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120 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. What is the name given to a network in which computers act as both clients and servers?
(A) A multitasking network (B) A mainframe network (C) A peer to peer network (D) A LAN network |
1. (C) A network with computers acting as both clients and servers is peer to peer network
Chapter 1 |
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2. What standard defines the hardware technology of modern LANs?
(A) ARPANET (B) Ethernet (C) OSI (D) TCP/IP |
2. (B) Ethernet is the starndard.
Chapter 1 |
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3. Which device is being used if frames are repeated down every attached Ethernet cable?
(A) Moderm (B) Switch (C) Frame (D) Hub |
3. (D) A hub repeats frames down every attached network cable.
Chapter 1 |
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4. What device enable LANs to connect and direct packets to the correct LANs?
(A) Hub (B) Frame (C) Router (D) Switch |
4. (C) A router connects LANs and directs packets to the correct LAN.
Chapter 1 |
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5. A protocol operating at which layer of the OSI model is responsible for logical addressing and routing?
(A) Transport (B) Network (C) Session (D) Application |
5. (B) A protocol operating at the Network later provides addressing and routing functions.
Chapter 1 |
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6. A protocol operating at which layer of the OSI model handles the formatting of data so upper or lower layers can work with them further?
(A) Application (B) Presentation (C) Session (D) Transport |
6. (B) A protocol operating at the Presentation layer handles the formatting of data (among other functions).
Chapter 1 |
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7. Layer 3 is the __________ layer of OSI model.
(A) Session (B) Application (C) Data Link (D) NetworkNetwork |
7. (D) Layer 3 of the OSI model is the network layer.
Chapter 1 |
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8. at which layer of the TCP/IP model are UDP datagrams created?
(A) Link/Network interface (B) Internet (C) Transport (D) Session |
8. (C) data is divided into chunks at the transport layer and then bundled into UDP datadrams or TCP segments, depending on which protocol is used.
Chapter 1 |
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9. Which type of communication requires the client and server to acknowledge the transmission?
(A) ACK request (B) Connectionless (C) Connection-oriented (D) Session |
9. (C) Connection-oriented communication requires the client and server to acknowledge the transmission.
Chapter 1 |
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10. At which layer of the TCP/IP model do cable fit?
(A) Link/Network Interface (B) Internet (C) Transport (D) Application |
10. (A) Cabling is in the Link/Network Interface layer of the TCP/IP model.
Chapter 1 |
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1. Which of the following connector types is associated with the fiber- optic cable?
(A) RJ45 (B) BNC (C) ST (D) RG-58 |
1. (C) ST connectors are associated with fibre-optic cable.
Chapter 2 |
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2. Which of the following UTP cable categories can support data transmission at 100 Mbps?
(A) CAT 1 (B) CAT 4 (C) CAT 5e (D) All of the above |
2. (C) CAT 5e (and higher) cabling can support data transmission at 100 Mbps.
Chapter 2 |
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3. You are planning an upgrade in future proof of your current office's 10/100 network wiring. The new media must be capable of supporting up to 1000 Mbps up to 100 meters per network segment and10 Gbps for shorter distances. Which of the following media types best satisfies your upgrade requirements?
(A) CAT 5 (B) CAT 6 (C) CAT 5e (D) 1000BaseT (E) 1000BaseSX |
3. (B) CAT 6 UTP is the only solution mentioned capable of fulfilling the Gbps requirement in the question.
Chapter 2 |
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4. Which of the following connectors types is associated UTP cable and is considered a Physical-layer device?
(A) Rj45 (B) BNC (C) SC (D) NBC (E) USB 3.0 |
4. (A) Rj45 connectors are associated with UTP cable and considered OSI physical-layer devices.
Chapter 2 |
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5. What name is given to the problem caused when signals from adjacent cables interfare with each other?
(A) Talkback (B) Crossover (C) Backchat (D) Cross talk |
5. (D) Crosstalk between OSI physical-layer devices
Chapter 2 |
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6. Laptop seem to be losing their wireless connection when someone is talking on the cordless phone. What should you do?
(A) Reboot the wireless router (B) Change the SSID (C) Enable WEP (D) Change the channel on the wireless router |
6. (D) because the cordless phone is running on the same frequency range as the wireless router, you are most likely getting interference from the phone when it is use. You should try to change the channel on the right to put the wireless network on a different frequency.
Chapter 2 |
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7. What are the name associated with cable used to connect to patch panel and cable used to a patch panel and cable used to connect an MDF to an IDF?
