Ndeb5

Front 1

The epithelium covering the lesions of chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is believed to be derived from the
A. reduced enamel epithelium.
B. epithelium of the gingiva.

C. odontoblastic layer.
D. epithelial rests of Malassez.
E. remnants of the dental lamina

Back 1

B

Front 2

Which of the following is the LEAST likely
primary site for the development of oral
squamous cell carcinoma in the elderly?
A. Dorsum of the tongue.
B. Floor of the mouth.
C. Lateral border of the tongue.
D. Tonsillar fossa.

Back 2

A

Front 3

Which of the following are vital signs?
1. Blood pressure.
2. Body temperature.
3. Pulse rate and respiration.
4. Pupil size.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 3

A

Front 4

The cardinal signs of inflammation are
1. redness.
2. pain.
3. swelling.
4. loss of function.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 4

E

Front 5

A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony
base will result in
1. slower healing.
2. foreign body inflammatory reaction.
3. wound dehiscence.
4. necrosis of bone.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 5

B

Front 6

When using forceps for extraction of a
maxillary first molar, which of the following
statements is/are true?
1. Palatal bone is thinner than buccal bone.
2. Buccal bone is easier to expand.
3. Forcep movement should be principally in
the palatal direction.
4. Forcep movement should be principally in
the buccal direction.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 6

C

Front 7

Which of the following basic forcep
movements is NOT used for extracting teeth?
A. Apical.
B. Rotational.
C. Mesial.
D. Lingual (palatal).

Back 7

C

Front 8

With respect to forceps extraction of teeth,
which of the following applies (apply)?
1. Beaks should be placed on the root of the
tooth.
2. Beaks should be applied parallel to the long
axis of the tooth.
3. Beaks should be moved apically during
extraction.
4. Poor placement can lead to tooth fracture,
slippage and injury to adjacent teeth.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 8

E

Front 9

Marsupialization (PARTSCH PROCEDURE)
is the preferred surgical technique in the
management of
1. a cyst.
2. a keratocyst.
3. ranula.
4. osteomyelitis.
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (1) (2) (3)

Back 9

B

Front 10

Maxillary incisor protrusion can be treated by
1. premolar extraction with orthodontic
retraction of the incisors.
2. premolar extraction with surgical
repositioning of the anterior dentoalveolar
segment.
3. extraction of the incisors, alveoloplasty and
prosthodontic replacement.
4. reduction and genioplasty.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 10

A

Front 11

Which of the following clinical approaches
would reduce the tendency to the postextraction
complication of dry socket?
A. Pre-extraction control of pericoronitis.
B. Post-extraction socket dressing with
topical tetracycline.
C. Use of a pre-operative mouthrinse of 0.2
percent chlorhexidine gluconate.
D. All of the above.

Back 11

D

Front 12

Wolff's Law states that bone elements
A. rearrange themselves in the direction of
functional pressures.
B. increase their mass to reflect functional
stress.
C. decrease their mass to reflect functional
stress.
D. All of the above.

Back 12

D

Front 13

Attached gingival tissue is primarily composed
of:
A. collagenous fibres.
B. keratinized squamous epithelium.
C. elastic fibres.
D. A. and B.
E. A., B. and C.

Back 13

D

Front 14

Therapeutic doses of morphine administered
intramuscularly may produce
1. constipation.
2. euphoria.
3. mental clouding.
4. dysphoria.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 14

E

Front 15

Excessively dark radiographs will result from
1. underdevelopment.
2. overexposure.
3. backward placement of the film.
4. excessive milliamperage.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 15

C

Front 16

Success of an endosseous dental implant is
dependent upon
1. biocompatibility of the material.
2. design.
3. a period of non-function.
4. immediate loading.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) (2) (4)
C. (1) and (4)
D. (2) and (4)

Back 16

A

Front 17

The luting materials that will bond to enamel
are
1. zinc phosphate.
2. polycarboxylate.
3. zinc silicophosphate.
4. glass ionomer.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 17

C

Front 18

Which of the following should NOT be
prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin
(Coumadin®)?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Oxycodone.
3. Ketorolac.
4. Codeine.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 18

