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101 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
A patient complains of irritability, fatigue and
weakness. She is losing weight and has diarrhea. The clinical examination shows diffuse brown macular pigmentation of the oral mucosa. The pigmentation appeared recently. The most likely diagnosis is A. iron deficiency anemia. B. Addison’s disease. C. acute myeloid leukemia. D. Crohn’s disease |
B
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A 32 year old male complains of weight loss
and diarrhea. The clinical examination shows lymphadenopathy, multiple flat erythematous lesions on the palate and a linear gingival erythema. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Crohn’s disease. B. Diabetes mellitus. C. AIDS. D. Leukemia. |
C
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A mandibular right second molar has tipped
mesially into the adjacent edentulous space. Which of the following tooth movements will most likely occur when uprighted by fixed orthodontic therapy (fixed appliance on teeth 4.7, 4.5, 4.4 and 4.3)? 1. Extrusion of the second molar. 2. Lingual tipping of the second molar. 3. Intrusion of the anchor unit. 4. Buccal tipping of the anchor unit. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. . |
E
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The pain associated with pulpitis often
disappears when a patient visits a dental office. This occurs due to which of the following events? A. Stress-induced sympathetic activity inhibits pulpal sensory fibres that cause pain. B. Stress-induced sympathetic activity causes vasodilatation of pulpal blood vessels. C. Local mediators of pulpal pain are not released when a stress-induced rise in blood pressure occurs. D. Pulpal pain receptors undergo fatigue. |
A
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The most appropriate treatment of chronic
sclerosing osteomyelitis of the mandible includes 1. intravenous antibiotics followed by long term oral antibiotics. 2. hyperbaric oxygen. 3. decortication. 4. radiotherapy. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. . |
A
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Dental implants are CONTRAINDICATED in
patients who 1. are over age 80. 2. have unrepaired cleft palates. 3. are taking anticoagulants. 4. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
D
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A patient has a displaced right subcondylar
fracture of the mandible. On opening, the mandible deflects to the right. Which muscle is prevented from functioning appropriately? A. Medial pterygoid. B. Temporalis. C. Masseter. D. Lateral pterygoid |
D
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The most prevalent inflammatory cells found
in gingival tissue 24 hours following flap surgery are A. monocytes. B. macrophages. C. lymphocytes. D. polymorphonuclear leukocytes |
D
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An 8 year old patient with all primary molars
still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars and good alignment of the lower incisors. The management of this patient should be to A. refer for orthodontic consultation. B. use a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. C. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars. D. place patient on appropriate recall schedule. |
D
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A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid of
filiform papillae, located in the midline of the dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to the circumvallate papillae is indicative of A. benign migratory glossitis. B. median rhomboid glossitis. C. a granular cell tumor. D. iron deficiency anemia. E. a fibroma |
B
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A 25 year old female in her first trimester
of pregnancy presents with an acute dental infection. Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED for this patient? A. Prescription of a radiograph. B. Prescription of penicillin V. C. Extraction using 2% xylocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine. D. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain management. |
D
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The risk of transmission of Hepatitis B Virus
(HBV) is greater than that of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) because HBV is 1. more resistant than HIV. 2. transmissible through saliva. 3. in higher numbers in blood than HIV. 4. autoclave resistant. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
A
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With two rescuers performing
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult patient, how many external chest compressions are given per minute? A. 40 B. 60 C. 80 D. 100 |
D
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The most appropriate treatment for a permanent molar with occlusal caries confined to enamel is a/an
A. amalgam. B. composite resin. C. flouride varnish application. D. preventive resin restoration. |
D
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The most appropriate time to remove a
supernumerary tooth that is disturbing the eruption of a permanent tooth is A. as soon as possible. B. after two thirds of the permanent root has formed. C. after the apex of the permanent root has closed. D. after the crown appears calcified radiographically. |
A
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Which of the following is a possible cause for
a low density radiograph (light film)? A. Cold developer. B. Over exposure. C. Improper safety light. D. Excessive developing time. |
A
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The risk of latex allergy increases with a/an
