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114 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. During REM Sleep:
a. there are fast, high voltage EEG theta rhythms
b. we observe the "K complex"
c. we observe sleep spindles
d. the brain is in its "deepest sleep"
e. none of the above
e. none of the above
2. As the night progresses, each sleep cycle tends to have shorter and shallower non-REM periods and longer REM periods.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
3. EEG activity measures a change in summed potentials of cortical neurons and is larger if there is more synchronous activity in the brain.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
4. REM sleep has been shown to be important for the consolidation of memory.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
5. All of the following are TRUE of sleep, EXCEPT:
a. during REM sleep, we see skeletal muscle atonia, as movements are commanded by the brain but most are not carried out.
b. stage 4 sleep is considered the deepest stage of sleep and has large EEG rhythms of 2 Hz or less.
c. during REM sleep we see synchronized EEG activity.
d. During non-REM sleep we see slight muscle tone, but typically minimal movement.
e. All of the above are true.
e. All of the above are true
6. During a narcoleptic episode:
a. a person goes directly into REM sleep
b. a person goes directly into stage 4 sleep
c. one sees sudden motor paralysis
d. more than one of the above (A and C)
D
7. We typically do not move much while we are dreaming because while in this state
a. there is little activity in primary motor cortex.
b. motor activity is blocked at the level of the brainstem.
c. alpha motor neurons are hyperpolarized (inhibited).
d. neuromuscular junctions are blocked.
C
8. When an animal falls asleep thalamic neurons
a. stop firing action potentials.
b. fire bursts of action potentials.
c. depolarize.
d. do not change their firing pattern
B
9. Neurons in the locus coeruleus
a. use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter and enhance the awake state.
b. increase firing with the onset of sleep.
c. use dopamine as a neurotransmitter and decrease firing during sleep.
d. none of the above.
A
10. One day your neurologist, Dr. Aby Normal, tells you that you have a few small lesions in your pons. It's no big deal, he says, but you know better. How might your sleeping behavior be altered by such lesions?
a. You will no longer be able to enter REM sleep
b. You will no longer show sleep spindles on your EEG
c. You will no longer have motor paralysis during REM sleep
d. You will have increased motor paralysis during REM sleep
e. You will have naughty dreams about your neurologist.
C
11. NMDA receptors are coincidence detectors; that is, in order for Ca2+ to enter through NMDA receptor channels, two conditions must be met simultaneously at the postsynaptic membrane. These conditions are:
a. glutamate binding to the NMDA receptor and chlorine ion flux through AMPA receptor channels
b. glutamate binding to the NMDA receptor and depolarization of the cell membrane.
c. depolarization of the cell membrane and removal of the Mg2+ block from the NMDA receptor
d. glutamate binding to the NMDA receptor and inactivation of AMPA receptors
B
12. Which of the following experimental manipulations would block LTP in a hippocampal slice preparation?
a. removing all Ca2+ from the solution bathing the slice
b. adding an antagonist for NMDA receptors
c. adding a calmodulin-binding protein that prevents calmodulin from forming a complex with Ca2+ ions
d. a & c
e. all of the above
E
13. When NMDA receptors are activated and LOTS of Ca2+ enters a neuron, calmodulin-dependent kinase II is activated. This activated kinase can lead to synaptic modification by which of the following mechanisms?
a. Phosphorylating AMPA receptors
b. Releasing calcium from internal stores
c. Inserting additional AMPA receptors into the postsynaptic membrane
d. More than one of the above (A and C)
e. All of the above
D
14. Which of the following statements accurately describes a difference between LTP and LTD in the hippocampus?
a. Entry of Ca2+ into the postsynaptic cell is a trigger for LTP but not for LTD.
b. The molecular events leading to LTP include the formation of a Ca2+-calmodulin complex, while the molecular events leading to LTD do not.
c. LTP involves modification of membrane protein channels, while LTD does not.
d. LTP depends on glutamate binding to NMDA receptors, while LTD does not.
e. The molecular events leading to LTP include activation of a kinase, while the molecular
events leading to LTD include activation of a phosphatase.
