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234 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What are the 3 aspects of service delivery in the OT process?

Evaluation, intervention, and outcomes

What is a screening?

Measures broad performance areas, Acquisition of information to determine need for in-depth eval and to obtain basic understanding of individual's needs, limitations, assets, and resources.

What is an evaluation?

Comprehensive process of obtaining and interpreting data to understand individual, system, or situation.

What are the aspects of educational performance for OT?

Academic, mobility, psychosocial, behavioral, and self care

What is a standardized assessment?

One that is uniform and well-established; always the same in content, administration, and scoring; contains description of purpose, administration and scoring protocol, and established norms and validity

What are the types of normative data?

Age, gender, or diagnostic groupings

What are norms?

used for comparative analysis of an individual's score; individual's characteristics must match characteristics of population used to establish norms.

What is validity?

measures the assessment's accuracy to determine if the tool measures what it's supposed to

What is face validity?

how well the assessment appears to meet its intended purpose

What is content validity?

the content included in the eval is representative of what could be measured.

What is criterion validity?

compares assessment of another one with already established validity

What is concurrent validity?

compares results of two assessments given at the same time

What is predictive validity?

compares the degreee to which an instrument can predict performance on future criteria

what is reliability?

the consistency and stability of the eval; if reliable, results are the same from time to time, place to place, and eval to eval

What is inter-rater reliability?

different raters using the same assessment will achieve the same results

What is test-retest reliability?

The same results will be obtained when the eval is administered by the same administrator

What are the different ways to assess an individual?

Observation, interviews, self-report, checklists, rating scales, Goal Attainment Scale, performance tests, norm-referenced assessments, criterion-referenced assessments

What is prevention and what are the three different types?

Prevention: interventions designed to promote wellness, prevent disability/illness, and maintain health


Primary: focuses on general population that is currently well but could potentially be at risk


Secondary: early detection of at-risk population


Tertiary: reduction of impact of dysfunction for those who already have disability/illness

What are some areas to be addressed in intervention planning?

values, interests, and needs, current and expected roles, environmental contexts, treatment setting's characteristics, likelihood of change of problem after intervention

What content should be included in intervention plan?

LTGs, STGs, Intervention methods: occupations and activities to be used, metods of intervention, home programs and family ed, adaptive equipment; evidence to support interventions

What are OT intervention methods?

purposeful activities, meaningful occupations, environmental modifications, promotion of engagement, adaptive equipment, physical agent modalities, ergonomic principles,

What are the reasons for individual vs group intervention

Individual: learning capacity of person, amount of attention and skill required, need for privacy, need for greater control over environment, complexity of occupation/activity, inappropriate or dangerous behaviors of person


Group: develop interpersonal skills, engage in socialization, receiving feedback from others, being motivated by peers, placing condition in perspective, develop norms in group

What are reasons for discharge of a pt?

goals have been met, functional plateau, individual no longer requires skilled services, exacerbation of illness leading to higher level of care needed, length of stay has expired

What are general principles of discharge?

begins at initial evaluation, interventions planned with discharge in mind, collaboration with family and individual, discharge to which setting must be considered, include home programs and community resources if appropriate

What is the definition of occupation?

goal-directed pursuits which extend over time, have purpose, value, and meaning, involve multiple tasks, occur in different contexts

What are purposeful activities?

doing process that are directed to an outcome and require energy and thought to complete, fundamental to developing performance skills, holistic, can be manipulated and adapted,

What is activity analysis?

breaking down and identification of component parts of activity

What is activity synthesis?

process of designing activity for OT evaluation or intervention, often requires grading/adapting, can be used to teach an activity

What are principles of learning?

influenced by individual's interests, age, sex, and SES, source of motivation must be identified, goals made by individual more likely to be met, learning enhanced when individual understands purpose, meet person's functional level, move at a comfortable pace, active participation in learning, reinforcement and feedback, frequent repetition, adjust environment

What are the different types of teaching methods?

demonstration and performance, exploration and discovery, explanation and discussion, role play, simulation, problem solving, audiovisual aids, repetition and practice, behavioral management, consumer/family education

What are the different types of clinical reasoning?

procedural: ID problems, goals, and treatment


Interactive: how the disability/disease affects the person, therapeutic relationship


Narrative: individual's occupational story


Pragmatic: contexts and environments


Conditional: integration of other types of reasoning

What is the purpose of therapeutic use of self?

provide reassurance or information, give advice, alleviate anxiety or fear, obtain needed information, improve/maintain function, promote growth and development, increase coping skills

What are the different phases of group development?

origin: leader composes group protocol


orientation: members learn what group is about


intermediate: develop interpersonal bonds and norms


conflict: members challenge structure, process, or purpose of group


cohesion: regrouping after conflict


Maturation: being productive to accomplish goals


Termination: end of group

What are the three different types of group roles?

instrumental: help group select, plan, and complete tasks


expressive: support and maintain group


individual: dysfunctional and contrary to group goals

What are the three different types of group leadership styles?

directive: therapist responsible for planning and structuring group


facilitative: therapist shares responsibility with group members


Advisory: therapist functions as a resource

What are the different types of activity groups?

evaluation group, thematic group, topical group, task-oriented group, developmental group, and instrumental group

What are the 6 principles in the OT code of ethics?

Beneficence: demonstrate concern for safety and well-being of recipients


Nonmaleficence: refrain from actions that cause harm


Autonomy: right of individual to self-determination, privacy, confidentiality, and consent


Justice: promote fairness and objectivity in provision of services


Veracity: provide comprehensive, accurate, and objective info when representing profession


Fidelity: treat all with respect, fairness, discretion and integrity

What is the difference between ethical distress and an ethical dilemma?

distress: OT knows the correct action but existing barrier prevents taking that course of action


dilemma: two or more potentially correct ways to solve problem but choosing one prohibits acting on other choices

What are the components of ethical decision making?

