New Af Contracting Cdc's Unit Reviews Vol. 1

Front 1

Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government
contracting?
a. Enabling acts, procedural acts, and permissive acts.
b. Permissive acts, administrative acts, and legal acts.
c. Permissive acts, administrative acts, and appropriations acts.
d. Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts.

Back 1

d. Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts.

(Permissive acts don't exist...)

Front 2

What agency’s objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?
a. Department of Labor.
b. General Services Administration.
c. Small Business Administration.
d. Committee for Purchase from the Blind.

Back 2

c. Small Business Administration

Front 3

Which party is the contractor?
a. Agent.
b. Principal.
c. Third party.
d. Agent and third party.

Back 3

c. Third party.

Front 4

What are the two categories of actual authority?
a. Implied and assumed.
b. Implied and apparent.
c. Express and implied.
d. Express and apparent

Back 4

c. Express and implied.

Express is explicit language. Implied is necessary or incidental. APPARENT AUTHORITY IS BAD.

Front 5

When government personnel make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has stated that rather
than adopt a rule that might injure the public, it is better
a. that neither party should suffer from the mistakes.
b. that the government should suffer from their mistakes.
c. for an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes.
d. that the individual and the government share the suffering from the mistakes.

Back 5

c. for an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes.

Front 6

Who is responsible for ascertaining whether government agents are acting within the bounds
of their authority?
a. The CO.
b. The government.
c. The contractor.
d. The agent.

Back 6

c. The contractor.

Front 7

The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the
a. government knew or should have known the true facts.
b. contractor did not know and should not have known the true facts.
c. government intended that the contractor rely on the acts of the government.
d. contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.

Back 7

d. contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.

Front 8

Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of
a. whether the government acted in the public’s interest.
b. whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently.
c. who would otherwise have had authority to release the information.
d. whether the contractor would have otherwise benefited from the action.

Back 8

b. whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently.

Front 9

A CO appointment must be reviewed at least
a. annually.
b. every two years.
c. every five years.
d. when requested by the appointing authority.

Back 9

b. every two years.

Front 10

Which statement concerning the CO’s appointment or termination is true?
a. In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive.
b. Termination of a CO may be retroactive if in the best interest of the government.
c. There is no authority to waive the qualification requirements for a CO as stated in the selection
criteria.
d. Termination of a CO appointment is made verbally unless the Certificate of Appointment
contains a provision for automatic termination.

Back 10

a. In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive.

Front 11

Which statement about the offeree is correct?
a. The offeror may not direct the offer to a class of person or to a public intending that any
member of the class of public have the power to accept.
b. The intended offeree means in all cases there is one, and only one, specific offeree in whom the
power of acceptance is vested.
c. The offeror may not direct the offer to more than one person.
d. Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.

Back 11

d. Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.

Front 12

Which statement about an offer is correct?
a. It is not enough that only the essential terms of the contract are certain.
b. Every term in the offer must be absolutely certain to each party of the contract.
c. The offer must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably
certain.
d. You cannot enter a contract with the price implied to be “a reasonable price at the time of
delivery.”

Back 12

c. The offer must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably
certain.

Front 13

An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a
a. cancellation.
b. termination.
c. revocation.
d. breach of contract.

Back 13

c. revocation.

Front 14

Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contract is true?
a. If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time,
place, or means will constitute an acceptance.
b. The offer cannot dictate the place or manner of acceptance.
c. Acceptance must be communicated by the US mail.
d. Acceptance must be in writing.

Back 14

a. If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time,
place, or means will constitute an acceptance.

Front 15

What is the name given to the exchange of promises?
a. Sufficiency.
b. Detriment.
c. Acceptance.
d. Consideration.

Back 15

d. Consideration.

Front 16

What is meant by adequate consideration?
a. The actual worth or a promise or an act is more than the offer has the right to commit.
b. The consideration has enough value to induce the other party to perform.
c. Whether the bargain involves the concepts of benefit and detriment.
d. The consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain.