(A) Horizontal and vertical cross-connect (B) Rollover (C) 586A and 586B (D) Crossover and crossunder |
7. (A) A patch cable that connects to the patch panel is called a horizontal cross-connect (HCC) cable. Cable that connects the MDF to the IDFs is called the vertical cross-connect (VCC) cable.
Chapter 2 |
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8. Which wireless standard runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency range and has a maximum transfer rate of 54 Mbps?
(A) 802.11b (B) 802.11g (C) 802.11a (D) 802.11n |
8. (B) 802.11g runs at the 2.4 GHz range and has a maximum transfer rate of 54 Mbps.
Chapter 2 |
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9. What device enable two or more WI-FI-enabled devices to connect to each other wirelessly and connect to a wired network.
(A) Router (B) Switch (C) MTRj (D) WAP |
9. (D) A wireless access point (WAP) enables wireless and wired networks.
Chapter 2 |
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10. What feature of 802.11n enables devices to use multiple antenna to make multiple simultaneous connections and thus increase throughput?
(A) MIMO (B) OFDM (C) MTRJ (D) WAP |
10. (A) Multiple in/multiple out (MIMO) is the 802.11.n standard for using multiple antenna simultaneously.
Chapter 2 |
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1. Which of the following network types user a bus topology?
(A) IEEE 802.5 (B) IEEE 802.3 (C) IEEE 802.11 (D) FDDI |
1. (B) Of the possible answers, only IEEE 802.3 represents a bus standard.
Chapter 3 |
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2. What name is given to the access method used by Ethernet networks to determine which devices can have access to the media?
(A) Token passing (B) Collision Domain Management (CDM) (C) CSMA/CA (D) CSMA/CD |
2. (D) Ethernet networks use CSMA/CD to determine which system can send data on the network.
Chapter 3 |
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3. You are monitoring network traffic and notice a number of frames are destined for a MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF. What type of traffic is this?
(A) Unicast (B) Multicast (C) Broadband (D) Broadcast |
3. (D) A frame with the destination MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF is broadcast traffic destined for every host on the network.
Chapter 3 |
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4. To create a more efficient network in your school lab, your instructor asks you to help join bandwidth of two 100 Mbps NIC cards to create a 200 Mbps connection an configure multiple physical ports to appear as a single uplink port on the lab router. What terms describe what you and your instructor are doing?
(A) Segmenting and preventing signal bounce (B) Bonding and port trunking (C) Concerting multitcast to unicast (D) Multihoming and preventing broadcasts |
4. (B) Bonding is a network term used to describe the action of the joining the bandwidth of two network cards or modems. Port trunking (also sometimes referred to as bonding) allowing multiple physical port to appear as a single uplink port in switched networks.
Chapter 3 |
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5. Which 10 Gbps Ethernet standard uses single-mode fiber-optic cabling, supports a distance of more than 2 km, and is not SONET-compatible?
(A) 10GBaseSR (B) 10GBaseER (C) 10GBaseLW (D) 10GBaseEW |
5. (B) 10GBaseER is single-mode fiber over an extended range of up to 40km
Chapter 3 |
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6. What network topology is most fault tolerant?
(A) Bus (B) Ring (C) Star (D) Mesh |
6. (D) The mesh topology is the only one that allows multple pathways between networks
Chapter 3 |
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7. What access method do IEEE802.11 wireless networks use to determine which computer can use the network at a given moment?
(A) CSMA/CA (B) CSMA/CD (C) SSID/EDDID (D) Point-to-point (E) Point-to-multipoint |
7. (A) IEEE 802.11 wireless networks use the CSMA/CA (carrier sense multiple access/collision avoidance) access method to determine which computer can use the network at a given moment. Note that wired Ethernet networks use CSMA/CD (carrier sense multiple access/collision detection).
Chapter 3 |
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8. Which of the following represents the IEEE wireless network standard?
(A) IEEE 802.3 (B) IEEE 10BaseW (C) IEEE 802.5 (D) IEEE 802.11 |
8. (D) IEEE 802.11 is the wireless network standard.
Chapter 3 |
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9. Which of the following is a Gigabit standard that uses multi-mode fiber-optic cabling?
(A) 1000BaseT (B) 1000BaseCX (C) 1000BaseLX (D) 1000BaseSX |
9. (D) 10000BaseSX is the Gigabit standard that uses multimode fiber-optic cabling, which used to cover short distances.