E
15. Bill Clinton used to take his dog jogging with him. Every time Clinton jogged he stopped at the local McDonalds for a Big Mac hamburger which he shared with his dog. The dog began salivating every time Clinton put on his jogging shoes. This type of learning is referred to as
a. associative learning
b. sensitization
c. habituation
d. nonassociative learning
A
16. Which of the following is an endogenous blocker of the NMDA channel?
a. magnesium
b. alcohol
c. calcium
d. glycine
e. sodium
A
17. Which of the following is NOT crucial for LTP?
a. glutamate binding to NMDA receptors
b. NMDA receptor internalization
c. Ca++ influx into the post-synaptic cell
d. concurrent depolarization of the pre and post-synaptic cell
e. More than one of the above are NOT crucial for LTP
B
18. Weston was diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. He likely portrays which of the following?
a. recurrent, intrusive thoughts
b. repetitive behaviors
c. a hypoactive HPA axis
d. an infection of the brain with Treponema pallidum
e. both A and B
f. none of the above
E
19. Anxiolytics decrease anxiety by _____ transmission at _____ synapses.
a. facilitating ... dopamine
b. inhibiting ... serotonin
c. facilitating ... GABA
d. inhibiting ... norepinephrine
C
20. Antidepressants result in…(think G-protein coupled receptor pathway)
a. Increased Brain-Derived Neurotrophic Factors (BDNF)
b. Inactivation of CREB
c. Increased levels of glucocorticoids
d. Atrophy of hippocampal cells
A
21. Neurology is a branch of medicine that is concerned with
a. the method by which neurons fire their action potentials
b. diagnosis and treatment of mental (psyche) disorders
c. diagnosis and treatment of nervous system disorders
d. agoraphobia and panic attacks
C
22. Psychotherapy is a treatment that relies on
a. deep brain stimulation
b. electroshock therapy to "re-set" the brain
c. reducing subjective sense of discomfort by talking
d. medication targeting synapses in the brain
C
23. How does the hippocampus regulate the HPA axis?
a. by detecting cortisol levels and inhibiting adrenal gland activity
b. by detecting glucocorticoids and activating the hypothalamus
c. by detecting CRH and increasing release of ACTH
d. by detecting glucocorticoids and inhibiting the hypothalamus
D
24. The action of MAO inhibitors is ultimately
a. destroying catecholamines and serotonin within neurons
b. increasing serotonin and norepinephrine in the synapse
c. blocking dopamine receptors
d. increasing externalization of membrane receptors
B
25. Bipolar Disorder is a mood disorder characterized by
a. episodes of mania and others of depression.
b. severe insomnia that is nearly lethal
c. two distinct personalities, each with their own pattern of interacting with the environment
d. mixed episodes of major depression and normal mood levels
A
26. Schizophrenia is characterized by all features EXCEPT
a. large heritability factor
b. "positive" symptoms of hallucinations, delusions, grossly disorganized speech
c. "negative" symptoms of flat affect, lack of motivation
d. multiple personalities
D
27. Forest Gump, after returning from war, suffers from visions of lying in a muddy ditch, with explosions going off in the distance and bullets whizzing over his head. These "reliving" thoughts are symptoms of
a. panic disorder
b. bipolar disorder
c. OCD
d. posttraumatic stress disorder
D
The brain is particularly vulnerable because of its
a. division of function
b. general lack of cell division of neurons after birth
c. unique blood supply
d. physical constraints of space-limited skull
e. all of the above
E
29. The most dangerous aspect of having a space occupying mass in the brain is
a. risk of brain stem herniation
b. "suffocation" of neurons
c. increase in conductance of action potentials, inducing seizures
d. none of the above
A
30. Acute management of strokes includes
a. neuroflo
b. tissue plasminogen activators
c. MERCI retrieval system
d. a cooling helmet
e. more than one of the above (but not all)
f. all of the above
F
31. Weston has fallen to the ground and you suspect that he has had a stroke. You see that his pupils are different sizes. What should you do?
a. think F.A.S.T. (Face, Arms, Smile, Time)
b. give him Advil
c. run away
d. pour a bucket of water on him
e. give him vinyl chloride to slow his blood
A
32. The correct spectrum order of states of awareness, as defined by the Glasgow coma scale is
a. consciousness ←→drowsiness←→obtundation←→stupor←→unconsciousness
b. consciousness ←→stupor←→drowsiness←→unconsciousness←→obtundation
c. drowsiness←→consciousness←→stupor←→obtundation←→unconsciousness
d. none of the above.
