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85 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Receptors located in the folds of post synaptic muscle membrane in very high concentrations and are not usually found extrasynaptically |
Nicotine muscle-type Ach receptors (nAchRs) |
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5 protein subunits of nAchRs |
* 2 alpha *beta *gamma *delta |
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After birth the fetal nAChRs become mature or adult by |
Replacing the gamma subunit with epsilon |
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The release of ACh quanta is antagonized by what electrolyte abnormality |
*hypocalcemia *hypermagnesemia |
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Upregulation of immature or fetal nAChRs is seen in conditions like |
*severe burns *immobilization *prolonged use of NMBAs in the ICU *cerebrovascular accidents |
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True or false. immature nAChRs have decreased sensitivity to agonists (ACh and SCh), and increased sensitivity to NMBAs |
False. increased sensitivity to agonists and decreased sensitivity to NMBAs |
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Mode of action of non depolarizing NMBAs |
Compete with ACh for the 2 alpha subunits recognition sites thus preventing normal nAChRs function |
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Defined as the time from IV drug administration until spontaneous recovery of ST to 25% of the baseline strength. |
Duration of action until recovery to 25% (DUR 25%) |
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Defined as the time of spontaneous recovery of ST from 25% to 75% of control |
Recovery Index |
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The reason for fasciculations seen in succinylcholine |
The inabililty of acetylcholinesterases to degrade SCh leads to membrane hyperpolarization and desensitization. The desensitization leads to flaccid paralysis |
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True or false. SCh is degraded in the plasma by butyrylcholinesterase where almost 90% of the IV dose of SCh is hydrolyzed before reaching the NMJ |
True. other name for plasma choinesterase is butyrylcholinesterase |
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Myalgias in SCh use can occur after how many days postoperatively |
1-2 days in 50-60% of pxs |
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The most effective prophylaxis for myalgia without using non depolarizing NMBAs as pre treatment |
Pretreatment with NSAIDs (aspirin or diclofenac) |
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True or false. SCh may increase intragastric pressure and the lower esophageal sphincter tone |
True |
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How much does IOP increase after SCh administration |
15mmHg but lasts only for 5 mins |
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How much will SCh increase the plasma levels of potassium |
0.5mEq/L |
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Rare case reports have also associated administration of SCh with fatal hyperkalemia in children receiving what medication |
Beta blockers (propanolol) |
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True or false. SCh can trigger Malignant hyperthermia |
True esp pxs anesthetized with volatile anesthetics |
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Clinical duration of SCh if given at doses of 1mg/kg |
5-10 mins |
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Children are more resistant than adults to the actions of SCh and the usual dose is increased to |
2-3mg/kg |
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In obese pxs who need RSII, the dose of SCh should be calculated on the basis of ____ body weight |
Actual |
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Most frequently undiagnosed skeletal muscle myopathy in pediatric pxs that can cause cardiac arrest and death after giving SCh |
Duschenne's muscle dystrophy |
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Non depolarizing NMBAs can be classified into two based on their chemical structure |
*aminosteroid *benzylisoquinolinium |
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Why larger initial doses of non depolarizing NMBAs may be required in pxs with renal or hepatic failure? |
nondepolarizing NMBAs are distributed mostly in the ECF |
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Downregulation of mature nAChRs occurs in conditions like |
*chronic neostigmine use (myasthenia gravis) *organophosphorous poisoning |
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True or false. The more potent the non depolarizing NMBA the more rapid the onset. |
False. Less potent agents such as rocuronium have more molecules than the potent ones. |
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Main metabolite of pancuronium that has 50% of parent compound potency which leads to significant accumulation |
3-OH Pancuronium |
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Non depolarizing NMBA which has vagolytic effects as well as direct sympathomimetic effects; it blocks NE presynaptic uptake |
Pancuronium |
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An intermediate duration NMBA that is devoid of cardiovascular effects and with the main metabolite of 3-desacetyl that is 60% of the parent compound potency |
Vecuronium |