Chapter 3 |
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10. What method do WI-FI networks use for collision avoidance?
(A) WI-FI CA (B) CA/CP (C) DCF (D) ACK |
10. (C) Current CSMA/CA devices use the Distributed coordination function (DCF) method for collision avoidance
Chapter 3 |
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1. What is the minimum size of an Ethernet frame?
(A) 8 bytes (B) 64 bytes (C) 128 bytes (D) 256 bytes |
1. (B) The minimum size of Ethernet frame is 64 bytes
Chapter 4 |
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2. Which part of the frame contain information used for checking the validity of the frame?
(A) FCS (B) Pad (C) Premble (D) Type |
2. (A) The frame checK sequence FCS contains error-checking information.
Chapter 4 |
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3. Which device enables you to connect two networks, but discards broadcast traffic?
(A) Bridge (B) Hub (C) Switch (D) Router |
3. (D) Routers connect networks, but discard broadcast traffic.
Chapter 4 |
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4. At which layer of the OSI model do switches work?
(A) Layer 1 (B) Layer 2 (C) Layer 3 (D) Layer 4 |
4. (B) Switches work at layer 2, the Data Link Layer, because they manage traffic using MAC address.
Chapter 4 |
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5. How are the connectors wired on a crossover cable?
(A) One end is T568A; the other end is T568B (B) Both ends are T568A. (C) Both ends are T568B. (D) One end is an RJ-45; the other end is RG-6 |
5. (A) Aproperly wired crossover cable is T568A or all T568B defines a straight-through cable. RJ-45 is for UTP; RG-6 is for coaxial. you wouldn't find them on the same cable.
Chapter 4 |
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6. What is the purpose of a preamble in an Ethernet frame?
(A) It gives the receiving NIC time to realize a frame is coming and to know when the frame starts. (B) It provides the receiving NIC with the sending NIC's MAC address so communication can continue (C) It provides error-checking to ensure data integrity. (D) It contain a description of the data that is to follow so the receiving NIC know how to reassemble it. |
6. (A) The preamble gives the receiving NIC time to realize a frame is coming and to know when the frame starts
Chapter 4 |
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7. Which device enable you to connect two networks that use different technologies
(A) Hub (B) Repeater (C) Router (D) Switch |
7. (C) A router enables networks to connect even if the networks use diffrent technologies.
Chapter 4 |
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8. Upon looking at the front of a switch, you notice something labeled MDI-X. What is this for?
(A) It is a special receptacle for the power cable. (B) It is a regular port used to connect computers (C) It is an uplink port used to connect the switch to another switch. (D) It is the brand name of the switch. |
8. (C) Uplink ports are often labeled MDI-X.
Chapter 4 |
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9. What feature of switches prevents the problem of bridging loops?
(A) STP (B) SAT (C) IEEE 802.3 (D) UTP |
9. (A) Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) prevents bridging loops, STP also stands for shielded twisted-pair; knowing the context in which the acronym is being used is important.
Chapter 4 |
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10. What feature of switches keeps track of which MAC addrres goes to each port?
(A) FCS (B) SAT (C) STP (D) UTP |
10. (B) switch keeps tracks track of whichMAC address goes to each port with its source address table (SAT).
Chapter 4 |
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1. Which of the following does not represent an IPv6 address?
(A) 2001:0db8:3c4d:0015:0000:0000:abcd:ef12 (B) 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 (C) 255.255.0.0 (D) ::1 |
1. (C) 255.255.0.0 is an IPv4 Class B subnet mask address. All other choices are vaild IPv6 addresses.
Chapter 5 |
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2. Which of the following is a vaild class B host address?
(A) 147.28.0.0 (B) 192.168.14.50 (C) 12.12.12.12 (D) 128.14.255.0 |
2. (D) 128.14.255.0 is a vaild class B address. Although Choice A is a class B address , it is an invaild host address of all zeros (x.x.0.0).
Chapter 5 |
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3. What is minimum number of data bits required for subnet addressing to allow a total of five subnets to be created?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 |
3. (C) Three bits allow a total of six subnets to be created, giving scope for the five we want to create. Two bits (choice B) would allow only two subnets.
Chapter 5 |
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4. What port number does Telnet use?
(A) 443 (B) 23 (C) 80 (D) 43 |
4. (B) Telnet user port 23.
Chapter 5 |
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5. Which of the following protocols provides TCP/IP name resolution?