Back 16

d. The consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain.

Front 17

What is meant by the term “competent” in regards to a contracting party?
a. Having an unsound mind.
b. Ensuring business is not conducted with minors.
c. Having the ability to recognize defective corporations.
d. Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.

Back 17

d. Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.

Front 18

Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract?
a. A 23-year-old car salesperson.
b. A 17-year-old college student.
c. A 25-year-old intoxicated person.
d. A 50-year-old patient in a mental institution.

Back 18

a. A 23-year-old car salesperson.

Front 19

As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is
a. lawful if not challenged with 120 days.
b. lawful only to the party who made the offer.
c. unlawful and void and will not be enforced.
d. unlawful but may be enforced under some situations.

Back 19

c. unlawful and void and will not be enforced.

Front 20

Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when
a. the agreement concerns minor crimes.
b. only a portion of the contract was illegal.
c. the agreement was made to restrain trade.
d. the innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to
protect.

Back 20

d. the innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to
protect.

Front 21

Which situation would preclude a ratification?
a. Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance.
b. CO determining the price to be fair and reasonable.
c. CO recommending payment and legal counsel concurs.
d. Availability of funds that were available at the time the unauthorized commitment was made.

Back 21

a. Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance.

Preclude means to prevent from happening. All the other answers would be allowing the ratification to occur.

Front 22

What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment?
a. Process of claim under the Disputes Act.
b. Request of a no-cost settlement from the contractor.
c. Charge to the individual who committed the unauthorized commitment.
d. Resolution by the GAO claim procedures.

Back 22

d. Resolution by the GAO claim procedures.

Front 23

What publications series represents Contracting?
a. 62.
b. 63.
c. 64.
d. 65.

Back 23

c. 64.

Front 24

Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational
contracting squadron?
a. AFI 38-101.
b. AFI 64-102.
c. AFI 65-109.
d. AFPD 64-1.

Back 24

b. AFI 64-102.

(Just know that contracting is 64. The rest don't involve contracting specific functions.)

Front 25

FAR is issued under the joint authority of the
a. Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of the
NASA.
b. Administrator of General Services, the National Security Council, and the Administrator of
NASA.
c. Administrator of General Services, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of
Defense.
d. Secretary of Defense, the Administrator of NASA, and the National Security Council.

Back 25

a. Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of the
NASA.

Front 26

What councils prepare all FAR revisions?
a. DAR Council and the National Security Acquisition Council.
b. DAR Council and the CAA Council.
c. General Council and the National Security Acquisition Council.
d. General Council and the CAA Council.

Back 26

b. DAR Council and the CAA Council.

Front 27

What is meant by implementing FAR?
a. Adding material that is unique to the Air Force.
b. Adding material that is unique to DOD.
c. Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR.
d. Numbering when the text cannot be integrated intelligibly with its FAR counterparts.

Back 27

c. Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR.

Front 28

Which DFARS reference identifies supplemental information?
a. 219.502–2.
b. 219.502–2–70.
c. 5319.502–2.
d. 5319.502–70.

Back 28

b. 219.502–2–70.

Front 29

DFARS is updated
a. daily.
b. monthly.
c. quarterly.
d. annually.

Back 29

c. quarterly.

Front 30

In determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment, the
Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as
a. the supplementing regulation.
b. the negotiating authority.
c. rulings.
d. precedents.

Back 30

c. Rulings
(It says in the CDC's, it is precedents, however there is an error in the testing results. Precedents should be the right answer, but the answer is "Rulings" on the test. This should be corrected.)

Front 31

Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions located?
a. Federal Register.
b. Federal Acquisition Circular.
c. Defense Acquisition Circular.
d. DFARS Appendix A.

Back 31

a. Federal Register.

Front 32

A government action may be protested by
a. the next low bidder.
b. an interested party.
c. all responsible bidders.
d. the next low small business bidder.

Back 32

b. an interested party.