B

Front 19

Flurbiprofen is an
1. antibiotic.
2. analgesic.
3. anti-inflammatory.
4. anti-depressant.
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (2) and (3)
D. (4) only

Back 19

C

Front 20

A very apprehensive patient experiencing pain
may be prescribed a barbiturate, chloral
hydrate or an antihistamine to control the
anxiety. In which of the following would you
expect an exaggerated response to the use of
these drugs?
1. A diabetic.
2. The elderly.
3. A rheumatic.
4. A patient with chronic renal disease.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 20

C

Front 21

Hypercementosis at the root apex is often
associated with
A. hypothyroidism.
B. Paget's disease.
C. orthodontic tooth movement.
D. normal occlusal function.
E. hyperparathyroidism. .

Back 21

B

Front 22

When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from
the
A. base of the pocket to the
cementoenamel junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the
free gingiva.
D. base of the pocket to the
mucogingival junction

Back 22

C

Front 23

Infrabony defects occur most frequently in
A. cancellous bone.
B. cortical bone.
C. bundle bone.
D. interseptal bone

Back 23

C

Front 24

Which of the following is/are common to both gingival and periodontal pockets?
1. Apical migration of junctional epithelium.
2. Fibrotic enlargement of marginal tissue.
3. Bleeding upon probing.
4. Increased depth upon probing.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 24

D

Front 25

In periodontal flap surgery, the initial incision
is made to
A. remove the sulcular lining of the
pocket.
B. aid in healing.
C. sever the attachment of the oblique
fibres of the periodontal ligament.
D. excise the keratinized gingiva.

Back 25

A

Front 26

A hinge axis facebow records
A. Bennett angle.
B. centric relation.
C. lateral condylar inclination.
D. horizontal condylar inclination.
E. opening and closing axis of the
mandible.

Back 26

E

Front 27

Compared to unfilled resins, composite
resins have
1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. better polishability.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 27

A

Front 28

After the age of 6 years, growth of the
mandible is greatest
A. at the symphysis.
B. between canines.
C. along the lower border.
D. posterior to first molars.

Back 28

D

Front 29

There is a differential between girls and boys
with respect to the age at which the growth
velocity reaches its peak. That difference is
A. boys six months ahead of girls.
B. girls six months ahead of boys.
C. girls one year ahead of boys.
D. girls two years ahead of boys.

Back 29

D

Front 30

Which of the following is/are correct?
A. There is no histological difference
between basal and alveolar bone.
B. There is no difference in the response
of basal and alveolar bone to
pressure.
C. Osteoid is a highly mineralized
bundle bone.
D. All of the above

Back 30

B

Front 31

The optimal time for orthodontic treatment
involving growth manipulation is during
A. late primary dentition.
B. early mixed dentition.
C. late mixed dentition.
D. early permanent dentition.

Back 31

C

Front 32

The predominant type of movement produced
by a finger spring on a removable appliance is
A. torque.
B. tipping.
C. rotation.
D. translation. .

Back 32

B

Front 33

Following loss of a permanent mandibular
first molar at age 8, which of the following
changes are likely to occur?
1. Distal drift of second premolar.
2. No movement of second premolar.
3. Mesial drift of second permanent molar.
4. No movement of second permanent molar.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 33

B

Front 34

The best space maintainer to prevent the
lingual collapse that often occurs following
the early loss of a mandibular primary canine
is a
A. Nance expansion arch.
B. lingual arch.
C. band and loop space maintainer.
D. distal shoe space maintainer.

Back 34

B

Front 35

Mouth breathing is most commonly associated
with Angle's malocclusion Class
A. I.
B. II, Division 1.
C. II, Division 2.
D. III.
E. None of the above

Back 35

B

Front 36

If the norm for the cephalometric angle SNA
is 82 degrees and a patient's reading for SNA
is 90 degrees, this would likely indicate
A. protrusive maxillary incisors.
B. dysplasia of the anterior cranial base.
C. maxillary prognathism.
D. patient's ethnic background.

Back 36

C

Front 37

Recurring tooth rotations occur most
frequently after orthodontic correction due to
A. density of the cortical bone.
B. persistence of tongue and finger
habits.
C. free gingival and transseptal fibres.
D. oblique fibres of the periodontal
ligament.

