.
c. conclusions of decisions supported by statute or regulation.
d. a statement of fact or rationale essential to support the determination.

Back 44

d. a statement of fact or rationale essential to support the determination.

Front 45

A determination and finding does not include
a. a description of action being approved.
b. identification of the contracting activity.
c. a specific contract type and contract amount.
d. citing of the appropriate statute and or regulation.

Back 45

c. a specific contract type and contract amount.

Front 46

Within how many days after contract award must a J&A be made available to the public
through the GPE?
a. 7 days.
b. 14 days.
c. 30 days.
d. 45 days.

Back 46

b. 14 days.

Front 47

Which form of security ensures that a bidder will not withdraw a bid within the period
specified for acceptance?
a. Bid affirmation.
b. Payment bond.
c. Performance bond.
d. Irrevocable Letter of Credit.

Back 47

d. Irrevocable Letter of Credit.

Front 48

Which act requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract
expected to exceed the SAT?
a. Miller Act.
b. Walsh-Healy Act.
c. Davis-Bacon Act.
d. Competition in Contracting Act.

Back 48

a. Miller Act.

Front 49

Which form of protection guarantees payment to all persons supplying labor or material in
performing contract work?
a. Bid bond.
b. Payment bond.
c. Performance bond.
d. Liability insurance.

Back 49

b. Payment bond.

Front 50

When clause 52.228-5 is included in a contract, COs request and receive proof of insurance
a. before the contractor begins work.
b. with the offerors bid or proposal.
c. within seven days after work begins.
d. within 10 days after work begins.

Back 50

a. before the contractor begins work.

Front 51

When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the
minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer’s liability is
a. $20,000.
b. 100,000.
c. 200,000.
d. 500,000.

Back 51

b. 100,000.

Front 52

The SF 1094
a. exempts the government from all taxes.
b. may be used for government employee personal use.
c. guarantees tax exemption to contractors and subcontractors working on government projects.
d. establishes that the purchase is being made by the government.

Back 52

d. establishes that the purchase is being made by the government.

Front 53

Clauses may be applied
a. only to contracts.
b. only to solicitations.
c. at the CO’s discretion.
d. to both solicitations and contracts.

Back 53

d. to both solicitations and contracts.

Front 54

Because of the broad range of items acquired by the government, the variations in
commercial practices, and the relative volume of the government’s acquisition in specific
markets, contracting officers may
a. tailor provisions to adapt to the market conditions for each acquisition.
b. include agency-unique statutes in awards to maintain government continuity.
c. tailor provisions to adapt to previous awards to maintain government continuity.
d. include agency-unique statutes applicable to the acquisition of other than commercial items.

Back 54

a. tailor provisions to adapt to the market conditions for each acquisition.

Front 55

How is tailoring accomplished?
a. By attachment.
b. By amendment of the solicitation.
c. By addenda to the solicitation and contract.
d. The solicitation must clearly state that the government may choose to tailor provisions or
clauses.

Back 55

c. By addenda to the solicitation and contract.

Front 56

Clauses 52.212-1 and 52.212-4 are incorporated into commercial contracts by reference by
checking block
a. 27a of the SF 33.
b. 27b of the SF 33.
c. 27a of the SF 1449.
d. 27b of the SF 1449.

Back 56

c. 27a of the SF 1449.

Front 57

Which of the following statements regarding the inclusion of 52.212-2 in solicitations is
true?
a. Solicitation must state the relative importance of evaluation factors when using SAPs.
b. The contracting officer is not required to notify offerors of the basis which an award will be
made.
c. The provision is not necessary when an award will be based on price alone and using SAP.
d. The provision is mandatory in all solicitations.

Back 57

a. Solicitation must state the relative importance of evaluation factors when using SAPs.

Front 58

When using the streamlined procedures of FAR Part 12
a. the SF 33 is used.
b. the SF 1449 is used.
c. post only a detailed summary describing the requirement to GPE.
d. issue a presolicitation notice to the GPE 14 days prior to release of the solicitation.

Back 58

c. post only a detailed summary describing the requirement to GPE.