A
33. At Brown, Dr. Smith was involved in neural transplantation experiments. These studies involved implementing _____ tissue into ______ host cortex, in order to restore function to brains that have sustained damaged.
a. synthetic, embryonic
b. embryonic, adult
c. adult, adult
d. astrocytoma precursor, adult
B
34. Which regenerative capability makes the CNS modulatory fiber systems (noradrenergic, serotonergic, dopaminergic, ect) different from the capabilities of other normal CNS axons?
a. synaptic strengthening
b. axonal elongation
c. arborization
d. wallerian degeneration
B
35. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. we lose thousands of neurons every day
b. 75% of the brain's growth is due to neuronal mitotic division after birth
c. 75% of the brain's growth is due to myelination and elongation of axons, and growth of glial cells after birth
d. synapses are subject to strengthening throughout one's lifetime
B
36. A method to improve the functioning of rats with a syndrome similar to Parkinson’s is
a. administration of L-dopa
b. administration of dopamine
c. transplantation of embryonic substantia nigra into adult striatum
d. more than one of the above (A and C)
D
37. Aguayo's studies showed that
a. CNS neurons can never truly regenerate
b. PNS neurons can never truly regenerate
c. CNS neurons are able to resume growth and form functional synapses if they are allowed to grow in a PNS environment.
d. PNS neurons can regenerate if there are Schwann cells to guide them.
D
38. Which of the following are components of true regeneration?
a. sprouting
b. axonal elongation
c. synapse formation
d. all of above
D
Sleep
A. Is a readily reversible state of reduced responsiveness to and interaction with the environment
B. Is basically the same as a coma
C. Is basically the same as general anesthesia
D. All of the above
A
Recording an EEG, e.g., to study individual patterns of sleep,
A. Is an invasive process that may leave the subject permanently impaired
B. Requires general anesthesia
C. Is actually a kind of psychosurgery similar to a frontal lobotomy
D. None of the above
D
Synchronous rhythmic activity of a group of cortical neurons
A. Sometimes results from synchronous rhythmic activity from thalamic neurons
B. Sometimes results from collective, cooperative interactions among the cortical neurons themselves
C. May expand to include a large portion of cortex
D. All of the above
D
The neurons most critical to controlling sleep-wake cycles are
A. In the putamen
B. Part of the diffuse modulatory neurotransmitter systems
C. Part of the autonomic nervous system
D. Found in the temporal lobe
B
The awake state is enhanced by the
A. Action of the dopaminergic diffuse modulatory system
B. Actions of the norepinephrine and serotonin diffuse modulatory neurons
C. Action of the GABA diffuse modulatory system
D. Action of the substance P diffuse modulatory system
B
An elderly gentleman awoke to find that he had attacked his bedroom bureau while dreaming he was a football tackle in a championship game. What probably caused this behavior?
A. Sports epilepsy
B. REM sleep behavior disorder
C. Lesion of the corpus callosum
D. Global transient amnesia
B
During non-REM sleep, physiological control mechanisms are dominated by the
A. Sympathetic division of the ANS
B. Parasympathetic division of the ANS
C. Enteric division of the ANS
D. Cerebellum
B
What intervention can cause sleeping cats to chase imaginary mice?