Front 33

Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency (under
most circumstances) has how many days to submit a complete report to GAO?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.

Back 33

b. 30.

(The agency has 30 Days. Contractor has 10 Days. GAO has 100 Days.)

Front 34

When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award
or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately
a. begins consolidating a complete report.
b. provides a 30 day cancellation notice to the contractor.
c. suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.
d. suspends performance for 60 days, then processes a contract cancellation.

Back 34

c. suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.

Front 35

How many days does an interested party have to protest after the basis of a protest is
known, or should have been known?
a. No later than 10 days.
b. No later than 30 days.
c. Within one year.
d. Up to six years.

Back 35

a. No later than 10 days.

(The agency has 30 Days. Contractor has 10 Days. GAO has 100 Days.)

Front 36

How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a protest?
a. 30.
b. 45.
c. 100.
d. 120.

Back 36

c. 100.

(The agency has 30 Days. Contractor has 10 Days. GAO has 100 Days.)

Front 37

What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual
agreement of the contracting parties?
a. Submit a claim under the Default clause.
b. Submit a claim under the Disputes clause.
c. File a claim with the United States Court of Federal Appeals.
d. File a claim with ASBCA.

Back 37

b. Submit a claim under the Disputes clause.

Front 38

Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within
a. 30 days after accrual of the claim.
b. 180 days after accrual of the claim.
c. two years after accrual of the claim.
d. six years after accrual of the claim.

Back 38

d. six years after accrual of the claim.

Front 39

Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer’s final decision on claims
exceeding $100,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?
a. Functional area chief.
b. US Court of Federal Claims.
c. Air Force Material Command Law Center.
d. Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals.

Back 39

c. Air Force Material Command Law Center.

Front 40

If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is
the amount paid to the contractor?
a. With final contract payment.
b. With the next scheduled contract payment.
c. As soon as possible after resolution of any appeal.
d. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.

Back 40

d. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.

Front 41

How long after the contracting officer’s final decision does the contractor have to appeal to
ASBCA?
a. 90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.
b. 180 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.
c. six months from the date of the contracting officer’s decision.
d. 12 months from the date of the contracting officer’s decision.

Back 41

a. 90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.

Front 42

Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of
the ASBCA rules found in
a. AFFARS Appendix AA.
b. DFARS Appendix A.
c. AFFARS Appendix CC.
d. DFARS Appendix C.

Back 42

b. DFARS Appendix A.

Front 43

Two techniques of ADR are
a. mitigation and controversy hearings.
b. mediation and controversy hearings.
c. mitigation and arbitration.
d. mediation and arbitration.

Back 43

d. mediation and arbitration.

Front 44

Which government requirement is violated when the wrong “color of money” is used?
a. Procurement Act.
b. Anti-Deficiency Act.
c. Bona-fide Needs Rule.
d. Misappropriations Act.

Back 44

d. Misappropriations Act.

Front 45

What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?
a. Procurement Act.
b. Anti-Deficiency Act.
c. Misappropriations Act.
d. Continuing Appropriations Act.

Back 45

b. Anti-Deficiency Act.

Front 46

The Bona-Fide Need rule requires current year funds be obligated
a. prior to expiration of the funds.
b. as necessary to meet mission requirements.
c. for the purpose the funds are authorized for.
d. in the same year the government will use the supplies or services.

Back 46

d. in the same year the government will use the supplies or services.

Front 47

O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?
a. No-year.
b. Annual.
c. Continuing.
d. Multiple year.

Back 47

b. Annual.

Front 48

NAFs are generated through
a. Appropriations Act.
b. taxpayer dollars.
c. Enabling and Procedural Acts.
d. Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities.

Back 48

d. Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities

Front 49

Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation?
a. Mission Support Group Commander.
b. Force Support Squadron Commander.
c. Contracting Squadron Commander.
d. NAF contracting officer.

Back 49

b. Force Support Squadron Commander.