Back 37

C

Front 38

Final treatment planning for the combined
surgical-orthodontic correction of a
dentofacial deformity should include
A. predetermined occlusion on dental
models.
B. mock surgery on appropriately
mounted models.
C. cephalometric analysis with
prediction tracing.
D. All of the above

Back 38

D

Front 39

Hydroxyapatite
1. can be used to eliminate osseous undercuts.
2. is derived from coral.
3. is biocompatible.
4. is resistant to fracture.
5. is osteogenic.
A. (1) (3) (5)
B. (1) (2) (3)
C. (2) (4) (5)
D. All of the above. .

Back 39

B

Front 40

An alveoplasty is performed to
1. facilitate removal of teeth.
2. correct irregularities of alveolar ridges
following tooth removal.
3. prepare the residual ridge for dentures.
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (3)
D. All of the above

Back 40

C

Front 41

A dental laboratory has returned a removable
partial denture framework. The framework fit
the master cast well but when tried in the
mouth, a stable fit could not be achieved. The
possible cause(s) of the problem is/are
1. distortion in the final impression.
2. insufficient retention.
3. improper pour of the master cast.
4. casting error.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 41

B

Front 42

Composite resin is contraindicated as a
posterior restorative material in cases of:
1. Allergy to benzoyl peroxide.
2. Bruxism.
3. Lack of enamel at the gingival cavo-surface
margin.
4. Inability to maintain a dry operating field.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 42

E

Front 43

Which one of the following describes the
position of the needle tip during
administration of local anesthetic for the
inferior alveolar nerve block?
A. Anterior to the pterygomandibular
raphe.
B. Medial to the medial pterygoid
muscle.
C. Superior to the lateral pterygoid
muscle.
D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular
ligament.

Back 43

D

Front 44

The dimensional stability of polyether
impression material is considered to be good
EXCEPT if the material is
A. dehydrated.
B. allowed to absorb water after setting.
C. used in uneven thickness.
D. distorted by rapid removal of the
impression from the mouth.
E. contaminated with latex.

Back 44

B

Front 45

For amalgam restorations, a 90° cavosurface
angle accommodates the
1. condensing of amalgam.
2. compressive strength of amalgam.
3. tensile strength of amalgam.
4. compressive strength of enamel.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 45

C

Front 46

Tooth reduction for anterior tooth preparation
for porcelain fused to metal and all ceramic
crowns is dictated by the following
imperative(s)
1. length for adequate retention-resistance.
2. porcelain/ceramic thickness for fracture
resistance.
3. clearance for occlusal function.
4. parallelism of axial walls for facilitating the
path of insertion.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 46

A

Front 47

In order to achieve a proper interproximal
contact when using a spherical alloy, which of
the following is/are essential?
1. A larger sized condenser.
2. A thinner matrix band.
3. An anatomical wedge.
4. Use of mechanical condensation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 47

A

Front 48

Which of the following SHOULD NOT be
corrected with a porcelain veneer?
A. Peg lateral incisor.
B. Diastema between 1.1 and 2.1.
C. Cross bite on tooth 1.3.
D. Enamel hypoplasia. .

Back 48

C

Front 49

A silane coupling agent is used to
A. control polymerization shrinkage in
composite resins.
B. enhance the bond between a
porcelain veneer and the resin
cement.
C. enhance use of a heat cured
composite resin inlay.
D. reduce the surface tension when
investing a wax pattern.
E. facilitate the soldering of gold
castings.

Back 49

B

Front 50

Zinc phosphate cement, when used as a luting
agent for cast restorations, has which of the
following properties?
1. Insolubility.
2. Anticariogenicity.
3. Chemical adhesion.
4. Mechanical retention.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 50

D

Front 51

To achieve optimum strength and esthetics, a
metal ceramic restoration with a porcelain butt
joint margin should really have a
A. 0.8 – 1.0mm shoulder reduction.
B. 0.8 – 1.0mm incisal reduction.
C. 90 cavosurface margin.
D. finish line that is 2mm subgingival.