ID ethical issues and dilemmas, gather relevant info, determine conflicting values and areas of agreement, ID relevant alternative courses of action, determine all possible positive and negative outcomes, weigh consequences of each outcome, seek input from others, apply professional judgment, contact all agencies that need to be involved, determine desired outcome

What is the ethics commission?

component of AOTA that is responsible for code of ethics and standards of practice, responsible for informing and educating about current ethical issues, upholding practice and education standards, monitor behavior of members, and review allegations of unethical conduct

What is the ethical jurisdiction of SRBs?

Provide description of ethical behavior, monitor profession closely, have authority to discipline members, intervene in illegal acts

What are the different levels of disciplinary actions for ethical violations?

reprimand: private communication of disapproval of conduct; censure: public statement of disapproval of conduct; Ineligibility: removal of eligibility for membership etc. for indefinite or specific time period; Probation: requirement to meet certain conditions to maintain membership; suspension: loss of membership etc. for specified time period; revocation: permanent loss of membership etc.

What is negligence?

failure to do what other reasonable practitioners would have done under similar circumstance

What are the primary roles of OTAs?

Implement treatment, cannot independently evaluate or initiate treatment prior to OT eval, can contribute to development and implementation of intervention plan under OT supervision

What are the primary roles of OT aides?

perform specific non-skilled tasks, non-client tasks include routine maintenance and clerical work, client tasks can only be done if anticipated result is known, pt situation is stable, aide has been appropriately trained

What are the different types of supervision?

direct: face-to-face contact, indirect:non face-to-face contact; close: daily, direct contact at the site of work, routine: direct contact at least every two weeks at the site of work, general: at least monthly direct contact with supervisor, minimal: provided only on a as needed basis

What are other OT roles?

educator, fieldwork educator, supervisor, administrator, consultant, academic fieldwork coordinator, faculty, program director, researcher/scholar, entrepreneur,

What are the different types of teams?

intradisciplinary: members work with pt but other other disciplines are not involved and communication is limited.


multidisciplinary: number of professionals from different disciplines work independent of each other


interdisciplinary: all disciplines agree to collaborate for decision making


Transdisciplinary: same as interdisciplinary but with more role blurring

What are other professionals that OTs may collaborate with?

alternative practitioners, athletic trainer, audiologist, biomedical engineer, certified orthotist, certified prosthetist, chiropractor, dietician, expressive therapist, job coach, nurse practitioner, registered nurse, optometrist, pastoral care, physiatrist, PT, PTA, physician's assistant, primary care physician, psychiatrist, psychologist, rec therapist, respiratory therapist, social worker, special ed teacher, SLP, substance abuse counselor, voc rehab counselor

What is the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services?

Federal agency that develops rules and regulations pertaining to medicare and medicaid programs, monitors compliance with regulations

What is the occupational safety and health administration?

creates standards related to safety and enforces these standards, includes structural standards and building codes and the safety of employees and consumers when handling infectious materials, blood products, operating machinery, and handling hazardous substances

What is accreditation?

status awarded for compliance with established standards, ensures the public that a facility is adequately equipped and meets high standards, affirms competence of practitioners, voluntary; includes Joint Commission, Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program, Commission on Accreditation of Rehab Facilities

What are the steps to the accreditation process?

initiated by organization by submitting application for review, self study conducted, on-site review is conducted, accreditation process involves all staff to prepare documents, host site visit team, and participate in interviews with accreditors, undergoes review every 3 years

Diagnostic Related Groups

the descriptive categories established by CMS that determines the level of payment at a per case rate

Fee for Service

the payment system under which the provider is paid the same type of rate per unit of service

Prospective payment system

the nationwide payment schedule that determines the medicare payment for each inpatient stay of a medicare beneficiary based on DRGs

Treatment Authorization Request

the medicaid form a primary care provider must complete to document the need for requested medically necessary covered services with a supporting rationale

What are federal regulations for private insurance coverage?

insurers must provide benefits including: mental health, substance abuse, and behavioral health, disease management, and preventative and wellness services, cannot refuse coverage for people with pre-existing conditions, cannot raise premiums based on different characteristics

What does medicare part A and medicare part B cover?

Part A: inpatient hospital, SNF, home health, rehab facilities, and hospice; automatically provided; based on DRG


Part B: outpatient services; must be purchased by beneficiary;

What is reimbursement for medicare in SNFs based on?

Resource utilization groups

Describe home health reimbursement for medicare?

reimbursed under prospective payment system; Home Health Resource Groups used to determine episode payment rate; initial assessment is Outcome and Assessment Information Set

What are mandated medicaid services?

inpatient and hospital services, outpatient and physician services, home health, screening diagnosis for under 21, services identified to treat a condition, SNFs providing skilled rehab,

What is the purpose for documentation?

provides legal, serial record of client condition, eval and re-eval results, course of therapeutic intervention, and response to intervention, justifies necessity of skilled services, serves as information resource for client care, enhances communication among health care team members

What is in the content of documentation?

Identification and background info: name, age, gender, date of admission, diagnosis; eval and re-eval info: assessments, summary and analysis, problem list, client understanding; intervention plan: goal statements related to problem list; short and long term goals: specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, time limited; intervention implementation: activities used, client response, goal modification, participation; discharge plan: summary of eval and intervention, number of sessions, reason for discharge

What does intervention documentation for medicare reimbursement need to include?

content must show that treatment shows level of complexity that needs skilled services, care must match diagnosis and physician's order, services must be unique to OT, in home health homebound status must be clearly delineated, document honestly, document functional change

What does HIPAA cover?

ensures privacy and security of health records, all persons must be notified of privacy policies, prior to discussing health info with family etc. permission must be obtained, protect confidentiality in all forms, individual has right to see records

What are some key legislation related to disability rights?

medicare: established medicare and SSI; Rehab act of 1973: prohibits discrimination of disability in anything that receives fed funding; fair housing act: prohibits discrimination for housing and allows people to make reasonable accommodations; omnibus budget reconciliation act of 1981: provided medicaid financing for community services for those with DD; Ticket to work and work incentives improvement act: make it easier for those with disabilities to work by allowing them to keep their benefits; work investment act: established one stop delivery system for employment services

What is the Americans with Disabilities Act?

Employment: prohibits employers from discriminating against those with disabilities, reasonable accommodations must be made; public services: no discrimination in public services, programs, and activities including transportation; Public Accommodations: public places must comply with accessibility standards

What is some legislation specific to pediatric practice?