Front 50

(004) What part of FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress
payments?
a. Part 30.
b. Part 31.
c. Part 32.
d. Part 33.

Back 50

c. Part 32.

Front 51

The aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed what amount of the contract
price?
a. 10%.
b. 15%.
c. 20%.
d. 25%.

Back 51

b. 15%.

Front 52

Whose job is it to ensure the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs
while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFIs?
a. Contracting squadron commander.
b. Director of business programs.
c. Plans and programs flight chief.
d. Contracting superintendent.

Back 52

a. Contracting squadron commander.

Front 53

Which position is responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy
programs?
a. Management analysis and support flight chief.
b. Contracting squadron commander.
c. Director of business operations.
d. Contracting superintendent.

Back 53

c. Director of business operations.

Front 54

Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?
a. Advising the commander on enlisted issues.
b. Managing the self-inspection program.
c. Appointing COs.
d. Military career advisor.

Back 54

c. Appointing COs.

Front 55

A CO responsibility includes
a. entering funding documents into ABSS.
b. ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.
c. developing requirements for customers.
d. approving improper invoices.

Back 55

b. ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.

Front 56

Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?
a. Contractor
b. Customer.
c. Contracting officer.
d. Contract specialist.

Back 56

b. Customer.

Front 57

What is a purpose of the customer education program?
a. Develop open lines of communication.
b. Increase quantity of contract requirements.
c. Ensure customers follow the chain of command.
d. Teach how to get started as a government contractor.

Back 57

a. Develop open lines of communication.

Front 58

Which of the following topics is used for contractor education activities?
a. Federal wage rates.
b. Avoiding wasteful spending.
c. Variations in appropriations.
d. Providing suggested sources.

Back 58

a. Federal wage rates.

Front 59

The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of construction contracts be made
within
a. 30 days of acceptance by the government.
b. 60 days of acceptance by the government.
c. 14 days from the receipt of a proper invoice.
d. 45 days from the receipt of a proper invoice.

Back 59

a. 30 days of acceptance by the government.

Front 60

What contractor education method may be used to assist new small business concerns
achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements?
a. Pre-award orientation.
b. Pre-award debriefing.
c. Post-award orientation.
d. Post-award debriefing.

Back 60

c. Post-award orientation

Front 61

What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?
a. 6C031.
b. 6C051.
c. 6C061.
d. 6C091.

Back 61

b. 6C051.

Front 62

What tool assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is
in compliance with applicable laws and regulations?
a. Self-inspection program.
b. Weekly staff meeting.
c. Quality indicators.
d. Peer reviews.

Back 62

a. Self-inspection program.

Front 63

What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong
hands?
a. ID.
b. OPSEC.
c. EM.
d. AT/FP.

Back 63

b. OPSEC.

Front 64

What is the definition of a classified contract?
a. Any contract document established for a classified contract.
b. Any contract document that includes nonclassified information.
c. Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in
the performance of the contract.
d. Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the customer in
the performance of the contract.

Back 64

c. Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in
the performance of the contract.

Front 65

Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?
a. Unit safety monitor.
b. Unit commander.
c. All personnel.
d. Supervisors.

Back 65

c. All personnel.

Front 66

Who must comply with OSHA requirements?
a. Contractors only.
b. Government employees only.
c. Construction personnel only.
d. Contractors and government employees.

Back 66

d. Contractors and government employees

Front 67

What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous
materials to the government?
a. Material Safety Data Sheet.
b. Proof of liability for potential hazards.
c. Material Shipping Document Sheet.
d. Proof of EPA notification.

Back 67

a. Material Safety Data Sheet.

Front 68

Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment
when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as
a. recycled materials.
b. recovered materials.
c. environmentally friendly.
d. environmentally preferable.

Back 68

d. environmentally preferable.

Front 69

The Buy American Act allows exceptions for articles, materials, and supplies purchased
a. for use in the United States.
b. specifically for commissary resale.
c. at a reasonable price from a domestic source.
d. when the contracting officer determines that domestic preference would be in the public’s
interest.