A. Tryptophan supplements in their cat food
B. Certain surgical lesions in the pons
C. Transection of the spinal cord
D. Removal of the cerebral cortex
B
Restoration theories of sleep
A. Hold that sleeping restores the spiritual balance of the mind and soul
B. Hold that we sleep to rest and recover and prepare to be awake again
C. Hold that we sleep to restore and repair the body other than the brain
D. Hold that toxins that build up while we are awake are destroyed during sleep
B
Epilepsy
A. Is the name of a symptom, the occurrence of repeated seizures
B. Has no genetic basis
C. Only occurs in the most intelligent 1% of the population
D. Is a viral disease
A
Significant peaks and dips in an EEG recording most likely suggest
A. Increases and decreases in the number of cortical neurons active
B. Tradeoffs between excitation and inhibition
C. Synchronous activation of a large number of cortical neurons
D. Noise in the recording system
C
Which is NOT a natural rhythm in our environment?
A. The light and dark of day and night
B. The cycle of high tides and low tides
C. The periodic changes of the seasons
D. These are all natural rhythms in our environment
D
Atonia during REM sleep is essentially complete EXCEPT FOR
A. Respiratory muscles and those that move the eyes
B. The muscles used for talking and the respiratory muscles
C. The muscles that move the eyes and those that move the fingers
D. None of the above
A
Withdrawal from chronic use of depressants such as alcohol or barbiturates
A. Can prevent epileptic seizures for up to a year, hence the high incidence of alcoholism among epileptic
B. Can cause withdrawal seizures
C. Can cause hallucinations of dancing pink elephants, whose rhythmic dancing causes seizures
D. Never affects the frequency of seizures
B
The suggestion has been made that there is a self-regulating feedback loop for
sleep that involves adenosine. How does it work?
A. Wakefulness leads to a high adenosine level, which enhances suppression of the wakeful modulatory system
B. Eating increases adenosine and brings on sleep; then hunger lowers adenosine, causing you to wake up
C. Sexual orgasm increases adenosine and brings on sleep; then, as adenosine levels fall, you wake up
D. None of the above
A
The main difference between a generalized seizure and a partial seizure is
A. That the first is caused by chemical imbalances and the second is caused by tumors
B. That a generalized seizure involves the entire cerebral cortex and a partial seizure involves a localized area
C. That a generalized seizure can be reported verbally by the patient but a partial seizure cannot
D. None of the above
B
What are the mechanisms by which cells may communicate with each other in the
suprachiasmatic nuclei of the thalamus?
A. Classical chemical synapses
B. Electrical synapses (gap junctions)
C. Communication with the participation of glia
D. All of the above are possibilities
D
A convulsant drug might be one that
A. Blocks GABA receptors in the cortex
B. Blocks glutamate and other excitatory receptors in the cortex
C.Blocks the release of serotonin
D. Causes rapid neuron death in the frontal cortex
A
What is nonassociative learning?
A. Forming isolated, nonassociated declarative memories.
B. Change in behavioral resonse that occurs with repetition of a stimulus.
C. Classical conditioning or instrumental conditioning.
D. None of the above.
B
What is sensitization?
A. The association of a declarative and procedural memory.
B. Learning that has emotional content and results in emotional experience when memories are recalled.
C. The need for stronger and stronger stimuli to evoke a constant response.
D. Exaggerated response to subsequent stimuli, caused by a strong stimulus.
D
What is habituation?
A. Repeated presentation of a constant stimulus evokes a progressively smaller and smaller response.
B. Learning that becomes boring.
C. The fatigue you feel after a long day of classes.
D. Procedural or declarative memory involving where you live--your habitat.
A
What is associative learning?
A. The kind of learning that prepares you for a management position.
B. Learning that involves forming associations between events.
C. Learning about group behavior and team activities.
D. None of the above.
B
Learning to associate a stimulus that normally evokes a response with a second, normally ineffective stimulus is called
A. Habituation
B. Classical conditioning
C. Sensitization
D. Free association
B
In what ways are the nervous systems of invertabrates advantageous for studying neuroscience?
A. They may have as few as several thousand neurons, compared with the human brain which has billions of neurons.
B. The neurons may be very large, making electrophysiological studies easier.
C. A complete description of the workings of the nervous system can be imagined
from identifiable neurons and circuits that remain invariant from individual to individual.
D. All of the above.
D
What causes habituation in the gill withdrawl reflex in Aplysia?