Back 51

C

Front 52

Enamel spindles are
A. aberrant dentinal tubules that cross
the dentinoenamel junction.
B. structural faults that span the entire
thickness of the enamel.
C. responsible for the incremental lines
in enamel.
D. seen as perikymata on the surface of
newly erupted teeth

Back 52

A

Front 53

Leucite is added to porcelain fused to metal
crowns to
A. decrease the thermal expansion
coefficient of porcelain.
B. decrease the fusing temperature.
C. increase the translucency.
D. increase strength to the porcelain.

Back 53

D

Front 54

According to the principles of ethics that are
generally accepted in Canada, a dentist may
refuse to treat a patient with HIV infection for
a specific procedure for the following
reason(s).
1. Inadequate experience in the specific
procedure.
2. Inadequate knowledge of the specific
procedure.
3. Lack of instruments or equipment for this
procedure.
4. Infection control procedures that are not
designed for infectious patients.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 54

A

Front 55

Which of the following periodontal
procedures is indicated on a maxillary canine
that will receive a full crown with subgingival
margins when the abutment has 1mm of
attached gingiva, no sign of inflammation or
loss of attachment?
A. Curettage and root planing.
B. Coronally positioned flap.
C. Localized gingivectomy.
D. Autogenous connective tissue graft.
E. There is no indication that this tooth
requires periodontal treatment.

Back 55

E

Front 56

A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a
patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift
should be taken with the patient in
A. maximum intercuspation.
B. initial contact.
C. normal rest position.
D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive position. .

Back 56

A

Front 57

A patient wants all his remaining teeth
extracted and dentures fabricated. He has
carious lesions involving the dentin on all
remaining teeth. The periodontium is sound.
The most appropriate management is to
1. respect the patient's decision.
2. advise the patient to consult a specialist.
3. discuss all of the appropriate treatment
options.
4. refuse to refer or to treat this patient since it is
unethical.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 57

B

Front 58

Which of the following is the most effective
pharmacologic treatment for angular
cheilosis?
A. Penicillin.
B. Erythomycin.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Clindamycin.
E. Nystatin

Back 58

E

Front 59

Which articular disease most often
accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome?
A. Suppurative arthritis.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Degenerative arthrosis.
D. Psoriatic arthritis.
E. Lupus arthritis

Back 59

B

Front 60

The most frequent cause for composite resin
restoration failure is
A. brittleness of the composite.
B. excessive polymerization shrinkage.
C. presence of voids within the material.
D. inadequate moisture control during
placement

Back 60

D

Front 61

Dentigerous cysts are usually found
A. periapically.
B. pericoronally.
C. interradicularly.
D. mid-root

Back 61

B

Front 62

It is ethical to replace amalgam restorations
1. on request from an informed patient.
2. to relieve symptoms of multiple sclerosis.
3. in highly esthetic areas of the mouth.
4. to eliminate toxins from the patient.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 62

B

Front 63

The following conditions can be the result of
ill-fitting complete dentures.
1. Soft tissue hyperplasia.
2. Alveolar ridge resorption.
3. Angular cheilitis.
4. Carcinoma.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 63

A

Front 64

Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated
with which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts. .

Back 64

C

Front 65

The most likely cause of tooth loss following
a tunneling procedure to provide complete
access for a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement is
A. root caries.
B. root sensitivity.
C. pulpal involvement.
D. recurrent pocketing. .

Back 65

A

Front 66

The most common clinical characteristic/s of
a buccolingual functional crossbite is/are
1. mandibular shift from initial contact to
maximum intercuspation.
2. asymmetrical arches.
3. midline deviation.
4. several missing teeth.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 66

B

Front 67

Gingival hyperplasia may occur in patients
taking
1. cyclosporine.
2. nifedipine.
3. phenytoin.
4. carbamazepine.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 67

A

Front 68

Which chemical mediator of inflammation is blocked or reversed by a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)?
A. Bradykinin.
B. Histamine.
C. Substance P.
D. Prostaglandin

Back 68

D

Front 69

The most appropriate treatment of necrotizing
ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) in a patient
with no fever and no lymphadenopathy is
1. periodontal debridement.
2. antibiotic therapy.
3. oral hygiene instruction.
4. topical steroid therapy.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 69