Front 59

It is common practice in the commercial marketplace for
a. contracts to exclude terms and conditions.
b. contracts to include stringent terms and conditions.
c. the seller to impose conditions on the parties written from their particular perspective.
d. both the buyer and seller to propose terms and conditions written from their particular
perspectives.

Back 59

d. both the buyer and seller to propose terms and conditions written from their particular
perspectives.

Front 60

The terms and conditions of FAR Part 12
a. encourage the use of non-commercial practices.
b. are generally appropriate for micro-purchases only.
c. seek to balance the interests of both the buyer and seller.
d. do not allow for other commercial practices to be considered

Back 60

c. seek to balance the interests of both the buyer and seller.

Front 61

Oral solicitations must be used to the maximum extent practicable when which condition
exists?
a. The acquisition exceeds SAT.
b. The acquisition exceeds the micro-purchase threshold.
c. Electronic commerce is more efficient.
d. Notice is required under FAR Part 5.

Back 61

b. The acquisition exceeds the micro-purchase threshold.

Front 62

Solicitations issued using SAPs are referred to as
a. oral solicitations.
b. invitation for bids.
c. request for quotes.
d. request for proposals.

Back 62

c. request for quotes.

Front 63

RFQs are issued using the
a. memorandum format.
b. uniform contract format.
c. simplified contract format.
d. commercial contract format.

Back 63

d. commercial contract format.

Front 64

Amendments to RFQs are
a. issued using the SF 30.
b. issued using the SF 33.
c. never required to be posted.
d. required to correct oral solicitations.

Back 64

a. issued using the SF 30.

Front 65

What FAR Part procedures may be followed when issuing RFQs?
a. FAR Part 12.
b. FAR Part 13.
c. FAR Part 14.
d. FAR Part 15.

Back 65

d. FAR Part 15.

Front 66

Formal solicitations exceeding the SAT and issued in negotiated acquisitions are referred to
as
a. request for bids.
b. invitation for bids.
c. request for quotes.
d. request for proposals.

Back 66

d. request for proposals.

Front 67

What part of the uniform contract format contains sections K through M?
a. Part 1.
b. Part 2.
c. Part 3.
d. Part 4.

Back 67

d. Part 4.

Front 68

Which statement regarding the LPTA source selection technique is true?
a. Proposals are ranked.
b. Tradeoffs are permitted.
c. Evaluation factors are not required.
d. Proposals are only evaluated for acceptability.

Back 68

d. Proposals are only evaluated for acceptability.

Front 69

Which statement best describes oral presentations?
a. They may be a substitute for written information.
b. They occur during the final round of negotiations.
c. They are evaluated quantitatively and scored by the government.
d. They may contain only the information provided in the offeror’s proposal.

Back 69

a. They may be a substitute for written information.

Front 70

Section L of a solicitation
a. becomes a part of the contract award.
b. states the relative importance of evaluation factors.
c. provides instructions to offerors in preparing their proposals.
d. communicates to offerors the criteria the government will use to make an award.

Back 70

c. provides instructions to offerors in preparing their proposals.

Front 71

When negotiated procedures are used for construction that is expected to exceed the SAT,
which form is used?
a. SF 30.
b. SF 33.
c. SF 1442.
d. SF 1449.

Back 71

c. SF 1442.

Front 72

In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range, advance notices and
solicitations for a requirement must state
a. the project magnitude.
b. the project classification.
c. the government estimate.
d. whether it is under or over the SAT.

Back 72

a. the project magnitude.

Front 73

What act applies to construction contracts in excess of $2,000?
a. Miller Act.
b. Davis-Bacon Act.
c. Walsh-Healy Act.
d. Service Contracting Act.

Back 73

b. Davis-Bacon Act.

Front 74

Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary
arrangements?
a. Contract specialist.
b. Contracting officer.
c. Functional commander.
d. Quality assurance personnel.

Back 74

b. Contracting officer.

Front 75

Which of the following best describes a preproposal conference?
a. Only offers not eliminated from the competitive range are invited.
b. Are held prior to issuing a solicitation to assist in market research.
c. May be held after a solicitation is issued but before offers are submitted.
d. Changes agreed upon during the conference may qualify the terms of the solicitation.