1. increased exposure to latex. 2. history of spina bifida. 3. history of allergy to bananas, chestnuts or avocado. 4. history of eczema. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
E
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Appropriate management for the relief of
symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis in an immunocompromised patient may include 1. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml. 2. Triamcinolone acetonide in Orabase. 3. Acyclovir capsules 200mg. 4. Dexamethasone elixir 0.5mg/ml. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
B
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Gingival enlargement may result from the
administration of 1. nifedipine. 2. cyclosporine. 3. phenytoin sodium. 4. prednisolone. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
A
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The survey of the diagnostic cast that is done
as part of a removable partial denture design procedure is needed to 1. determine the path of insertion of the removable partial denture. 2. evaluate the retention potential of the abutment teeth. 3. evaluate the modifications needed to create parallel guiding planes. 4. locate the height of contour abutment teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. . |
E
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The best way to protect the abutments of a
Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by A. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth. B. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extensions. C. placing distal rests on distal abutments. D. using cast clasps on distal abutments. E. regular relining of the distal extensions. |
E
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|
When designing a removable partial denture,
changing the tilt of the cast on the surveyor alters the 1. path of insertion of the planned removable partial denture. 2. the position of the survey line on the cast. 3. the undercut and non-undercut areas. 4. the direction of forces applied to the partial denture. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
A
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Which of the following can increase the
chances of successful osseointegration of a dental implant? 1. An atraumatic surgical approach. 2. The availability of dense cancellous bone. 3. A good initial stability of the implant. 4. Immediate loading of the implant. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
A
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|
Shortly after the administration of an inferior
alveolar nerve block, a healthy adult patient rapidly develops a facial rash. Which of the following signs and symptoms should be watched for before initiating the planned dental treatment? 1. Pallor and perspiration. 2. Shortness of breath. 3. Hyperventilation. 4. Edema of the lips. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
E
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|
The angle SNA can be used to evaluate the
A. maxillary protrusion. B. overbite. C. upper incisor inclination. D. facial height. E. mandibular angle. . |
A
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A fracture in an all ceramic crown may be
caused by 1. inadequate ceramic thickness. 2. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation. 3. excessive occlusal load. 4. use of an inappropriate luting material. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. . |
E
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|
A survey of the master cast shows that the 3.5
and 3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have different paths of insertion with respect to 3.7. A semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than preparing the teeth again. Where should the male part of the attachment ideally be located? A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer. B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic. C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer. D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic. |
D
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A Bolton relationship has determined a
• maxillary “12” excess of 3.5mm • maxillary “6” excess of 3.0mm What effect(s) could this Bolton relationship have on a Class I malocclusion? 1. Deeper overbite. 2. Maxillary crowding. 3. Reduced overjet. 4. Increased overjet. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. . |
C
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The normal growing mandible exhibits which of the following characteristics?
A. Resorbs along the posterior rami. B. Grows more vertically than horizontally. C. Has completed 100% of its growth by age 13 in females. D. Has latent post pubertal growth potential. |
D
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Which patient would NOT be predisposed to liver toxicity following a dose of 1,000mg of acetaminophen?
A. An adult with liver cirrhosis. B. A chronic alcoholic. C. A diabetic. D. A 15kg, 4 year old child. |
D
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Which of the following can be considered to
compensate for the lack of parallelism between abutments when a severely tilted second molar is to be included in a fixed bridge? 1. Orthodontic uprighting of the second molar. 2. Using a coping and telescopic crown as the retainer on the second molar. 3. Including a non-ridge connector in the fixed partial denture design. 4. Hemisecting the second molar. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
A
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which of the following diseases may cause an enlargement of the jaws, development of diastemas and poorly fitting denture??