Child abuse prevention and treatment act; early intervention and education acts; IDEA; No child left behind act

What is some legislation specific to geriatric practice?

Age discrimination in employment act; freedom to work act: retired people with SS benefits can still work and continue to receive SS; Omnibus budget reconciliation act of 1990: resident rights, autonomy, self-determination, quality of care, and quality of life in nursing homes;

What is the major difference between the medical model, the educational model, and the community model?

Medical: focus on identifying and improving dysfunction; education: individual with disability is lacking knowledge or skills that can be taught; community: individual with disability lacking skills, resources, and supports in the community

Describe OT in acute care hospitals?

admission based on illness that cannot be treated in outpatient; LOS 1 to 7 days; eval: quick screening of major difficulties; intervention: stabilization, engagement, discharge planning, education

Describe OT in sub-acute care?

admission for diagnosis that has progressed from acute but not stabilized enough for outpatient; LOS 5 to 30 days; eval: more in-depth assessment; intervention: functional improvements, active engagement, discharge planning

Describe OT in long-term acute care hospitals

admission for catastrophic illness that require extensive medical care; LOS greater than 25 days; eval and intervention limited by complex medical needs, focus on palliative care and prevention of complications, mastery of environment and establish client centered goals

Describe OT in rehab hospitals

admission for disability that is stable but still requires skilled services; LOS 1 week to months; eval can be extensive to focus on all performance skills and patterns and occupations; intervention: functional improvement, compensatory strategies, adaptive equipment, modification of environment, education

Describe OT in long-term hospitals?

admission for chronic conditions that cannot be treated in outpatient, LOS range from months to years; eval: extensive; intervention: functional improvement, compensatory strategies, maintain QOL, development of discharge skills

Describe OT in SNFs

admission for chronic condition that requires skilled care but no acute symptoms; LOS range 1 month to lifetime; eval and intervention based on medicare standards

Describe OT in forensic settings?

those engaged in criminal activity; LOS varies depending on court ordered directives; OT eval and intervention: competency to stand trial, develop community living skills, structured programs

Describe OT in early intervention settings?

at risk infants/toddlers under age of 3; eval based on cognitive, physical, communication, social-emotional, and adaptive skills, consider current development of play and ADLs; intervention: development of above skills, development of play and ADLs, family education, advocacy, transition planning

Describe OT in schools?

for students that require special ed services and ot will facilitate child participation; eval: client factors, performance skills and patterns, and occupations, developmental level; intervention: based on educational model, student functional performance with academic performance, address goals in IEP, assistive technology, transition services, performance skill deficits

Describe OT in supported education programs?

adults who need to develop skills to succeed in post secondary education; d/c based on entry into or completion of educational program; eval based on occupational role of student; intervention: performance skills and patterns needed to fulfill role of student, compensatory strategies, educational interests

Describe OT in prevocational programs?

adults who require intervention to develop prerequisite skills for work; d/c to vocational program; eval based on task skills, social skills, work habits, interests, and abilities; intervention: improvement in task and social skills, development of work habits and abilities, exploration of interests

Describe OT in vocational programs?

develop specific vocational skills; d/c to workshops or employment programs; eval: functional skills and deficits related to work in vocational environment; intervention: remediation of deficits, compensation, development of work abilities and job skills, supervision of vocational staff, referral to state offices

Describe OT in residential programs?

functional deficits impede independent living but don't need hospitalization; continuum of support; eval: assessment of living skills; intervention: consultation, remediation of deficits, compensation, ADL training, activity adaptation, environmental modification, referral to appropriate residential services, education

Describe OT in partial hospitalization programs?

person sufficiently stabilized to enable discharge home but skill needs active treatment; treatment usually 5 days per week with multiple interventions per day; LOS 1 week to 6 months; eval based on functional skills and deficits and occupational roles; intervention: functional improvements, remediation and compensation, development of skills for community living

Describe OT in clubhouse programs?

adults with current mental illness, all members have access to all clubhouse functions, responsibilities shared between members and staff; LOS indefinite; OT not provided in formalized manner and functions more to support members' recovery

Describe OT in adult day care?

adults/edlers with impairments but semi-independent, provided in group setting; LOS is indefinite; eval: functional skills and deficits, occupations, home environment; intervention: maintenance of healthy aspects, engagement, education, consultation, modification of environment

describe OT in outpatient care?

illness not serious enough for hospitalization and condition stabilized but sill requires active treatment; eval: functional assets and deficits in performance skills and patterns, occupations, and environments; intervention: active engagement, remediation, functional improvements, compensatory strategies, education

Describe OT in home health care?

condition not serious enough for hospitalization but requires active treatment and pt is homebound; treatments usually 60 minutes for 5 days a week; eval: client factors and functional skills/deficits in performance skills and patterns, occuapations, and environment; intervention: active engagement, functional improvement, remediation, compensation, education, environmental modifications, activity adaptations, resume roles, prevent hospitalization

Describe OT in hospice care?

those with terminal illness with life expectancy 6 months or less; eval: occupational functioning and contextual needs most important to them; intervention: maintenance of individual's control of life, facilitate engagement in meaningful occupations and activities, reduction of distressing symptoms, environmental adaptations and activity adaptations, education

Describe OT role in Wellness and Prevention programs?

self-referral, serve populations determined at-risk; LOS determined by individual; eval focuses on risk factors, functional skills/deficits, occupations, and environments; intervention: disease prevention and health promotion

What are the different steps to program development?