Back 75

c. May be held after a solicitation is issued but before offers are submitted.

Front 76

Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to
a. provide bid samples.
b. submit bid guarantee, performance, and payment bonds.
c. provide an overview of supplies or services their company provides.
d. examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the
performing of work.

Back 76

d. examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the
performing of work.

Front 77

Which of the following best describes a site visit?
a. Site information must be made available to all offerors.
b. Only contractors previously cleared by security forces may attend.
c. Offerors are required to inspect the site in order to become eligible for award.
d. Civilian attendees are exempt from personal protective equipment requirements.

Back 77

a. Site information must be made available to all offerors.

Front 78

Which circumstance would justify canceling an RFP before closing?
a. The incumbent contractor did not submit a proposal.
b. Several contractors have combined together into a teaming arrangement.
c. Changes are so substantial that additional sources likely would have submitted offers.
d. The civil servants union submitted a complaint about the ongoing competitive sourcing.

Back 78

c. Changes are so substantial that additional sources likely would have submitted offers.

Front 79

What happens to unopened offeror proposals after an RFP is cancelled?
a. Staged for a minimum of one year.
b. Returned to the offeror unopened.
c. Destroyed by an approved method.
d. E-files are saved and filed according to the file plan.

Back 79

b. Returned to the offeror unopened.

Front 80

When using sealed bidding, discussions are
a. not permitted.
b. during the pre-bid conference.
c. held with bidders before the solicitation is issued.
d. only held with bidders after the solicitation is issued.

Back 80

a. not permitted.

Front 81

When the UCF is used for sealed bidding, prepare the IFB on an
a. SF 30.
b. SF 33.
c. SF 1449.
d. DD 1155.

Back 81

b. SF 33.

Front 82

What additional product information may be requested of offerors to ensure that multiple
products meet the requirements of an IFB?
a. Submittals.
b. Bid offerings.
c. Oral presentations.
d. Descriptive literature.

Back 82

d. Descriptive literature.

Front 83

A pre-bid conference
a. is used to correct an ambiguous IFB.
b. is used in complex acquisitions as a means to explain complicated specifications.
c. educates offerors on the many processes applicable to government contracting.
d. provides bidders an opportunity to gather information about upcoming acquisitions.

Back 83

b. is used in complex acquisitions as a means to explain complicated specifications.

Front 84

Early exchanges of information when using sealed bidding is
a. not permitted.
b. permitted after receipt of bids.
c. only permitted when in the best interest of the government.
d. encouraged from the earliest identification of a requirement through receipt of bids.

Back 84

d. encouraged from the earliest identification of a requirement through receipt of bids.

Front 85

Amendments to IFBs may change any of the following except
a. contract type.
b. specifications.
c. delivery schedule.
d. ambiguous invitation.

Back 85

a. contract type.

Front 86

Contract actions are publicized according to FAR Part
a. 4.
b. 5.
c. 6.
d. 7.

Back 86

b. 5.

Front 87

Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and displayed in a public place
must remain posted for how many days?
a. 7.
b. 10.
c. 14.
d. 30.

Back 87

b. 10.

Front 88

When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition of commercial items, how
many days must a requirement exceeding $25,000 be posted?
a. 7 days.
b. 14 days.
c. 30 days.
d. A reasonable time.

Back 88

d. A reasonable time.

Front 89

Which of the following is not an exception to synopsizing?
a. The proposed contract action is for utility services.
b. The proposed contract action is made on behalf of a foreign government.
c. The proposed contract action is made under Unusual and Compelling Urgency.
d. The proposed contract action is an end-of-fiscal year requirement and funds will be lost if the
contract is not awarded.

Back 89

d. The proposed contract action is an end-of-fiscal year requirement and funds will be lost if the
contract is not awarded.

Front 90

What FedBizOpps template may be used to determine the availability of commercial
sources or conducting market research?
a. Sources Sought.
b. Presolicitation notice.
c. Combined Synopsis/Solicitation.
d. Modification/Amendment/Cancel.

Back 90

a. Sources Sought.