A

Front 70

Which of the following statements applies to
the submandibular lymph nodes?
1. They discharge into the internal jugular
nodes.
2. When draining an area of acute infection, they
are enlarged, nontender, soft, well defined and
movable.
3. They are found medially to the mandible.
4. They drain the anterior palatine pillar, soft
palate, posterior third of the tongue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above

Back 70

B

Front 71

In its classic form, serial extraction is best
applied to patients with Class I occlusions
with crowding of
A. less than 10mm in each of the upper
and lower arches and 35% overbite.
B. 10mm or more in each of the upper
and lower arches and 35% overbite.
C. less than 10mm in each of the upper
and lower arches and 70% overbite.
D. 10mm or more in each of the upper
and lower arches and 70% overbite

Back 71

B

Front 72

The best time to begin interceptive
orthodontic treatment for a patient with a
skeletal Class II malocclusion is
A. as soon as the malocclusion is
diagnosed.
B. immediately following complete
eruption of the deciduous dentition.
C. immediately following complete
eruption of the first permanent
molars.
D. several months prior to the prepubertal
growth spurt.
E. after skeletal maturity.

Back 72

D

Front 73

A reciprocal clasp arm on a removable partial
denture will provide
1. resistance to horizontal force.
2. indirect retention.
3. stabilization.
4. direct retention.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 73

B

Front 74

The maxillary cast partial denture major
connector design with the greatest potential to
cause speech problems is
A. a thick narrow major connector.
B. an anterior and a posterior bar.
C. a thin broad palatal strap.
D. narrow horseshoe shaped.

Back 74

A

Front 75

The layer of intermingled collagen and resin
located beneath a restoration is called the
A. smear layer.
B. hybrid layer.
C. Weil layer.
D. decalcification layer.

Back 75

B

Front 76

In an acute periapical abscess, which of the
following teeth is most likely to spread
infection to the submandibular space?
A. Mandibular second bicuspid.
B. Maxillary third molar.
C. Mandibular first molar.
D. Mandibular third molar.
E. Mandibular lateral incisor.

Back 76

D

Front 77

When performing an intraoral incision and
drainage of a dentoalveolar abscess, which of
the following is/are true?
1. The scalpel incision should be made
superficially through mucosa.
2. The incision should be only large enough to
allow placement of a drain.
3. The underlying tissue dissection is performed
bluntly.
4. The purpose of a drain is to keep the incision
open.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 77

E

Front 78

Immediately following a left posterior superior alveolar nerve block injection, the patient’s face becomes quickly and visibly swollen on the left side. The immediate treatment should be to
1. apply a cold compress.
2. administer 0.3mg epinephrine (sublingually).
3. apply pressure.
4. refer for immediate medical treatment.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 78

B

Front 79

Management of a “dry socket” should include
1. saline irrigation of socket.
2. vigorous curettage of the socket.
3. placement of a dressing in the socket.
4. a prescription for antibiotics.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 79

B

Front 80

An open proximal contact on an amalgam
restoration could have been caused by
1. inadequate wedging.
2. overtightening the matrix band.
3. inadequate condensing forces.
4. simultaneous placement of adjacent
proximal restorations.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 80

E

Front 81

The principal internal retention for a Class V
amalgam cavity preparation is established at
the
A. occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line
angles.
B. mesio-axial and disto-axial line
angles.
C. mesio-gingival and disto-gingival
line angles.
D. None of the above.

Back 81

A

Front 82

Which of the following impression materials
has the best dimensional stability?
A. Polysulfide rubber.
B. Condensation silicone.
C. Polyvinylsiloxane.
D. Irreversible hydrocolloid.

Back 82

C

Front 83

The objective of scaling and root planing
during periodontal therapy is to remove
A. plaque, calculus, contaminated
cementum and junctional epithelium.
B. plaque and calculus exclusively.
C. plaque, calculus and crevicular
epithelium.
D. plaque, calculus and contaminated
cementum.
E. all cementum associated with
periodontitis

Back 83

D

Front 84

Periapical cemental dysplasia is
A. painful.
B. expansile.
C. associated with vital teeth.
D. premalignant

Back 84

C

Front 85

The collagen fibres of the periodontal ligament that insert into bone are called
A. Müller’s fibres. B. reticular fibres. C. Sharpey’s fibres. 
D. oxytalan fibres.