Needs assessment: describe community/ target population, establish needs of population, identify resources; program planning: define focus based on needs assessment, adopt FOR, establish objectives and goals, integrate into existing system; Implement program: initiate program according to timetable, document activities, communicate with other programs; evaluate program

What are the major personnel management tasks?

design work roles and write job descriptions, recruit, select, and orient personnel to perform roles, supervise and evaluate personnel, support ongoing professional development, deal with difficult personnel issues

What are major marketing tasks?

analyze market activities, develop marketing strategies to address 5 Ps (product: thing/service, price: costs, place:distribution method, promotion: communicating info, position: relationship to similar products/services), implement and evaluate marketing plan

What is the purpose of research?

enhance theoretical and philosophical foundations, improve clinical reasoning and critical thinking, increase professional knowledge and skills, facilitate evidence based practice

What are the different types of quantitative design types?

true experimental: 2 group design with random selection and assignment to control and experimental group, explores cause and effect of ind and dep variables; quasi experimental: ind variable manipulated to determine effect on dep variable but no randomization; correlational: no manipulation or randomization, explores potential relationships between variables

What are the different types of qualitative designs?

phenomenological: study of persons and how they make sense of their experiences; ethnographic: patterns and characteristics of cultural groups; heuristic: complete involvement of researcher in experience of subject; case study: subject or small group intensely studied

What does trustworthiness criteria include?

credibility: level of confidence that findings truthfully reflect reality of participants and context; transferability: how well other studies fit with findings; dependability: inclusion of full range of data; confirmability: how much conclusions are based on data

What are the essential steps of the research process?

formulate philosophical foundation, ID broad topic, review literature, utilize FOR, develop specific question, select research design, formulate methodology, determine study length, ID sample (random, systematic, stratified, purposive, convenience, snowball), collect data (observation, interview, questionnaires, surveys, record review, tests/assessments), analyze data using inferential and descriptive statistics, report findings (results, conclusion, summary), disseminate research

Describe the development of sensorimotor integration from prenatal to 7 years?

neonatal: responds first to tactile stimuli, develops reflexes; neonatal: visual and auditory continuing to develop; first 6 months: visual and tactile more integrated as infant reaches for objects, reflexive to voluntary movements; 6-12 months: development of FM and motor planning, midline skills, primitive self feeding; 13-24 months: increased complexity of motor planning, ideation; 2-3 years: improved balance and posture control, tactile discrimination and localization, praxis ideation; 3-7 years: play, games, activities, school, chores

When does crossing midline and bilateral integration occur?

9-12 months

What are the lower skills of visual-motor integration?

visual attention, visual memory, visual discrimination, kinesthesia, position in space, figure ground, form constancy, and spacial relations

What are general principles of motor development?

occurs cephalocaudal/proximal to distal, gross to fine motor, stability to controlled mobility, occurs with periods of equilibrium and disequilibrium

What are important aspects in the development of UE function?

head and trunk control, eye/hand interaction, shoulder stability/mobility, humeral control, elbow control, forearm control, wrist control, thumb opposition and stability, palmar arches of hands, isolated finger control

Describe development in prone position for infants to 9 months?

0-2 months: turns head side to side, lifts head momentarily, bends hips with bottom in air, lifts and maintains head up , bear weight on forearms; 5-6 months: shifts weight on forearms and reaches forward, legs closer together, hips flat, equilibrium reactions present; 5-8 months: chest and thighs lift off surface; 7-8 months: pivots in prone and moves to prone to sit; 9 months: dislikes prone

Describe development in supine position for infants to 8 months?

0-3 months: head held to 1 side, able to turn head side to side; 3-4 months: holds head in midline, chin tucked, legs come together, lower back flattens; 4-5 months: head lag gone, hands together in space; 5-6 months: lifts head independently, brings hands and feet to mouth, reach for toys; 7-8 months: equilibrium reactions present

Describe development of sitting in infants to 24 months?

0-3 months: held in sitting, head bobs, back rounded, hips apart; 5-6 months: supports self in sitting, increased back extension, props forward on arms, wide base with legs bent; 5-10 months: sits alone steadily, plays with toys in sitting; 6-11 months: gets to sitting from prone; 7-8 months: equilibrium reactions present, rotates upper body; 8-10 months: sits well without support, legs closer with knees straight, 9-18 months: rise from supine; 10-12 months: protective extension backwards, moves into other sitting positions; 11-12 months: trunk control and equilibrium fully developed; 11-24 months: rises from supine by rolling and pushing up.

Describe development of standing in infants to 12 months?

0-3 months: takes some weight on legs when held in standing; 2-3 months: legs may give way when held in standing; 3-4 months: bears more weight on legs, head in midline; 5-6 months: bounces in standing; 5-10 months: stands while holding to furniture; 6-12 months: pulls to standing on furniture; 8-9 months: pulls to standing by kneeling; 12 months: equilibrium reactions present; 9-13 months: pulls to standing with legs only

Describe the development of walking in infants from 8 months to 18 months?

8 months: cruises sideways; 8-18 months: walks with 2 hands held; 9-10 months: cruises around furniture; 9-17 months: takes independent steps; 10-14 months: walking; 11 months: walks with 1 hand held, reaches for furniture; 15 months: starts and stops in walking; 18 months: seldom falls, runs stiffly

Describe development of release in infants to 15 months?

0-1 month: no release, grasp reflex strong; 1-4 months: involuntary release, 4 months: mutual fingering in midline; 4-8 months: transfer object from hand to hand; 5-6 months: two stage transfer (taking hand grasps before releasing hand lets go); 6-7 months: 1 stage transfer; 7-9 months: volitional release, 7-10 months: presses down on surface to release, 8 months: releases above surface with wrist flexion; 9-10 months: releases into container with wrist straight; 10-14 months: clumsy release into small container; 12-15 months: precise controlled release into small container

Describe development of fine motor grasp?

natal: no grasp or visual attention; 3 months: visually attends to object but no attempt to grasp; 6 months: raking and contacting object; 7 months: inferior scissors grasp, rakes object into palm, 8 months: scissors grasp, between thumb and side of curled index finger; 9 months: inferior pincer grasp; 10 months: pincer grasp, 12 months: fine pincer grasp

Describe development of grasp of larger objects?

neonate: visually attends to object, grasp reflexive; 3 months: visually attends and swipes; 4 months: primitive squeeze grasp against body; 5 months: palmar grasp, press cube into center of palm; 6 months: radial-palmar grasp, press against opposed thumb; 8-9 months: radial-digital grasp, object held with opposed thumb and fingertips

What is quality improvement?