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Metabolite of rocuronium which has a very low neuromuscular blocking activity |
17-OH rocuronium |
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Non depolarizing NMBA which has the lowest rate of IgE-mediated anaphylaxis |
Cisatracurium |
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Incidence of analphylaxis following rocuronium may be higher than with other NMBAs due to sensitization to this anti tussive medication |
Pholcodine |
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Increase in the incidence of IgE-mediated sensitization to NMBAs has been described in hairdressers because? |
repetitive exposure to quaternary ammonium compounds used in cosmetics and hair products |
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In laparoscopic procedures, the duration of neuromuscular block produced by rocuronium is increased by 25% because |
The effects of pneumoperitoneum on hepatic perfusion and blood flow |
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Dose of sugammadex in situations where cannot intubate and cannot oxygenate occurs after using rocuronium |
16mg/kg |
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Long acting bisquaternary benzylisoquiunolinium nondepolarizing NMBA, it is also very potent thus with the least rapid onset and the longest acting |
Doxacurium |
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2 metabolic pathway for the degradation of atracurium |
*non enzymatic degradation that is directly proportional with temp and pH (Hoffman elimination) *hydrolysis by non specific plasma esterases |
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True or false. Incidence of anaphylactic reaction of cisatracurium is similar to that of atracurium |
True |
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Non depolarizing NMBA that is rapidly hydrolyzed in plasma by butyrylcholinesterases |
Mivacurium |
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In mivacurium maintained paralysis, use of whole blood or fresh frozen plasma is not recommended because |
WB or FFP contains pseudocholinesterase |
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True or false. Combining 2 chemically similar drugs with similar duration of action (atrac and cisatracurium) results in an synergistic potency |
False. Additive potency if chemically similar drugs and synergistic potency when diff classes |
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In combining drugs with diff duration of action; using of mivacurium in a vecuronium based block will result in |
Recovery will follow the vecuronium block.
Rule: recovery will always follow that of the drug that blocked the majority (70-90% of the receptors) |
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Adding depolarizing and non depolarizing NMBA results in |
mutual antagonism |
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Order of inhalational anesthetic agents according to their potentiation of neuromuscular block |
desflurane>sevoflurane>isoflurane>halothane>nitrous oxide |
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True or false. Local anesthetics can potentiate the effects of both depolarizing and non depolarizing NMBAs |
True |
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Drugs that may potentiate the effects of NMBAs |
*streptomycin and neomycin *aminoglycosides *anticonvulsants (phenytoin, carbamazepine) |
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Drug that when administered in critically ill pxs for prolonged periods of time in conjunction with neuromuscular blockade, will markedly increase the risk of myopathy |
Corticosteroids |
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What is the sensitivity of pxs with neuromuscular disorders to NMBAs? |
Increased sensitivity to depolarizing NMBA and variable sensitivity to non depolarizing NMBAs. |
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Why is the use of depolarizing NMBAs avoided in pxs with neuromuscular transmission disorders (Lambert-Eaton) |
Increased association MH and rhabdomyolysis in these disorders |
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Factors that prolong the duration of NMBAs |
*hypothermia *aging (dec. rate of elimination) *hypermagnesemia |
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Class of NMBAs that has significant hepatic and renal metabolism |
Aminosteroids *Rocuronium *Vecuronium *Pancuronium *Pipecuronium |
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The frequency of ST stimulation should not exceed _____ because muscle fatigue may occur |
0.1 Hz ( 1 stimulus every 10 seconds) |
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Single twitch modality is used clinically to deterimine |
onset of neuromuscular block |
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The highest percent occupancy of the non depolarizing NMBAs that will not reflect any apparent fade in the TOF ratio. |
65-70% |
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How many percent of the receptors are blocked when T4 disappears. |
75-80% |
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How many percent of the receptors are blocked when TOFC becomes 0 |
85-95% |
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Type of neuromuscular monitoring done by repetitive stimulation at a frequency above 30Hz |
Tetanic stimulation |
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True or false. Muscle stimulation at frequencies above 60Hz may result in muscle contraction fade even in the abscence of NMBAs |