A. Phantom bone disease B. Rickets C. paget's disease D. Osteoporosis E. Hypophosphatasia |
C
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Multiple osteomas and supernumerary teeth
may be associated with A. Gorlin’s syndrome. B. Rubenstein – Taybi syndrome. C. Gardner’s syndrome. D. Cleidocranial dysplasia. E. Ectodermal dysplasia. |
C
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The direct immunoflourescence pattern seen
in pemphigus vulgaris has been described as A. target-like. B. chicken wire. C. soap-bubble. D. corrugated. E. cotton wool. . |
B
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The preparation of an anterior tooth for a
porcelain fused to metal crown should provide 1. adequate length for retention-resistance. 2. space for a thickness of metal that will resist deformation. 3. space for a thickness of porcelain that will be esthetic. 4. a single path of insertion. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. . |
E
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Which of the following may affect probing
depth measurements of a periodontal pocket? 1. Probing force. 2. Diameter of the probe tip. 3. Angulation of the probe. 4. Subgingival calculus. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
E
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A Class II dental malocclusion in the mixed
dentition will likely A. develop into a Class I malocclusion with normal exfoliation of the primary molars. B. worsen with forward growth of the maxilla. C. develop into a Class I malocclusion with late mandibular growth. D. develop into a skeletal malocclusion with growth of the maxilla and mandible. E. not change as the maxilla and mandible grow. |
A
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The primary purpose(s) of relining a distal
extension base of a removable cast framework partial denture is/are to improve 1. fit of the framework. 2. occlusion. 3. function. 4. tissue adaptation. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. . |
D
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All of the following are well documented
initiating factors of hairy tongue EXCEPT A. candidiasis. B. mouth rinses. C. antibiotics. D. systemic corticosteroids (Prednisone). E. radiotherapy to the head and neck. |
A
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Alteration of the intestinal flora by some
chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid thus preventing the recirculation of the drug through the enterohepatic circulation. Which of the following can interfere with this mechanism? 1. Codeine. 2. Penicillin V. 3. Acetaminophen 4. Tetracycline. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
C
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In an insulin dependent diabetic,
hypoglycemia is characterized by 1. mental confusion. 2. tachycardia. 3. sweating. 4. nausea. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
E
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|
Which of the following clinical conditions is
the most serious? A. Acute periapical abscess of a mandibular central incisor. B. Middle face cellulitis. C. Chronic periapical abscess of a mandibular third molar. D. Infected dentigerous cyst. |
B
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Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with 1. excessive orthodontic forces. 2. periapical granuloma. 3. traumatic injury. 4. cementoma. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
A
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Which of the following are characteristics of
restorative glass ionomer cements? 1. Release of fluoride. 2. Bonding to enamel. 3. Setting is affected by moisture. 4. Irritating to pulpal tissues. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
A
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|
The primary retention of a Class II gold inlay
is achieved by 1. adding an occlusal dovetail. 2. increasing the parallelism of walls. 3. lengthening the axial walls. 4. placing a gingival bevel. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
A
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|
A bitewing radiograph of tooth 1.4 reveals
caries penetrating one third into the mesial enamel. The correct management of tooth 1.4 is to A. place an amalgam restoration. B. place a porcelain inlay. C. place a direct composite restoration. D. apply fluoride and improve oral hygiene. |
D
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|
A patient with Alzheimer’s dementia presents
with his personal care worker. His daughter, who is his legal guardian, is unavailable. What is required to obtain informed consent for an elective invasive procedure? A. The patient’s presence implies consent. B. Obtain written consent from the patient. C. Obtain written consent from the personal care worker. D. Obtain consent from the patient’s daughter |
D
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|
Enamel pearls form when
A. ameloblasts migrate apically down the root. B. cells of the epithelial root sheath do not migrate away from the dentin. C. cells of the dental follicle fail to develop. D. epithelial rests transform into ameloblast vesicles. |
B
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|
Hydrocolloid impressions are removed from
the mouth with a snap because they exhibit A. syneresis. B. imbibition. C. viscoelasticity. D. low elastic recovery. E. low tear strengt |
D
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|
Zinc oxide eugenol cement is a/an