Back 85

C

Front 86

Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2
(riboflavin) deficiency may include
1. glossitis.
2. angular cheilitis.
3. pain.
4. erythematous oral mucosa.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 86

E

Front 87

Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2
(riboflavin) deficiency may include
1. glossitis.
2. angular cheilitis.
3. pain.
4. bluish purple discolouration of the oral
mucosa.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 87

A

Front 88

Oral signs and/or symptoms of advanced
vitamin C deficiency include
1. pain.
2. angular cheilitis.
3. spontaneous hemorrhage of the gingiva.
4. xerostomia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 88

B

Front 89

Following root canal therapy, the most
desirable form of tissue response at the apical
foramen is
A. cementum deposition.
B. connective tissue capsule formation.
C. epithelium proliferation from the
periodontal ligament.
D. dentin deposition. .

Back 89

A

Front 90

The micro-organisms of dental caries are
1. streptococcus mutans.
2. staphylococcus aureus.
3. lactobacillus acidophilus.
4. B-hemolytic streptococci.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 90

B

Front 91

Fibrous dysplasia of the jaws
A. is of known etiology.
B. is premalignant.
C. has monostotic and polyostotic
forms.
D. begins in the fifth decade.
E. is bilaterally symmetrical.

Back 91

C

Front 92

Which of the following would you NOT
prescribe for a patient receiving Warfarin
(Coumadin®)?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Metronidazole.
3. Erythromycin.
4. Codeine.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 92

A

Front 93

A fistula found in association with a non-vital
tooth should be
1. cauterized to remove the epithelium.
2. traced to source with a gutta-percha point on a
radiograph.
3. treated with combined surgical and
nonsurgical root canal therapy.
4. treated with nonsurgical root canal therapy.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 93

C

Front 94

A crown margin can be extended
subgingivally when required
1. for esthetics.
2. to increase retention.
3. to reach sound tooth structure.
4. for caries prevention.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 94

A

Front 95

Which of the following root surfaces have
concavities that make root planing difficult?
A. Mesial of maxillary first premolars.
B. Lingual of mandibular first
premolars.
C. Mesial of maxillary incisors.
D. Distal of the palatal roots of
maxillary molars

Back 95

A

Front 96

If a flush terminal plane converts to a mesial
step terminal plane (Class I occlusion) without
orthodontic intervention, it is primarily a
result of
A. the absence of mandibular primate
space.
B. maxillary forward growth exceeding
mandibular forward growth.
C. mesial movement of the mandibular
first permanent molars following
exfoliation of the mandibular second
primary molars.
D. distal movement of the maxillary
first permanent molars following
eruption of the maxillary second
bicuspids.

Back 96

C

Front 97

Assuming daily maximums are not exceeded,
which of the following is/are appropriate for
pain management following an emergency
pulpectomy for an adult with a history of
severe asthma and nasal polyps?
1. Naproxen 250mg, every 6 - 8 hours p.r.n.
2. Acetylsalicylic acid 650mg every 4 - 6 hours
p.r.n.
3. Ketorolac 10mg every 4 - 6 hours p.r.n.
4. Acetaminophen 1000mg every 4 - 6 hours
p.r.n.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 97

D

Front 98

Which one of the following luting agents has
been shown to reduce the incidence of
fracture in an all-ceramic restoration?
A. Resin modified glass ionomer
cement.
B. Zinc phosphate cement.
C. Composite resin cement.
D. Glass ionomer cement

Back 98

C

Front 99

A 52 year old patient presents with a
limitation of mouth opening. The patient has
loss of attached gingiva and multiple areas of
gingival recession. A panoramic radiograph
shows diffuse widening of the periodontal
ligament. The most likely diagnosis is
A. scleroderma.
B. hyperparathyroidism.
C. cicatricial pemphigoid.
D. erythema multiforme.
E. advanced adult periodontitis.

Back 99

A

Front 100

A patient complains of irritability, fatigue and
weakness. She is losing weight and has
diarrhea. The clinical examination shows
diffuse brown macular pigmentation of the
oral mucosa. The pigmentation appeared
recently. The most likely diagnosis is
A. iron deficiency anemia.
B. Addison’s disease.
C. acute myeloid leukemia.
D. Crohn’s disease

Back 100

B