System oriented approach that views limitations and problems pro-actively as opportunities to increase quality; prevention emphasized

What is total quality management?

creation of organizational culture that enables all employees to contribute to an environment of continuous improvement to meet consumer needs

What is performance assessment and improvement?

systematic method to evaluate the appropriateness and quality of services

What is statistical utilization review?

reimbursement claims data are analyzed to determine the most efficient and cost-effective care

What is a professional review organization?

groups of peers who evaluate the appropriateness of services and quality of care under reimbursement and state licensure requirements

Describe the Moro reflex?

when infant's head is rapidly dropped backwards first phase: arms extend and abduct; second phase: arm flexion and adduction

Describe the galant reflex

when infant is in prone suspension and spine is gently scratched, the trunk laterally flexes on stimulated side

What is the symmetrical tonic neck reflex?

when infant is in crawling position and head extended, hips and knees flex

Describe neck righting reflex?

When infant is in supine and head turned to one side, the entire body will log roll to maintain alignment with head

Describe body righting reflex?

when infant is in supine and one hip and knee is flexed, the infant will segmentally roll upper trunk to maintain alignment

describe the supine tilting and sitting tilting reflex?

when infant is in supine or sitting and one side of table is lifted, the spine curves toward the raised side to maintain equilibrium without arm support

Describe the progression of manipulating skills in development

finger to palm translation: (12-15 months) move objects from fingers to palm; palm to finger translation (2-2 1/2 years) move objects from palm to fingers; shift: (3-5 years) separate 2 pieces of paper, shifting on marker or pen (5-6 years); simple rotation: (2- 2 1/2 years) rolling object held in fingers 90 degrees; complex rotation: (6-7 years) rotate object 360 degrees; in hand manipulation with stabilization: (6-7 years) several objects held in hand and manipulation of 1 object occurs

Describe the progression of pre-writing skills in development?

palmar supinate grasp: (1-1 1/2 years) fisted hand and arm moves as unit; digital pronate grasp: (2-3 years): forearm pronated and writing utensil held in fingers; static tripod posture: (3 1/2-4 years) crude approximation of finger position but no fine localized movements; dynamic tripod posture: (4 1/2-6 years) precise opposition to form stable arch with fine and localized movements

Describe the development of scissor skills

2-3 years: interest in scissors, holds and snips with scissors, opens and closes in controlled fashion, 3-4 years: manipulates scissors in forward motion, coordinates lateral direction of scissors, cut in a straight line, cut simple geometric shapes; 3 1/2-4 1/2 years: cut circles; 4-6 years: cut simple figure shapes; 6-7 years: cut complex figure shapes

What are Erik Erikson's 8 stages of development?

1: basic trust vs mistrust, birth-18 months; 2: autonomy vs doubt and shame, 2-4 years; 3: initiative vs guilt, preschool age; 4: industry vs inferiority, elementary school age; 5: self-identity vs role diffusion, teenage years; 6: intimacy and solidarity vs isolation, young adulthood; 7: generativity vs self absorption, middle adulthood; 8: integrity vs despair, older adulthood

What is Lawrence Kohlberg's 3 stages of moral development?

1: preconventional morality, 0-8 years, punishment and obedience, make basic moral decisions; 2: conventional morality, 9-10 years, social conformity, law and order; 3: postconventional morality, age varies, following social contracts

What are abraham Maslow's hierarchy of human needs?

physiological, safety, love and belonging, self-esteem self-actualization

Describe Piaget's stages of cognitive development?

Sensorimotor: (0-2 years) reflexes, cause and effect, voluntary movements, seeks new schemes and begins to problem solve; Preoperational (2-7 years) classification, seriation, conservation, symbolic representations, imitates what is seen; Concrete operations (7-11 years): reversibility, rules, empirical-inductive thinking; formal operations (11-teen years): hypothetical thinking, logic and hypotheses

Describe the development of problem solving skills from 6 months to 60 months

6-9 months: finds objects, movement as means to end, anticipates movement, attends to consequences; 9-12 months: use tools after demo, more goal directed behavior; 12-15 months: asks adult for help, turns and inspects objects, trial and error; 18-21 months: think before actingto achieve goal; 21-24 months: matches shapes in small openings; 24-27 months: discriminates size; 24-30 months: relates multiple experiences; 36-48 months: organize by size and build from mental image; 48-60 months: spatial awareness, cause and effect and mental images

Describe the developmental categories of play

exploratory play: (0-2 years) child explores properties and effects of objects and people; symbolic play: (2-4 years) formulates, tests, classifies, and refines actions, associated with language development, parallel play; creative play (4-7 years): cooperative peer groups; games (7-11 years) play with rules, competition, social interaction, and development of skills

Describe the stages of oral motor development

35 weeks gestation: jaw and tongue movements strong enough for feeding; 40 weeks gestation: rooting, cough, and gag reflexes; 4-5 months: munching on soft cookie, 6 months: up and down movements of tongue; 7-8 months: mastication of soft foods with diagonal movements; 9 months: lateral tongue movements, drinks from cup; 12 months: rotary chewing, good bite on hard cookie; 24 months: can chew most meats and veggies

Describe OT eval for feeding

parent interview, medical and developmental history, observation of feeding (postural control, oral sensitivity, motor control, coordination, and endurance), recommendation for swallow study

Describe intervention for oral motor control

appropriate positioning, hand positioning of caregiver, facilitate lip and jaw closure, inhibit tongue thrust, facilitate chewing, integrate preventative measures (downward pressure, prevent tongue retratction, lip closure, tactile sensitivity), texture of foods, create pleasant atmosphere during feedings

Describe development of self-dressing skills

1 year: cooperates with dressing, pulls off shoes and socks, pushes arms through sleeves; 2 years: removes coat, helps down pants, finds armholes in shirt; 2 1/2 years: assists pulling on socks, puts on coat, unbuttons large buttons; 3 years: puts on pullover shirt with minA, puts on shoes w/o fasteners, puts on socks, zips jacket; 3 1/2 years: finds front of clothes, snaps fasteners, puts on mittens, unbuckles belt; 4 years: removes shirt ind., buckles belt, laces shoes; 4 1/2: puts belt in loops, 5 years: ties and unties knots, dresses unsupervised; 6 years: snaps, buttons, etc. back garments

Describe development of toileting skills

1 year: indicates discomfort when wet/soiled; 1 1/2 years: sits on toilet when placed there; 2 years: urinates regularly; 2 1/2 years: regulated toileting with occasionally accidents, may need assistance; 3 years: goes to bathroom ind., may need help with wiping; 4-5 years: ind. in toileting

What are some developmental assessments of neonates?