A. phosphate cement. B. phenolic cement. C. resin modified glass ionomer cement. D. polyalkenoic acid cement. E. adhesive resin cement. |
B
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|
In alginate impression materials, sodium
phosphate (Na3PO4) is the A. reactor. B. catalyst. C. retarder. D. disinfectant. E. cross linking agent. |
C
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|
A white, diffuse, wrinkled appearance of the
buccal mucosa which diminishes in prominence or disappears upon stretching is indicative of A. leukoedema. B. lichen planus. C. candidiasis. D. linea alba. E. white sponge nevus. |
A
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|
Which of the following principle fibre groups
of the periodontal ligament is the most numerous and provides the main support for the tooth? A. Horizontal. B. Transseptal. C. Oblique. D. Gingival. |
C
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|
In comparison to visible light, x-rays
A. have a longer wave length. B. have higher energy. C. travel faster. D. can be focused. |
B
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|
An altered cast impression technique for freeend
extension mandibular partial denture cases is done primarily to 1. capture soft tissue in a supporting form. 2. capture the retromylohyoid area. 3. prevent displacement of the retromolar pad. 4. allow jaw relation records to be made simultaneously with impression making. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
B
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|
When compared to dental amalgams made from lathe cut particles, dental amalgams made from spherical particles(/2013/new question)
A. require more mercury. B. set more quickly. C. are more difficult to adapt to the cavity preparation. D. require higher condensation forces |
B
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|
The most likely indication of a poor
periodontal prognosis for a furcation involved tooth is the presence of A. wide root separation. B. narrow root separation. C. a bifurcation ridge. D. a cemento-enamel projection |
B
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|
Which of the following types of bone contain
the insertions of the periodontal ligament fibres? A. Woven. B. Bundle. C. Lamellar. D. Cortical |
B
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The single most important measure to reduce
the risk of transmitting organisms to patients is A. use of personal protective barriers: masks, eyewear, outerwear and gloves. B. sterilization of instruments and disinfection of the operatory. C. handwashing. D. introduction of single use instruments and disposables. |
C
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|
On a semi-adjustable articulator, the incisal
guide table represents A. a reference point for the establishment of occlusal vertical dimension. B. the anterior equivalent of condylar guidance. C. a mechanical equivalent of the horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. D. the mechanical equivalent of the Curve of Wilson. |
C
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|
In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process
will likely A. limit the distal extent of the mandibular denture. B. affect the position and arrangement of posterior teeth. C. aid in determining the location of the posterior palatal seal. D. limit the thickness of the maxillary buccal denture flange. |
D
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|
The characteristics of "group~function"
occlusion are: A. The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion. B. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion. C. Only the canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral mandibular excursion. D. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion |
B
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|
When a simple tipping force is applied to the
crown of a single-rooted tooth, the centre of rotation is located A. at the apex. B. at the cervical line. C. within the apical half of the root. D. within the cervical one third of the root. |
C
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|
When prescribing antibiotics for an orofacial
infection in a healthy elderly patient, the usual adult dose and duration of the prescription should be written using the following guidelines. The dose is A. decreased by one half, duration unchanged. B. decreased by one third, duration unchanged. C. unchanged, duration unchanged. D. increased by one third, duration unchanged. E. unchanged, duration extended by one half |
C
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|
A pontic should
A. exert no pressure on the ridge. B. be contoured by scraping the master cast. C. have a large surface area in contact with the ridge. D. contact nonkeratinized tissue. |
A
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|
A line angle NOT present on a Class I cavity
preparation on tooth 1.6 is A. mesiopulpal. B. buccopulpal. C. linguopulpal. D. axiopulpal. E. None of the above. Major connectors of a cast maxillary partial denture are beaded at the periphery in order to A. improve tissue contact. B. aid in retention of the denture. C. produce a stronger framework. D. form a finish line between metal and acrylic. E. retain the acrylic to the metal of the framework. Which one of the following oral conditions is NOT caused by a virus? A. Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid. B. Herpetic gingivostomatitis. C. Leukoplakia. D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. A patient has a history of shortness of breath and ankle edema. You would suspect A. asthma. B. emphysema. C. rhinophyma. D. cardiac insufficiency. A primary molar, in the absence of its permanent successor, A. should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption. B. may remain for years with no significant resorption. C. will undergo normal root resorption. D. should be extracted. E. is more susceptible to dental caries. 190 |