True |
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Type of neuromuscular monitoring that is used during the periods of profound neuromuscular block, consist of 5sec , 50Hz tetanic stimulus, followed by a series of 15-30 ST at frequency of 1Hz. |
Post-tetanic count |
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True or false. The no. of post tetanic twitches is directly proportional to the depth of block |
False. inversely. the fewer the twitches, the deeper the block |
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Type of neuromuscular monitoring which is done by delivering 2 intense stimuli separated by 0.75 sec and is used to detect fade when the TOF is less than 0.6 |
Double burst stimulation |
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Patients who are able to sustain headlift for 5 seconds have TOF ratio of |
0.5 |
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The best clinical test for neuromuscular recovery is |
ability to resist removal of a tongue blade from clenched teeth; but cannot be used in pxs who are still orally intubated |
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Why is the ulnar nerve/APM combination is used more frequently in EMG? |
APM is the sole hand muscle on the radial side of the hand that is innervated by the ulnar nerve- decreasing the chance of direct muscle stimulation |
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True or false. Onset time and recovery of the APM from non depolarizing NMBAs is delayed compared to the central muscles. |
True. |
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When the pxs arms are not available for intraoperative monitoring, clinicians will often monitor what facial muscles. |
*corrugator supercilli - corresponds to laryngeal adductors *orbicularis oculi |
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Monitoring of neuromuscular blockade in the lower extremities is done through |
Flexor hallucis brevis - time course is similar to that of the APM |
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In electrode placement, the facial nerve is best stimulated at the... |
anterior portion of the mastoid process |
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Threshold (minimum requirement) for full recovery |
TOF 0.90 or more |
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Sugammadex dose for reversal if PTC is at 1 or 2 |
4mg/kg |
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TOFC values before attempting pharmacologic reversal with anticholinesterases. |
TOFC 2 or 3 |
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Why is physostigmine not used for pharmacologic reversal of neuromuscular block. |
It is a tertiary amine that crosses the BBB and exert central effects |
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Administration of small doses of neostigmine (30mcg/kg) a time when recovery of neuromuscular function is complete may produce |
upper airway collapse and may decrease the activity of the genioglossus muscle |
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Why is pharmacologic reversal using neostigmine during deep block is not recommended? |
Neostigmine is characterized by initial rapid (partial) recovery, followed by a later slower recovery |
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Attempts at pharmacologic reversal using doses of neostigmine larger than 70mcg/kg or using a combination of cholinesterase inhibitors to hasten recovery should be avoided because. |
Additional cholinesterase inhibitors may actually block the ACh receptors, leading to neuromuscular weakness. |
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Optimum dose of neostigmine when atracurium-induced light (shallow) block is antagonized |
20mcg/kg |
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True or false. Neostigmine induced speed of reversal is faster in children than in adults and slower in the elderly |
True |
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Edrophonium is a less effective as an antagonist than neostigmine because |
forms ionic (and much weaker) bonds with the acetylcholinesterase enzyme rather that the stronger, covalent bonds |
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The dose of edrophonium to antagonize shallow block (TOFC 4) |
0.50mg/kg |
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How long should you wait before giving again rocuronium after sugammadex reversal |
24 hours |
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Major side effect associated with sugammadex administration |
hypersensitive reaction |
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For diagnosis of hypersensitivity reactions during general anesthesia, an elevated _____ levels is highly predictive of IgE-mediated anaphylaxis |
serum tryptase |
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True or false. In the morbidly obese px, the dose of sugammadex has been calculated based on ideal body weight |
True |
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In patients with myasthenia gravis, patients are generally resistant to the effects of _____ and more sensitive to the effects of _______ |
Resistant to the effects of SCh and more sensitive to the effects of nondepolarizing muscle relaxants |
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A cucurbit uril derivative that has been reported to inactivate both steroidal and benzylisoquinolone nondepolarizing NMBAs by encapsulation |
Calabadion-1 |