Assessment of Preterm Infants' Behavior (APIB): assesses infant's pattern of developing behavior organization in response to increasing sensory and environmental stimuli; Neurological Assessment of Pre-term and Full-Term New-born Infant (NAPFI): rating scale consisting of brief neuro exam incorporated into routine assessment

What are some overall developmental assessments?

Denver Developmental Screening Test II, Bayley Scales of Infant Development 3rd ed, First STEP Screening Test for Evaluating Preschoolers, Hawaii Early Learning Profile Revised (HELP), Miller Assessment for Preschoolers (MAP), Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Inventory (PEDI)

What are some motor developmental assessments?

Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2), Erhardt Developmental Prehension Assessment, Peabody Developmental Motor Scales (PDMS-2), Toddler and Infant Motor Evaluation (TIME)

What are some visual motor and visual perception assessments?

Beery-Buktenica Developmental Test of Visual Motor Integration (VMI), Developmental Test of Visual Perception, Erhardt Developmental Vision Assessment (EDVA), Preschool Visual Motor Integration Assessment (PVMIA), Motor-Free Visual Perception Test (MVPT-3), MVPT-Vertical, Test of Visual Motor Skills (TVMS), Test of Visual-Perceptual Skills (TVPS3)

What are some sensory processing assessments/

Sensory Profile (Infant/Toddler) (Adolescent/Adult)

What are some psychological and cognitive assessments?

childhood Autism Rating Scale (CARS), Coping Inventory and Early Coping Inventory,

What are some play assessments?

Play History, Revised Knox Preschool Play Scale (RKPPS), Test of Playfulness (ToP) Revised, Transdisciplinary Play-Based Assessment (TPBA)

What are some social participation assessments?

Participation Scale (P scale), School Function Assessment (SFA)

What are Havighurst's 6 stages of development and tasks?

Infancy and childhood: walk, take solid food, talk, control body wastes, understand right from wrong; middle childhood: develop skills for games, healthy self-concept, make friends, read, write, and calculate; adolescence: establish relationships, develop gender social role, prepare for marriage and career; early adulthood: choose partner, start family, raise kids, manage home, occupation; middle adulthood: progress in career, guide teens, relate to partner, accept aging parents; later adulthood: cope with decreased health, adjust to retirement, adjust to death, change social roles

What are Anne Mosey's 6 Adaptive Skills?

sensory integration, cognitive skills, dyadic interaction skills, group interaction skills, self identity skills, sexual identity skills

What are muscular changes, implications, and strategies for older adults?

changes: loss of strength, power, muscle mass, and endurance (mostly due to decreased activity levels); implications: slower movements, increased fatigue, increased injuries, loss of ROM, decreased functional mobility, gait changes, increased fall risk; strategies: improve health, increase physical activity levels, provide strength training, provide flexibility for ROM

What are skeletal system changes, implications, and strategies for older adults

changes: cartilage stiffens, fragments, and erodes, loss of bone mass and density, intervertebral discs flatten, posture changes (forward head, kyphosis, flattening of lumbar spine); implications: maintain weight bearing, increased fall risk; strategies: posture exercises, weight bearing, nutrition, hormone and medical therapies

What are neurological system changes, implications, and strategies for older adults?

changes: atrophy of nerve cells, changes in brain, decreased cerebral blood flow, synaptic transmission, peripheral nerves, tremors; implications: decreased speed and coordination, decreased processing speed, problems in homeostatic regulation; strategies: correct med problems, improve health, increase activity, provide effective strategies for learning

What are sensory system changes, implications, and strategies for older adults?

Vision changes: visual acuity, adapting to light and dark, sensitivity to glare, color discrimination, implications/strategies: max function, allow extra time for visual discrimination, work in adequate light, high contrast, magnify; Hearing changes: buildup of ear wax, changes in bony joints, sound sensitivity, implications/strategies: minimize auditory distractions, speak slowly and clearly, nonverbal communication, written instructions, assistive devices; Balance changes: delayed reaction time, more reliance on vision, disorganized postural responses; implications: increased fall risk; Somatosensory changes: decreased touch sensitivity, proprioception, pain threshold increased, implications/strategies: use touch to communicate, teach compensatory strategies; taste and smell changes: overall decrease, implications/ strategies: poor diet, decreased home safety

What are cognitive changes, implications, and strategies for older adults?

changes: no uniform decline, longer time to complete tasks, short term memory impaired, difficulties with new learning; implications: use different strategies for memory; strategies: improve health, increase physical activity, increase mental activity, provide enriching environment, reduce stress

What are cardiopulmonary system changes, implications, and strategies for older adults?

changes: due more to inactivity, decreased blood flow, change in blood vessels, resting blood pressure rises, decline in lung capacity; implications: decreased stroke volume, reduced exercise capacity, increased recover time, orthostatic hypotension, increased fatigue, cough and gag impaired, prolonged recovery from illness; strategies: individualized exercise program, aerobic training, increase daily activity levels

What is the OT assessment, goals, and interventions for nutrition?

assessment: dietary history, psychosocial, body composition, olfactory and gustatory function, dental status, ability to feed self, integumentary status, compliance with special diets; goals and interventions: monitor adequate nutritional intake, maintain nutritional support through recommendations, promote adequate activity levels, maintain independence in food prep and feeding

What are the leading causes of death in people over 65?