A
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Voids on a dental cast could be caused by the high
A. surface tension of a silicone impression material. B. surface tension of an irreversible hydrocolloid. C. wettability of the dental stone. D. wettability of the impression material |
A
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|
Wettability is NOT a desirable property for
which of the following? A. Dental impression materials. B. Acrylic resin for denture bases. C. Uncured composite resins. D. Hand instruments for placing resins. E. Trituration of amalgam. |
D
|
|
Which pontic type is best for a knife edge
residual ridge where esthetics is not a major concern? A. Sanitary. B. Conical. C. Ridge lap. D. Modified ridge lap. |
B
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|
A dental radiograph will accurately
indicate A. periodontal pocket depth. B. the height of the bone on the facial surfaces of the teeth. C. the extent of furcation involvements. D. infrabony pocket topography. E. None of the above. |
E
|
|
In a xerostomic patient, which salivary gland(s)
is/are most likely responsible for the lack of saliva production? A. Accessory. B. Labial. C. Parotid. D. Sublingual and submandibular. |
D
|
|
Which of the following would you NOT
prescribe for a patient receiving Warfarin (Coumadin®)? 1. Acetylsalicylic acid. 2. Metronidazole. 3. Erythromycin. 4. Codeine. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
A
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|
Which of the following should NOT be
prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin®)? 1. Acetylsalicylic acid. 2. Oxycodone. 3. Ketorolac. 4. Codeine. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
B
|
|
Which medication is used to control pulpal
hemorrhage when performing an emergency pulpotomy? A. Iodoform. B. Ferric sulfate (15%). C. C.M.C.P. D. Cresatin. E. Epinephrine (1:1000). F. Formocresol. |
B
|
|
All afferent impulses from the pulp result in
the sensation of A. heat. B. pain. C. proprioception. D. cold. |
B
|
|
Which of the following teeth is most likely to
have two roots and two canals? A. Maxillary second premolar. B. Mandibular second premolar. C. Maxillary first premolar. D. Mandibular first premolar |
C
|
|
Which of the following statements is true regarding endodontically treated teeth?
A. These teeth are more brittle than teeth with vital pulps due to desiccation. B. Fracture of these teeth are usually due to loss of coronal tooth structure. C. These teeth require full coverage to prevent fracture. D. A post provides strength for these teeth |
B
|
|
Which permanent maxillary molar root has a
higher incidence of two canals? A. Distobuccal root of the first molar. B. Distobuccal root of the second molar. C. Mesiobuccal root of the first molar. D. Mesiobuccal root of the second molar |
C
|
|
Which of the following agents is most effective
in cold testing? A. Ice water. B. Air jet. C. CO2 (dry ice). D. Ethyl chloride |
C
|
|
The best way to disinfect gutta-percha
cones prior to obturation is to A. immerse in a 5.25% sodium hypochlorite solution. B. immerse in ethyl alcohol. C. autoclave for a full cycle. D. wipe with an alcohol soaked gauze. |
A
|
|
Which statement is FALSE regarding the use of
a barbed broach? A. Removal of vital or non-vital pulp tissue. B. Removal of food debris from the canal. C. Removal of paper points and cotton pellets. D. Removal of gutta-percha during nonsurgical retreatment. |
B
|
|
The occlusal parameter that is most useful
to differentiate between an overbite of dental or skeletal origin is the A. mandibular curve of Spee. B. mandibular curve of Wilson. C. molar sagittal relationship. D. mandibular anterior lack of space. E. maxillary curve of Wilson. |
A
|
|
Which of the following is NOT related to an
interincisal diastema? A. The presence of a mesiodens. B. A tongue thrust when swallowing. C. A hypertrophic labial frenum. D. A thumb sucking habit. E. A Class II canine relationship. |
E
|
|
A patient, when in full intercuspation, shows a
right side posterior crossbite and a lower midline that is deviated to the right. At initial contact there are bilateral posterior crossbites and coincident midlines. The most likely cause of this finding is A. severe temporomandibular dysfunction. B. two ideal occlusions. C. true unilateral crossbite. D. occlusal interference and functional shift. |
D
|
|
Resective osseous surgery is best suited for
periodontal sites with A. severe attachment loss. B. severe intrabony defects. C. teeth with short roots. D. early to moderate bone loss. |
D
|
|
Most bone loss associated with dental implants
occurs at A. 0 – 1 year. B. 2 – 4 years. C. 5 – 7 years. D. 10 – 12 years. |
A
|
|
Spontaneous hemorrhage from the gingiva
may be indicative of A. parotitis. B. Hodgkin’s disease. C. diabetes. D. leukemia. |
D
|
|
The most important factor in determining the
dosage of systemic fluoride supplementation is A. daily water consumption. B. climate. C. water fluoride concentration. D. total daily fluoride intake. E. patient age |
C
|
|
Tooth 1.1 has a small fractured mesioincisal corner into dentin. Which of the following is true with respect to the preparation for the restoration?