A. The sensory neuron's receptors becomes less and less sensitive to repeated stimuli.
B. The pre-synaptic terminal of the sensory neuron releases fewer quanta each time it is repeatedly activated.
C. The post-synpatic terminal of the motor neuron is less sensitive to neurotransmitter during repeated activation.
D. The gill withdrawal muscle adapts to repeated stimuli.
B
What is one of the conclusions from studies of invertabrates?
A. Memories usually result from structural changes in the soma of many neurons.
B. Sensitization results from the addition of new synapses; habituation results from the deletion of synapses.
C. Learning and memory can result from modifications of synaptic transmission.
D. All of the above.
C
What pharmacological agents might you expect to block the sensitization of the gill withdrawal reflex in Aplysia?
A. A serotonin release blocker
B. A phospholipase C inhibitor.
C. A protein kinase C inhibitor.
D. None of the above.
A
If you want to investigate the synaptic basis of memory,
A. Sea slugs are a good model because they communicate declarative memories very clearly.
B. Procedural memory is easier to study because declarative memories have an ethereal quality about them.
C. It is easier to determine whether a mosquito remembers what it ate yesterday than to teach it to dance.
D. None of the above.
B
Learning to associate a motor response with a meaningful stimulus is called
A. Habituation
B. Classical conditioning
C. Sensitization
D. Instrumental conditioning
D
A synapse will be weakened when
A. The presynaptic neuron is silent and the postsynaptic neuron is active.
B. The presynaptic neuron is active and the postsynaptic neuron is only weakly active.
C. The presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron are silent at the same time.
D. None of the above.
B
What kinds of glutamate receptors are typically found at excitatory synapses?
A. AMPA, NMDA, and metabotropic glutamate receptors.
B. AMPA, D2, and muscarinic receptors.
C. NMDA, metabotropic, and nicotinic receptors.
D. NMDA, AMPA, and GABA receptors.
A
How would you characterize LTP in pyramidal cells of CA1 of the hippocampus?
A. A burst of activity from any input fibers to the cell makes the cell more responsive to any subsequent input.
B. A burst of activity on input fibers makes the cell more responsive only to subsequent inputs on the same fibers.
C. A burst of activity on input fibers makes the cell more responsive only to later inputs not on the same fibers.
D. None of the above.
B
What is the excitatory neurotransmitter used in the hippocampus?
A. Acetylcholine.
B. Serotonin.
C. Glutamate.
D. GABA.
C
What happens when a "knock out" mouse is missing the gene for the alpha subunit of CaMKII?
A. It dies just after birth, i.e., the mutation is lethal.
B. There are deficits in LTP in the hippocampus and corresponding memory deficits.
C. It has a condition similar to muscular dystrophy.
D. None of the above.
B
Calcium influx into a CA1 cell
A. Activates protein phosphatases if it is less than about 1 micromolar.
B. Activates protein kinases if it is more than about 5 micromolar.
C. Can produce either LTD or LTP.
D. All of the above.
D
If the Schaffer collateral inputs to CA1 are strongly stimulated, LTP occurs. If the Schaffer collaterals are stimulated to fire slowly for a long time, what happens?
A. LTD
B. LTP, but lasting a shorter time.
C. Nothing.
D. The synapse disappears.
A
Which of the following probably does NOT occur in the CA1 neuron during LTP?
A. Removal of NMDA receptors to reduce competition with AMPA receptors for glutamate.
B. Activation of PKC and CaMKII leading to more effective AMPA receptors.
C. Creation and insertion of additional AMPA receptors.
D. Budding of the synapse to produce more synapses from one axon terminal.
A
Neurology
A. Is the branch of medicine concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of nervous system disorders
B. Has always included the study of anxiety disorders and mood disorders
C. Focuses on things that affect the mind
D. Has always included the study of schizophrenia
A
What is the difference between fear and anxiety?