Leading causes of disability over 65?

death: coronary heart disease, cancer, stroke, COPD, pneumonia/flu


disability: arthritis, hypertension, hearing impairments, heart impairments, cataracts, orthopedic impairments, diabetes

What is dupuytren's disease and what is the OT intervention?

disease of fascia of palm and digits leading in flexion deformities; OTI: wound care, edema control, extension spling, A/PROM, progress to strengthening, scar management, O based tasks that emphasize flexion and extension

What is skier's thumb and what is the OT intervention?

rupture of ulnar collateral ligament of MCP joint of thumb, OTI: thumb splint for 4-6 weeks, AROM and pinch strengthening, ADLs that require opposition and pinch strength

What is complex regional pain syndrome and what is OT intervention?

may follow trauma, severe pain, edema, discoloration, osteoporosis, sudomotor changes, temp changes, trophic changes, and vasomotor instability; OTI: modalities to decrease pain, edema management, AROM, pain-free ADLs, stress loading, splinting, encourage self-management

What is the OT eval and intervention for fractures?

eval: mechanism of injury and fracture management, results of special tests, edema, pain, AROM, sensation, occupational profile; OTI: immobilization phase->AROM of other joints, edema control, light ADLs, mobilization phase-> edema control, AROM, light ADLs, pain management, and strengthening

What is the treatment for de Quervain's?

pain and swelling over radial styloid; treatment: thumb spica splint, activity modification, ice massage over wrist, gentle AROM of wrist

What is the treatment for lateral and medial epicondylitis?

lateral: extensors, medial: flexors; treatment: elbow strap, wrist splint, ice massage, stretching, activity modification, strengthening

What is the treatment for trigger finger?

tenosynovitis of finger flexors; treatment: finger trigger splint, scar massage, edema control, tendon gliding, activity modification

What are the two early mobilization programs for flexor tendon repairs? What are the three programs for extensor tendon repairs?

Kleinart: passive flexion using rubber band traction and active extension to hood of splint; Duran: passive flexion and extension of digit. EXTENSION: mallet finger: DIP extension splint, Boutonnier deformity: PIP extension splint, wrist: volar splint

What is the OT intervention for rotator cuff tendonitis?

activity modification, educate sleeping posture, decrease pain, ROM, strengthening below shoulder, occupation and role training; post op: PROM to AAROM to AROM, decrease pain, strengthening, activity modification, leisure and work activities

What is the OT intervention for adhesive capsulitis/frozen shoulder?

encourage active use, PROM, modalities; Post op: PROM, pain relief, encourage active use

What are the two different types of arthritis, OT eval, and intervention for arthritis?

rhematoid: systemic, symmetrical, affects hands, osteoarthritis: degenerative, large joints; eval: occupational profile, AROM, muscle strength, grip strength, ADL and roles, pain, edema; Intervention: splinting, joint protection, energy conservation, AROM, heat, strengthening, occupation based activities, education

What is osteogenesis imperfecta, OT eval, and intervention?

genes responsible for producing bone collagen are dysfunctional; eval: activity interests, environmental risk factors; intervention: activity adaptation, assistive devices, environmental modification, preventative positioning, activities to increase strength, weight bearing, health education, family education

What is ot eval and intervention for hip fractures?

eval: review precautions and weight bearing status, occupational role expectations, ADLs, ROM and strength; intervention: bed mobility, UE strengthening, functional ambulation and transfers, instruct assistive device use, occupation based activities

What is eval and intervention for total hip replacement?

eval: review precautions and weight bearing, complete occupational profile, assess ADLs, assess ROM and strength; intervention: posterolateral precautions (no flexing or adducting, no pivoting), antereolateral precautions (no ext rotation, no hip extension), practice use of long-handled equipment, transfer training, occupation based activities

Describe preprosthetic treatment, prosthetic treatment, and LE amputation treatment for OT

pre: change dominance of activities if needed, ROM, prepare limb for prosthesis, desnsitization, wrapping, ADL training, education in skin care, supportive counseling; prosthetic: functional training with prosthesis, donning/doffing prosthesis, increase wearing tolerance; LE: wrapping, desensitization, strengthening, transfer training, ADL training, standing tolerance, wheelchair mobility

What is OT eval and intervention for burns?

eval: occupational profile, ROM, sensation, strength, ADLs and meaningful activities; OTI 2nd degree: wound care, gentle A/PROM, splinting, ADLs and roles, 3rd degree: wound care, AROM, edema control, splinting, occupational roles, strengthening; 4th degree: splinting, dressing wounds, AROM, light ADLs, PROM, massage, compression garments, strengthening

Describe the types of pain, ot eval, and ot intervention?

types: acute, chronic, myofascial, fibromyalgia, lower back pain; eval: location, intensity, onset and duration of pain, functional assessment (McGill Pain Questionnaire, Pain Disability Index, functional Interference Estimate); Intervention: modalities, proper positioning, splint, ROM, relaxation, proper body mechanics, correct environmental factors, correct standing/seated posture, modify activities, provide alternative exercise

What are the intrinsic muscles of the hand innervated by the median nerve and what are their functions?

abductor pollicis brevis: palmar abduction, opponens pollicis: opposition, flexor pollicis brevis: thumb mcp flexion, radial lumbricals: MCP flexion and extension of IP joints

What are the intrinsic muscles innervated by the ulnar nerve and what are their functions?

abductor digiti minimi: abduction of 5th digit, opponens digiti minimi: opposition of 5th digit, flexor digiti minimi: flexion of MCP joint and opposition of 5th digit, adductor: adducts CMC joint of thumb, ulnar lumbricals: MCP flexion and extension of IP joints of IV and V, palmar interossei: adduction and MCP flexion and extension, dorsal interossei: abduction and MCP flexion and extension of IPs,

What are the extrinsic flexor muscles of the hand innervated by the median nerve?

flexor digitorum superficialis: flexion of PIPs, flexor digitorum profundus: flexion of DIPs, flexor pollicis longus: flexion of thumb IP,

What are the extrinsic extensor muscles of the hand innervated by the radial nerve?

extensor digitorum communis: extension of MCPs, extensor digiti minimi: extension of MCP of 5th digit, extensor indicis proprius: extension of MCP of 2nd digit, extensor pollicis longus: extension of IP joint of thumb, extensor pollicis brevis: extension of MCP and CMC joint of thumb, abductor pollicis longus: abduction and extension of CMC joint

What are the wrist flexors innervated by the median nerve?

flexor carpi radialis: flexion of wrist and radial deviation, palmaris longus: flexion of wrist