Back 69

b. specifically for commissary resale.

Front 70

What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the nonqualifying country
offer and the duty is exempted by the Duty-Free clause?
a. Award the contract at the offered price plus the amount of duty.
b. Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty.
c. Withhold award of the contract until certificate of exemption is received.
d. Withhold award of the contract until additional funds for duty are verified.

Back 70

b. Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty.

Front 71

Which contract type may be used when it is possible to negotiate a fair and reasonable firmfixed-
price for an initial period, but not for subsequent periods of performance?
a. Firm-fixed-price.
b. Fixed price with economic price adjustment.
c. Fixed-price with prospective price redetermination.
d. Fixed-ceiling-price with retroactive price redetermination.

Back 71

c. Fixed-price with prospective price redetermination.

Front 72

Incentive contracts are appropriate when the
a. contractor requests it.
b. contractor refuses a fixed-price contract.
c. firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate.
d. government cannot otherwise provide an accurate estimate.

Back 72

c. firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate.

Front 73

What three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives may be used?
a. Cost, price, and performance.
b. Cost, delivery, and performance.
c. Price, performance, and delivery.
d. Cost, performance, and financial capability.

Back 73

b. Cost, delivery, and performance.

(To remember this, just think Cost and Price are different. Price is the amount of money a consumer has to pay to acquire a service. Cost is the amount of money paid to produce goods. There's incentive to keep costs down, not price.)

Front 74

Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to strive for outstanding results in
all incentive areas?
a. United-incentive arrangement.
b. Multiple-incentive arrangement.
c. Combined-incentive arrangement.
d. Multi-faceted incentive arrangement.

Back 74

b. Multiple-incentive arrangement.

Front 75

When the government cannot use other incentives in fixed-price contracts because it cannot
objectively measure contractor performance, it motivates the contractor by using
a. fixed-fee provisions.
b. award-fee provisions.
c. incentive-fee provisions.
d. indefinite-fee provisions.

Back 75

b. award-fee provisions

Front 76

Which written preliminary contractual instrument immediately authorizes a contractor to
begin manufacturing supplies or performing services?
a. Letter contract.
b. Urgent contract.
c. Unpriced purchase order.
d. Blanket purchase agreement.

Back 76

a. Letter contract.

Front 77

When a contractor will acquire materials and services based on direct labor hours at
specified fixed hourly rates, the appropriate contract is
a. labor-hour.
b. indefinite-delivery.
c. time and materials.
d. fixed-price with economic price adjustment.

Back 77

c. time and materials.

Front 78

Which of the following contracts provide no positive profit incentive to the contractor for
cost control or labor efficiency?
a. Labor-hour.
b. Indefinite-delivery.
c. Time and materials.
d. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment.

Back 78

c. Time and materials

Front 79

Which contract type does not require execution of a determination and finding prior to use?
a. Fixed-price.
b. Labor-hour.
c. Letter contract.
d. Cost-reimbursement.

Back 79

a. Fixed-price.

Front 80

The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures is to
a. promote full and open competition.
b. promote inefficiencies in government contracting.
c. ease the process of acquiring goods and services through interservice acquisitions.
d. reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the contractor.

Back 80

d. reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the contractor.

Front 81

Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard
Form
a. 30.
b. 252.
c. 1442.
d. 1449.

Back 81

d. 1449.

Front 82

When may a contractor be issued a GPC?
a. When purchases will be made against a Federal Supply Schedule.
b. When working under a personal services contract.
c. For official use only.
d. Never.

Back 82

d. Never.

Front 83

The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a
CONUS vendor for use overseas is
a. $3,000.
b. $15,000.
c. $25,000.
d. $30,000.

Back 83

a. $3,000.

Front 84

An SF44 may be used when
a. supplies must be backordered.
b. a single delivery and a single payment will be made.
c. other simplified acquisitions are more appropriate.
d. a purchase exceeds the SAT during contingency operations.