(A) DHCP (B) SNMP (C) Telnet (D) DNS |
5. (D) DNS provides name resolution. DHCP dynamically dishes out IP addresses and other important information to clients. SNMP is for network management, and telnet provides terminal emulation functionality.
Chapter 5 |
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6. Which Protocol provides automatic host IP address assignment?
(A) DHCP (B) DNS (C) NetBios (D) BOOTR |
6. (A) DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol provides automatic host IP address assignment
Chapter 5 |
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7. Which protocol enables connectionless communication?
(A) DNS (B) DHCP (C) TCP (D) UDP |
7. (D) UDP enables connectionless communication.
Chapter 5 |
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8. What port number is used to connect to a DNS server?
(A) 20 (B) 23 (C) 53 (D) 67 |
8. (C) DNS uses UDP and TCP port 53.
Chapter 5 |
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9. A user calls and says his IP address is 169.157.150.12. What kind of address does he have?
(A) APIPA (B) DHCP (C) DNS (D) Loopback |
9. (A) The poor guy's computer can't reach a DHCP server and thus has a default APIPA address.
Chapter 5 |
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10. Which of the following is a vaild class A address?
(A) 10.256.128.12 (B) 120.255.128.12 (C) 169.154.128.12 (D) 192.168.1.12 |
10. (B) Both A and B start in the right address range (first octet between 1 and 126, but the second octet in choice A contain an invaild number, because 255 is the highest number in an IPv4 octet.
Chapter 5 |
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1. How many lines of a routing table does the router read when comparing the IP address and subnet mask of an incoming packet?
(A) The router reads only the first two lines to determine the proper route. (B) The router reads the lines from the top until it reaches the proper route. (C) The router reads the lines from the bottom until it reaches the proper route. (D) The router reads all the lines and then determines the proper route. |
1 (D) The router reads all the lines and then determines the proper route.
. Chapter 6 |
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2. What is the purpose of the default route in a routing table?
(A) The default route tells the router where to send every packet. (B) The default route is used by routers solely for updating routing tables. (C) The default route tells the router where to send every packet if not explicitly listed on another line in the routing table. (D) The default route is used to configure the router. |
2 (C) The default route tells the router where to send every packet unless another line in the routing table gives another route.
Chapter 6 |
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3. How many IP addresses should a router have?
(A) One (B) One or more (C) Two (D) Two or more |
3 (D) By definition, a router should have two or more IP addresses to connect different networks with its routing function.
. Chapter 6 |
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4. Which version of NAT maps a single routable IP address to a single network node?
(A) Static NAT (B) Dynamic NAT (C. Pooled NAT (D). Secure NAT |
4. (A) Static NAT maps a single routable (that is, not private) IP address to a single Machine
Chapter 6 |
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5. What technology enables you to designate a specific local address for various network services?
(A) Dynamic NAT (B) Port Address Translation (C) Port forwarding (D) Port filtering |
5. (C) Port forwarding enables you to designate a specific local address for various network services.
Chapter 6 |
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6. How is the distance between routers measured?
(A) In meters (B) In hops (C). In routes (D) In segments |
6 (B) The distance between routers is measured in hops.
Chapter 6 |
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7. Distance vector routing protocols include which of the following? (Select two.)
(A) RIP (B) OSPF (C) BGP (D) ASN |
7. (A) and (C) Distance vector routing protocols include RIP and BGP.
Chapter 6 |
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8. What is one way in which Autonomous Systems differ from typical Ethernet networks?
(A) They require a minimum of 10 nodes. (B). They cannot exceed a maximum of 255 nodes. (C) They are not able to interact with the Internet. (D) They do not use IP addresses. |
8. (D) Autonomous Systems do not use IP addresses, but instead use a globally unique Autonomous System Number.
Chapter 6 |
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9. Why are link state protocols more efficient than distance vector routing protocols?
(A) Entire routing tables are updated on a stricter schedule. (B) They forward only changes to individual routes instead of forwarding entire routing tables. (C) Packets can be sent along multiple routes at the same time. (D) Link state can send larger packets. |
9. (B) Link state protocols forward only changes to individual routes, whereas RIP forwards entire routing tables.
Chapter 6 |
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10. Which of the following is a hybrid dynamic routing protocol?
(A) RIP (B) OSPF (C) BGP (D) EIGRP |
10. (D) EIGRP is the sole hybrid dynamic routing protocol.
. Chapter 6 |
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1. What is one benefit of a VLAN?