A. Pins are usually necessary to achieve adequate retention. B. A lingual dovetail is usually required for retention. C. An enamel bevel of 1mm is placed where enamel thickness allows. D. Dentin coves are the primary form of retention for the restoration |
C
|
|
Pins for cusp replacement should ideally be
placed A. within enamel. B. at the dentino-enamel junction. C. a minimum of 0.5-1.0mm from the dentino-enamel junction. D. a minimum of 1.5-2.0mm from the dentino-enamel junction. |
C
|
|
When light-cured composite resins are
placed A. surface polymerization is inhibited by carbon dioxide (CO2). B. the degree of conversion is 85-95%. C. increments of resin should not exceed 2mm. D. polymerization shrinkage increases with filler content. |
C
|
|
A small hinge articulator was used for the
fabrication of a cast gold onlay for tooth 4.6. Which of the following movements will result in the greatest discrepancy between the articulator and the patient? A. Laterotrusive. B. Mediotrusive. C. Protrusive. |
B
|
|
Abnormal development of the first pharyngeal arch could result in defects in the
A. zygomatic bones and external ears. B. mandible and external nose. C. maxilla and muscles of facial expression. D. palate and hyoid bone. |
A
|
|
The periodontal ligament is constantly remodeled due to the activity of
A. osteoclasts. B. fibroblasts. C. macrophages. D. mesenchymal cells. |
B
|
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One of the mechanisms of bacterial adherence
to the dental pellicle is through A. positively charged bacteria with the pellicle. B. interaction of cations such as calcium. C. hydrophilic interactions. D. interaction of salivary anions |
B
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Post-immunization serological test results
for a health care worker who has completed the series of vaccinations against hepatitis B is informed that their anti-HBsAg is less than the value required for immunity. The health care worker should A. receive one additional vaccination followed by post-immunization testing. B. undergo the full series of hepatitis B vaccinations followed by postimmunization testing. C. refrain from performing any exposure-prone procedures for a period of 3-6 months followed by a full series of hepatitis B vaccinations. D. have liver function tests performed to assess liver damage from a previous hepatitis B infection. |
B
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Oral foci of infection are of greatest
concern in patients with which of the following conditions? A. Type 2 diabetes. B. Iron deficiency anemia. C. Hypertension. D. Rheumatic heart disease. |
D
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The full palatal major connector is indicated
where A. there is a high, narrow palatal vault. B. a well-defined, undercut palatal torus is present. C. very few teeth remain in a flat or Ushaped arch. D. palatal tissue is soft and compressible. |
C
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A patient presents with 5mm of gingival
recession on the labial of tooth 1.3. The most predictable surgical procedure to achieve root coverage on this tooth is a A. free gingival graft. B. subepithelial connective tissue graft. C. lateral sliding pedicle graft. D. double papilla pedicle graft. |
B
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Which of the following is NOT a
component of a dental cartridge containing 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine? A. Methylparaben. B. Water. C. Sodium metabisulphite. D. Sodium chloride. |
A
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warranted for a 10-year old child, the most
effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron. B. apply a radiation protection badge. C. use high speed film. D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. E. take a panoramic film only. |
A (for the kid)
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