Back 84

b. a single delivery and a single payment will be made.

Front 85

Performance-based acquisition
a. directs specific performance processes.
b. allows contractors the latitude to meet contract objectives.
c. allows contractors the ability to perform without government oversight.
d. directs general performance processes with minimal government oversight.
FOR

Back 85

b. allows contractors the latitude to meet contract objectives.

Front 86

Sealed bidding should not be used for construction contracts when
a. time permits.
b. the award will be made on the basis of price.
c. it is necessary to conduct discussions with offerors.
d. there is reasonable expectations of receiving more than one bid.

Back 86

c. it is necessary to conduct discussions with offerors.

Front 87

What factors are multiplied against standard prices in a SABER contract and include cost
elements such as overhead and G&A expenses?
a. Taxes.
b. Profit.
c. Coefficients.
d. Design costs.

Back 87

c. Coefficients.

Front 88

A SABER contract
a. is used to compensate for inadequate planning.
b. is a “catch all” for construction requirements.
c. can be used to acquire engineering services.
d. complements the traditional construction program.

Back 88

d. complements the traditional construction program.

Front 89

Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be
performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are
known as
a. value engineering contracts.
b. professional services contracts.
c. architect-engineer services contracts.
d. engineering design services contracts.

Back 89

c. architect-engineer services contracts.

Front 90

What is the statutory limitation on the contract fee for A-E services for the preparation of
designs, plans, drawings, and specifications?
a. Six percent of the cost of design phase.
b. 12 percent of the cost of design phase.
c. Six percent of the project’s estimated cost to complete construction.
d. 12 percent of the project’s estimated cost to complete construction.

Back 90

c. Six percent of the project’s estimated cost to complete construction.

Front 91

What clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to
design the project so that construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to a funding
limitation?
a. Design in Phase clause.
b. Statutory Limitations clause.
c. Design within Funding Limitations clause.
d. Design within Statutory Limitations clause.

Back 91

c. Design within Funding Limitations clause.

Front 92

Which of the following is a characteristic of agreements?
a. Obligates the government.
b. Cites accounting information.
c. Does not include terms and conditions.
d. Establishes the ground work for future contracts.

Back 92

d. Establishes the ground work for future contracts.

Front 93

The government can exercise its right to the option period
a. without providing notice to the contractor.
b. after the contractor has completed the basic year.
c. without further negotiation or agreement with the contractor.
d. anytime the contracting officer determines it to be in the government’s interest.

Back 93

c. without further negotiation or agreement with the contractor.

Front 94

Benefits of options include increased
a. prices.
b. competition.
c. administration.
d. acquisition lead time.

Back 94

b. competition.

Front 95

What type of contracting instrument would have the letter “M” in the ninth position of the
PIIN?
a. Automated request for quotation.
b. Manual request for quotation.
c. Automated purchase order.
d. Manual purchase order.

Back 95

d. Manual purchase order.

Front 96

Solicitations types using the letter “R” in the procurement instrument identification number
(PIIN) represent
a. an IFB.
b. a RFP.
c. a manual RFQ.
d. an automated RFQ.

Back 96

b. a RFP.

Front 97

The commercial contract format uses the
a. SF 26.
b. SF 33.
c. SF 1447.
d. SF 1449.

Back 97

d. SF 1449.

Front 98

When using the UCF, which section title would you find under Part I – The Schedule?
a. Contract clauses.
b. Evaluation factors for award.
c. Contract administration data.
d. List of documents, exhibits, and other attachments.

Back 98

c. Contract administration data.

Front 99

When using the UCF you include lengthy specifications in
a. Section B.
b. Secion D.
c. Section H.
d. Section J.

Back 99

d. Section J.

Front 100

When using the UCF, which section contains evaluation factors for award?
a. Section G.
b. Section H.
c. Section L.
d. Section M.

Back 100

d. Section M.