(A) It enables remote users to connect to a local network via the Internet. (B) It reduces broadcast traffic on a LAN. (C) It can create a WAN from multiple disjointed LANs. (D) It provides encryption |
1. (B) VLANs reduce broadcast traffic by segmenting local networks into distinct virtual networks.
Chapter 7 |
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2. The number of running virtual machines on a single host is limited by what factor?
(A) Physical RAM (B) Virtual RAM (C) Physical NICs (D) Virtual NICs . |
2. (A) Physical RAM imposes limits on the number of VMs you can run at the same time.
Chapter 7 |
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3. When a virtual machine is not running, how is it stored?
(A) Firmware (B) RAM drive (C) Optical disc (D) Files |
3. (D) VMs are just files, usually stored on a hard drive.
Chapter 7 |
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4. To enable computers connected to different switches to be members of the same VLAN, what do the switches have to support?
(A) Content switching (B) Port authentication (C) Port mirroring (D) Trunking |
4 . (D) Switches that support trunking enable each switch to be a member of multiple common VLANs.
Chapter 7 |
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5. Which of the following operating systems would not run on VMware Workstation for Windows?
(A) Windows XP (B) Apple iOS (C) Ubuntu Linux (D) Windows Vista |
5. (B) Apple iOS won’t run on VMware for Windows.
Chapter 7 |
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6. Which of the following virtualization programs works well with Mac OS X? (Select the best answer.)
(A) ESX (B) KVM (C) Parallels (D) Virtual PC |
6. (C) Parallels is the dominant virtuallels is the dominant virtualization program for OS X.
Chapter 7 |
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7. The boss flies into your office yelling that the virtualized web server has been hacked and now displays only purple dinosaurs. Which of the following would be the fastest way to fix the problem?
(A) Restore from backup (B) Run System Restore (C) Reinstall Windows (D) Load an earlier snapshot |
7. (D) The beauty of VMs is that you can load an earlier snapshop in a matter of moments.
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8. Which of the following is not a good reason for virtualization?
(A) Power saving (B) Hardware consolidation (C) System recovery (D) Reduced hardware costs |
8. (D) Switching to virtual machine server can cost a lot more than a series of PCs, but opeating costs are reduced.
Chapter 7 |
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9. Powerful hypervisors like ESX are often booted from _______________.
(A) Floppy diskettes (B) USB thumb drives (C) Firmware (D) Windows |
9. (B) A good hypervisor can be tiny, loading from something as a USB thumb drive.
Chapter 7 |
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10. The entire hypervisor market is dominated by two players. (Select two.)
(A) ESX (B) HyperV (C) Parallels (D) KVM |
10. (A,B) ESX and HyperV are the two big players in the native hypervisor market.
Chapter 7 |
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1. Which standard supports a throughput of up to 39.8 Gbps?
(A) ISDN (B) VDSL (C) SONET (D) MPLS |
1. (C) SONET supports throughput up to 39.8 Gbps as defined in the OC-768 standard.
Chapter 8 |
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2. If you purchase a T1 line in the United States, how will packets be switched? (Select two.)
(A) OC (B) Frame Relay (C) ATM (D) BERT |
2. (B) and (C) Frame Relay and ATM are packet-switching technologies used on T1 lines.
Chapter 8 |
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3. What describes the problem with “the last mile”?
(A) The connection from a central office to a user’s home is analog, whereas the rest of the network is digital. (B) Users must live within a mile of a central office in order to guarantee Quality of Service (QoS). (C) SONET connections are limited to a maximum distance of one mile, and connecting central offices via multiplexers is expensive and difficult to maintain. (D) Copper wires that carry analog telephone signals are limited to a maximum distance of one mile. |
3. A The last mile describes the analog run from the central office to a user’s location.
Chapter 8 |
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4. What terms describe a common telephone connection? (Select two.)
(A) ISDN (B) POTS (C) Fractional T1 (D) PSTN |
4. (B) and (D) POTS and PSTN are interchangeable terms for common telephone networks.
Chapter 8 |
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5. What marks where the telephone company’s responsibility ends and yours begins?
(A) Multiplexer (B) Demarc (C) Primary Rate Interface (D) Bridges connection |
5. (B) The telephone company’s responsibility ends at the demarc. All wires and equipment on the other side are the responsibility of the customer.
Chapter 8 |
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6. The CCITT established which set of standards?
(A) Optical Carrier (OC) (B) DSL (ADSL, SDSL, VDSL) (C) Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) (D) V standards |
6. (D) The CCITT developed the V standards for modems.