A. Fear is an automatic, uncontrollable, adaptive response; anxiety is a learned response
B. Fear operates through the parasympathetic ANS; anxiety operates through the sympathetic ANS
C. Fear is an adaptive response to real threats; anxiety is the inappropriate expression of fear
D. Fear is what men have; anxiety is what women have
C
Verbal therapy intended to help the patient with mental illness is called
1. Electroshock therapy
2. Psychotherapy
3. Neurosurgery
4. Psychosurgery
2
Frequent panic attacks consisting of discrete periods of sudden, intense fearfulness characterizes
1. Panic disorder
2. Agoraphobia
3. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
4. Posttraumatic stress disorder
1
Recurrent intrusive thoughts that cause anxiety and recurrent repetitive behaviors to relieve anxiety characterize
1. Agoraphobia
2. Panic disorder
3. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
4. Posttraumatic stress disorder
3
What is a stressor?
1. A threatening stimulus that evokes the stress response
2. A stimulus that causes anxiety, but inappropriately
3. A nonthreatening stimulus that is seen as threatening by the subject
4. None of the above
1
Which is usually NOT part of a normal stress response?
1. Avoidance behavior
2. Increased vigilance and arousal
3. Release of cortisol from the adrenal glands
4. Activation of the parasympathetic division of the ANS
4
The humoral component (the part pertaining to blood or other fluids) of the stress response is mediated by the
1. Pons-cerebellum axis
2. Hypothalamic-amygdala-hippocampal axis
3. Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis
4. Pituitary-adrenal-hippocampal axis
3
How does the hippocampus regulate the HPA axis?
1. By detecting cortisol levels and inhibiting CRH release
2. By detecting ACTH levels and increasing CRH release
3. By detecting CRH levels and inhibiting ACTH release
4. By detecting cortisol levels and increasing ACTH release
1
Chronic stress may disturb the control of the HPA axis by actually killing
1. Neurons in the amygdala
2. Glucocorticoid receptor neurons in the hippocampus
3. Pyramidal cells in the cerebral cortex
4. Parvocellular neurons in the hypothalamus that release CRH
2
When cortisol levels from the adrenal gland suddenly increase, you are likely to
1. Have a fit of laughing
2. Have a fight or flight reaction
3. Fall asleep
4. Become absolutely ravenous
2
Bipolar disorder is
1. A disorder of mood most common in children
2. Manifest as the appearance of two personalities
3. A cyclic appearance of depression only
4. Mania intermixed with major depression
4
The action of imipramine that seems to make it antidepressive is that it inhibits
1. Monoamine oxidase
2. Synthesis of catecholamines and serotonin
3. Reuptake of released serotonin and norepinephrine
4. Release of serotonin and norepinephrine in the diffuse modulatory systems
3
Schizophrenia
1. Has positive symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, and catatonic behavior
2. Has negative symptoms such as reduced emotional expression and poverty of speech
3. May actually be more than one disorder
4. All of the above
4
According to the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, the disorder is
1. Caused by the mass activation of dopamine receptors
2. Triggered by the pathological reduction in the number of cortical dopamine receptors
3. Caused by the death of dopaminergic neurons
4. Caused by the loss of synthesis enzymes for making dopamine
1
When mice were genetically modified to express fewer NMDA receptors, they
1. Only lived for about a week after birth
2. Eventually developed anxiety disorders
3. Developed symptoms similar to schizophrenia in humans
4. Developed insomnia so severe it was lethal
3
Which of the following describes schizophrenia?
1. Loss of contact with reality and disruption of thought
2. Repeated episodes of mania or mixed episodes of mania and depression
3. Lowered mood and decreased interest or pleasure in all activities
4. Diminished ability to concentrate
1
A drug that blocked dopamine receptors
1. Might be used to treat schizophrenia
2. Might cause symptoms similar to those seen in Parkinson's disease
3. Could be classified as a neuroleptic
4. All of the above
4
What is the role of the hippocampus in the stress response?
1. Suppresses the release of corticotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus
2. Stimulates the release of corticotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus
3. Releases corticotropin-releasing hormone into the portal circulation
4. Releases adrenocorticotropic hormone into the bloodstream
1
Two major classes of anxiolytic drugs include
1. Tricyclic compounds and MAO inhibitors
2. MAO inhibitors and lithium
3. Benzodiazepines and serotonin-selective reuptake inhibitors
4. Lithium and tricyclic compounds
3
What is agoraphobia?