Chapter 8 |
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7. Which is the fastest ISDN connection?
(A) BERT (B) BRI (C) PRI (D) ATM |
7. (C) A Primary Rate Interface combines 23 B channels for a total throughput of about 1.5 Mbps.
Chapter 8 |
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8. Sinjay is 200 meters from his ISP’s DSLAM. Which DSL version will provide him with, theoretically, up to 100 Mbps of both download and upload speed?
(A) DS3 (B) ADSL (C) SDSL (D) VDSL |
8. (D) Because he is within 300 meters of his ISP’s DSLAM, VDSL is a viable option, and it supports 100 Mbps in both directions.
Chapter 8 |
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9. Which protocol is used by cable companies?
(A) MPLS (B) DOCSIS (C) PSTN (D) SIP . |
9. (B) Cable companies use Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS).
Chapter 8 |
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10. What is the benefit to using a satellite connection?
(A) It offers speeds faster than both DSL and cable. (B) The upload and download speeds are always equal. (C) It is often available in remote locations where DSL and cable are not. (D) It offers better security than both DSL and cable. |
10. (C) Satellite connections are often the only option for users in remote locations.
. Chapter 8 |
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1. What aspect of protecting your network involves theft of equipment?
(A) Packet filtering (B) Physical security (C) Policies (D) Port filtering |
1. (B) The theft of equipment can be prevented with adequate physical security.
Chapter 9 |
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2. What is another name for port filtering?
(A) Port Blocking (B) Port filing (C) Port folders (D) Port segments |
2. (A) Another name for port filtering is port blocking.
Chapter 9 |
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3. Where would a DMZ more commonly be found?
(A) On a single PC (B) On a server (C) On a SOHO (D) On a large network |
3. (D) A demilitarized zone (DMZ) would be foundprotecting a larger network with web and email servers.
Chapter 9 |
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4. Just after opening a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Rowan notices that some of his filenames have changed and that his network connection no linger works. What type of malware has most likely infected his computer?
(A) Worm (B) Macro (C) Trojan (D) Rootkit |
4. (B) Because the problems occurred after opening a file in its associated program, a malicious macro is likely embedded in the spreadsheet.
Chapter 9 |
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5. What problem does a rogue access point introduce?
(A) Unauthorized physical access to a server (B) Unauthorized access to a wired network (C) Unauthorized access to a wireless network (D) Unauthorized physical access to a router or gateway |
5. (C) A rogue access point provides unauthorized access to a wireless network.
Chapter 9 |
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6. Which statement about passwords are true? (Select two.)
(A) You should chang your password regularly. (B) You should use familiar terms, like your pet's name or your birthday, as a password because it will be easy for you to remember. (C) Writing your password on a piece of paper in case you forget it is okey as long as you keep the paper in a locked drawer? (D) You may not use spaces in a password. |
6. (A) and (C) Change your password regularly. if you must write it down to help you remember it, keep it locked in a drawer.
Chapter 9 |
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7. Which statement is true?
(A) A DoS uses a zombie, whereas DDoS uses a botnet to attack a single system. (B) A DoS uses a botnet, whereas a DDoS uses a zombie to attack a single system. (C) A DoS attack a single system, whereas a DDoS attack multiple systems. (D) A DoS attack systems on the internet, whereas a DDoS attack systems in a DMZ. |
7. (A) A DoS attack uses a single infected computer (zombie), whereas a DDoS attack uses multiple infected computers (botnet) to attack a single system.
Chapter 9 |
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8. What is a honeypot?
(A) It acts as a fake network, luring potential hackers away from the actual network network. (B) It is a security measure that slows unauthorized network access to a crawl (as if running in honey), making your network undesirable to hackers. (C) It is what hackers call an easily hacked network. (D) It is a specialized padlock manufactured for the sole purpose os securing computer systems. |
8. (A) A honeypot acts as a fake network, diverting would-be hackers away from your real network.
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9. You receive an email from your credit card company informing you that your card number has been stolen. You click a link in the email and taken to what looks like your credit card company's website, where you are asked to enter your credit card number to determine if it is among those that where recently stolen. What should you do?
(A) Enter your credit card number immediatetely to determine if it is among those stolen because this is the only way to protect against unauthorizes charges to your account. (B) Call the toll-free number listed on the website to veritfy it is legitimate before entering your card number. (C) Call the toll-free number listed on the website and read your card number over the phone to the customer services representative. (D) Close your browser without entering your card number because it is likely a phishing scam, and then call the toll-free number listed on the back of your actual credit card to verify that is the case. |
9. (D) This is likely a phishing scam. Call the number listed on the back of your physical card to verify.
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10. Which authentication protocol is time sensitive and is the default authentication
protocol on windows domains? (A) PPP (B) MS-CHAP (C) IPsec (D) Kerberos |
10. (D) Kerberos is the time-sensitive authentication protocol used on Windows domains
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1. The First step in designing a new SOHO network is to
(A) Define a list of requirements. (B) Determine the type of ISP you will use. (C) Check the existing cable. (D) Determine what security you need. |
1. (A) Defining requirements the first step in designing a SOHO network.
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2. With what technology can you avoid finding an AC outlet for a WAP?
(A) AES (B) PoE (C) Powered WI-FI (D) TKIP |
2. (B) Power over Ethernet (PoE) provides power through the network cable, thus eliminating the need to a WAP into an AC outlet.
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3. What should you use when you want to limit access to your wireless network based on the physical, hard-coded address of each wireless network device?
(A) Bus scheduling (B) Encoding (C) Encryption (D) MAC address filtering |
3. (D) MAC address filtering should be used when you want to limit access to your wireless network based on the hard wired address of each wireless network device.
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4. Which of the following is the wireless network encryption method that is most secure?
(A) MAC address filtering (B) WEP (C) WPA (D) WPA2 |
4. (D) WPA2 is a wireless encryption method that improves on the security features of WPA. MAC address filtering can be easily spoofed and bypasses. Wired Equivalent privacy (WEP) is not secure anymore.
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5. Where should you place a WAP to get optimal coverage of a room?
(A) In the center of the room. (B) On the north wall, halfway up. (C) On the wall opposite any potential interference devices. (D) It dosen't matter. Replace the default anntenna with a more powerful one. |
5. (A) Placing the WAP in the center of the room will give the most coverage.
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6. What is true of a multilayer switch?
(A) It can work at multiple OSI layers at the same time. (B) It can work with one of several OSI layers at a time, depending on its configuration mode. Working at a different layer requires making a configuration change and resetting the switch. (C) It can communicate with other switches, that work at different OSI layers. (D) It has twice the ports of a standard switch because it contains two regular switches, one stacked on top of the other. |
6. (A) A multilayer switch can work at multiple OSI layers at the same time.
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7. How does an IPS compare to an IDS?
(A) An IPS is more secure because it uses IPsec. (B) An IDS is more secure because it uses 1.2TP. (C) An IPS is more robust because it can react to attacks. (D) An IDS is more robust because it can react to attack. |
7 (C) An IPS is more robust because it can react to attacks.
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8. Which feature of advanced swithes enables an administrator to inspect packets coming to or from specific computers?
(A) Bandwidth shaping (B) Load balancing (C) IPS (D) Port mirroring |
8 (D) Port mirroring enables an administrator to inspect packets coming to or from certain computers.
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9. Your boss asks you for a diagram showing every server on the network. What do you provide to her?
(A) Logical Raid (B) Network diagram (C) Wiring scheme (D) Baseline |
9. (B) A network diagram shows every router, switch, server, Csu/dsu, cable modem, and wireless access point on the network.
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10. What is defined in a security policy? (Select Two)
(A) What users can and cannot do with their computers (B) How complex user passwords should be (C) How to deal with social engineering hacking attempts (D) How user should install their own software. |
10. (B and C) A security policy desribes how to deal with hacking attemps and password complexity. What users can and cannot do with their computers and what software they can install is covered under the acceptable use policy.
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1. Which of the following is the final step of troubleshooting model?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause. B. Test The Solution. C. Document your findings. D. Establish a plan of action |
1. (C) Once you have solved the problem, always document your findings so that you or someone else may more quickly come to a solution next time.
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2. Susan cannot log in to the network. Which of the Fellowing would be the best question to ask first.
A. Tell me exactly what would happens when you try to log in B. What did you do C. What protocols are installed? D. Which operating system are you using? |
2. (A) Identify the problem by asking the user what happens when she attempts to log in.
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3. Which of the following are open-ended questions? (Select all that apply.)
A. Has anything been changed on the system recently? B. Can you see a power light on the monitor? C. What light can you see on the monitor? D. Tell me what happens when you move the mouse. |
3. (C,D) Any question that cannot be answered with a yes or no is an open -ended question.