1. Sudden feeling of intense terror
2. Compulsions that neutralize anxiety
3. Anxiety provoked by exposure to certain performance situations
4. Disorder characterized by anxiety about the difficulty of escaping
4
Which of the following would induce comas?
A. Widespread interruption of neuronal function
B. Lack of caffeine
C. Small lesion in the brain stem
D. Both a and c
D
Why are patients with Parkinson's disease administered (orally) L-dopa instead of dopamine?
A. Dopamine is hard on the stomach
B. Dopamine will not pass through the blood/brain barrier
C. Dopamine is not related to Parkinson's
D. L-dopa tastes better
B
Why is the brain particularly vulnerable to disease?
A. The neuron is a post-mitotic cell, therefore they are not replaced if lost
B. Each area of the brain is specialized and destruction of an area would result in structure-related neurological deficits
C. The brain has a unique blood supply and the arteries supplying blood to the brain are thin-walled and highly vulnerable to atherosclerosis
D. All of the above
D
The thinning of the arterial wall due to a developmental defect leading to a ballooning out of the artery under the pressure of the circulating blood is known as a/an
A. Ischemia
B. Edema
C. Aneurism
D. Embolism
C
Bleeding between the dura and arachnoid meninges is called a(an)
A. epidural hematoma
B. subdural hematoma
C. arachnoid hemorrhage
D. meningioma
B
What are the histological characteristics seen in the brains of patients with Alzheimer s Disease?
A. Neurofibrillary tangles
B. Plaques
C. Loss of cholinergic neurons in the basal nucleus of Meynert
D. All of the above
D
Which of the following means "deprivation of oxygen"?
A. embolism
B. chromatolytic
C. ischemia
D. edema
C
Which of the following would improve chorea?
A. Dopamine blockers
B. Cholinergic compounds
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
C
Which of the following would cause parkinsonism?
A. Dopamine deficiency
B. Anticholinergic compounds
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
A
Which of the following are components of true regeneration?
1. Sprouting
2. Axonal elongation
3. Synapse formation
4. All of the above
4
Which of the following pathways in the mammalian CNS preserve the ability to regenerate?
1. Monoaminergic projections
2. Cholinergic projections
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above
3
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of deafferentation?
1. axonal elongation
2. regeneration
3. synapse formation
4. collateral sprouting
2
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
1. We lose about a few thousand neurons everyday.
2. Neurons destroyed by injury or disease are never replaced.
3. Neuronal mitotic division constantly occurs throughout one's lifetime
4. Division and growth of glial cells account for the 75% of the brains growth.
3
What can we do to enhance specific fiber ingrowth into and around embryonic transplant tissue?
1. Electrically stimulate transplant cells to increase their activity levels
2. Prevent modulatory fiber ingrowth
3. Identify trophic substances that would enhance specific fiber growth in adult brains
4. All of the above
4
Which regenerative capability makes the CNS modulatory fiber systems different from the CNS specific fiber system?
1. anterograde degereration
2. sprouting
3. axonal elongation
4. new synapse formation
3
Aguayo's results showed that many __________ neurons are intrinsically able to resume growth if they are allowed to grow in a _________ environment.
1. specific CNS, PNS
2. PNS, non-specific CNS
3. PNS, specific CNS
4. specific CNS, non-specific CNS
1
Which of the following transplantation is a possible cure for Alzheimers's disease?
1. embryonic DA neurons into adult striatum
2. adrenal medulla homografts into striatum
3. embryonic septal cholinergic neurons into the adult hippocampus
4. embryonic mesencephalon into adult striatum
3
Dr.Smith was involved in neural transplantation studies. She implented __________cortical neurons into ____________ host cortex, hoping to restore cortical function to "broken brains".
1. adult, embryonic
2. embryonic, adult
3. stem cell, embryonic
4. adult, adult
2