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4. Which of the following are Physical network issues associated with network media (Select all that apply)
A. Attenuation B. Crosstalk C. Wrong subnet mask D. Shorts |
4. (A, B, D) Usin the wrong subnet mask would be a logical network issue, not a network media issue.
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5. Which of the following steps should be first in a troubleshooting model?
A. Document your findings. B. Test your theory. C. Identify the problem. D. Implement the solution. |
5. (C) The troubleshooting theory begains by identifying the problem.
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6. Which of the following tools can identify a cabling fault due to an overlong segment?
A. Mulitimeter B. TDR C. Tone Locator D. Punch-down tool |
6. (B) A TDR can accurately measure segment lenght. A multimeter cannot.?
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7. Isabel suspects that eletrical interference is affecting a segment of the network cabling. What is one of the first things she should do to test her diagnoisis
A. Use a TDR B. Use a protocol analyzer. C. Install a lenght of optical fiber D. Move the media |
7. (D) Try moving the affected media first before moving on to more complicated solutions.
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8. Which of the following is used to test fiber-optic cabling?
A. Mulitimeter B. Butt set C. OTDR D. TDR |
8. (D) An Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) tests fiber-optic cabling.
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9. Stella complains that her computer can't connect to the network. you will theorize that her NIC might be faulty. What step should you follow next?
A. Try replacing her NIC. B. Ask Stella what is wrong C. Replace the cables with CAT 6 D. Verify her system works. |
9. (A) Test your theory by replacing the NIC. If it works, verify full system functionality and document your findings.
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10. Abigail recives several report that the users are experiencing server connection issue. She walks to the server closet to investigate the issue and finds that it is incredibly humid inside. What should she have installed to avoid this problem?
A. Cable tester B. Environmental monitor C. Temperature monitor D. Fox and Hound |
10. (B) An environmental monitor can track humidity; a temperature monitor does not.
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1. Which of the following commands will display the TCP/IP configuration of a system running UNIX/LINUX/OS XP?
A. ipconfig B. ping 127.0.0.1 C. ifconfig D. ipstat |
1. (C) Run the ifconfig command to display TCP/IP configuration information on a UNIX/Linux
Chapter 12 |
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2. Which of the following can be used to optimize performance of networking applications? (Select Three)
A. QoS B. Switching loops C. Traffic Shaping D. Load Balancing |
2. (A, C, D) Switching loops are not used to optimize performance of networking applications and will typically bring the network down. All other choices are used to optimized performance of networking applications.
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3. Which of the following programs can be used to view the error logs on a Windows server?
A. Event Viewer B. PerfMon C. applog D. monitor.nlm |
3. (A) Event Viewer is used to view the logs on any Windows server-based operating system.
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4. You notice that system is running slowly, and you suspect that someone has planted a program on your system and is using that program to get unauthorized access. What command and switch could you use to troubleshooting this?
A. ipconfig /all B. netstat-r C. nbstat-A D. netstat-a |
4. (A) Using netstat-a, you can view the TCP and UDP connections and listening ports on your system.
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5. You are looking at your web server log files and you notice that a machine on your network with the IP address 192.168.3.2 has been sending a number of invaild requests to the web server. You would like to track down whose computer this is on your network. What command would you use?
A. ping 192.168.3.2 B. netstat-r C. nbstat-A 192.168.3.2 D. netstat-a 192.168.3.2 |
5. (C) The nbtstat command with the-A switch is used to view the remote name table on a computer when you supply the command with an IP address.
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6. Which command shows detailed IP information, including DNS server addresses and MAC Addresses?
A. ipconfig B. ipconfig -a C. ipconfig/all D. ipconfig/dns |
6 (C) Running ipconfig /all
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7. Which of the tool uses ICMP packets to test connectivity between two systems?
A. ARP B. arping C. netstat D. ping |
7. (D) Only ping uses ICMP
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8. If you want to see which other computers on your network are currently connected to you, what command should you use?
A. ping B. nbtstat C. netstat D. tracert |
8. (C) The netstat command shows your current sessions.
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9. Which Windows command displays the local system's routing table?
A. route print B. print route C. tracert /print D. tracert /p |
9. (A) The route print command ebable you to view and edit your local routing table
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10. Which tools should you use to diagnose problems with DNS?
A. Nmap or Wireshark B. nslookup C. ping or arping D. tracert or arping |
10. (B) The nslookup tool and the more powerful dig tool are used to diagnode DNS problems.
Chapter 12 |