What are the rotator cuff muscles and what are their function?

subscapularis: subscapular nerve, internal rotation; supraspinatus: suprascapular nerve, abducation and flexion; infraspinatus: suprascapular nerve, external rotation, teres minor: axillary nerve, external rotation

What are the upward and downward rotation muscles of the scapula?

upward rotation: trapezius and serratus anterior; downward rotation: levator scapulae, rhomboids, serratus anterior, latissimus dorsi

What are the different types of fractures and medical treatment?

intraarticular vs extraarticular, closed vs open, dorsal vs volar displacement, mdishaft vs neck vs base, complete vs incomplete, transverse vs spiral vs oblique, cominuted; med treatment: closed reduction, open reduction internal fixation, external fixation, fusion, joint replacemetn

Describe Carpal tunnel syndrome, treatment, and post op treatment?

median nerve compression causing numbness and tingling of thumb, index, middle, and ring finger; treatment: wrist splint, nerve gliding, activity modification, ergonomics; post op: edema control, AROM, nerve and tendon gliding, sensory re-education, strengthening thenar muscles, work/activity modification

Describe pronator teres syndrome, treatment, and post op treatment?

median nerve compression between 2 heads of pronator teres caused by repetitive pronation and supination; treatment: elbow splint with forearm in neutral, avoid supination and pronation; post op: AROM, nerve gliding, strengthening, sensory re-education, work/activity modification

Describe Guyon's canal, treatment, and post op treatment?

ulnar nerve compression at wrist causing numbness in ulnar distribution of hand; treatment: wrist splint, work/activity modification; post-op: edema control, AROM, nerve gliding, strengthening, sensory re-education

Describe cubital tunnel syndrome, treatment, and post-op treatment?

ulnar nerve compression at elbow caused by leaning on elbow, causes numbness and tingling along ulnar distribution of forearm and hand; treatment: elbow splint, elbow pads, activity/work modification; post-op treatment: edema control, scar management, AROM, nerve gliding, strengthening

Describe radial nerve palsy, treatment, and post op treatment?

radial nerve compression causing weakness of extensors; treatment: dynamic extension splint, work/activity modification, strengthening extensors; post op: ROM, nerve gliding, strengthening, ADLs

Describe a median nerve laceration?

sensory loss to palm, thumb, index, middle, and ring finger, motor loss to lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis; deformity: ape hand; functional loss: thumb opposition, weakness of pinch; treatment: dorsal protection splint, A/PROM of digits, scar management, strengthening

Describe ulnar nerve laceration?

sensory loss: ulnar aspects of hand, motor loss: palmar and dorsal interossei, lumbricals, flexor pollicis brevis, adductor pollicis, digiti minimi muscles; deformity: claw hand; functional loss: power grip and pinch strength; treatment: MCP flexion block, sensory re-education

Describe a radial nerve laceration?

sensory loss: dorsal forearm and hand; motor loss: wrist extension, functional loss: inability to extend digits to release and manipulate them, deformity: wrist drop, treatment: dynamic extension splint, ROM, sensory re-education, activity modification

What are anterior, lateral, and posterior horns of the spinal cord?

anterior: motor neurons, posterior: sensory neurons, lateral: autonomic nervous system

What is the blood supply of the brain?

Carotid system, vertebrobasilar system, circle of willis, and venous drainage

Describe the structures and symptoms of lesions of lower motor neurons and upper motor neurons?

LMN structure: cell bodies in anterior horn, spinal nerves, LMN lesion: flaccidity, absent deep tendon reflexes, atrophy; UMN structure: any nerve cell in spinal cord, brain, and nuclei, UMN lesion: increased reflexes, spasticity, clonus, autonomic reflexia

What are the spinal level reflexes?

stretch reflex: maintains muscle tone, support agonist muscle contraction, provide feedback about muscle length; Inverse stretch reflex: provides agonist inhibition, diminuation of force in agonist contraction; Gamma reflex loop: allows muscle tension to come under descending pathways; flexor withdrawal: withdrawal to remove body part from harmful stimuli; crossed extension reflex: coordinates reciprocal limb actions such as gait

What are the symptoms of a CVA?

abrupt onset of unilateral neuro signs, symptoms progress over several hours, Middle Cerebral Artery: contralateral hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, homonymous hemianopsia, aphasia, apraxia, unilateral neglect, spatial dysfunction; anterior cerebral artery: contralateral hemiplegia, grasp reflex, incontinence, confusion, apathy, mutism; posterior cerebral artery: homonymous hemianopsia, thalamic pain, hemisensory loss, alexia; vertebrobaislary: dysarthria, dysphagia, emotional instability, tetraplegia

What are the hemisphere specializations?

Left: movement and sensation of R side of body, visual reception of R field, visual verbal processing, bilateral motor praxis, verbal memory, bilateral auditory reception, speech, process of verbal auditory info; Right: movement and sensation of L side of body, visual recpetion of L field, visual spatial processing, nonverbal memory, attention, emotion, nonverbal auditory info, interpretation of abstract info, interpretation of verbal inflections

What are the risk factors of stroke?

modifiable: hypertension, cardiac disease, atrial fibrillation, diabetes, smoking, alcohol abuse, hyperlipidemia; nonmodifiable: older age, male gender, african americans and latinos, heredity

What are the symptoms of a TBI?

concussion resulting in loss of consciousness, cerebral contusion/ laceration/ edema, hemiplegia/ monoplegia, abnormal reflexes, rigidity, fixed pupils, coma, changes in vital signs,

Describe the Glasgow Coma Scale

measures conscious state of individual, measures eye response (1-4), verbal response(1-5), and motor response (1-6), highest score is 15 which is oriented person

Describe the ASIA impairment scale?

A: complete, no sensory or motor function


B: incomplete, sensory but no motor function


C: incomplete, motor function less than 3/5


D: incomplete, motor function more than 3/5


E: normal, no sensory or motor deficits

What are the symptoms of SCI?

spinal shock(4-8 wks) no reflex activity, sensory deficits, loss of bowel/ bladder control, loss of temperature control below lesion, decreased respiratory function, sexual dysfunction, changes in muscle tone, loss of motor function

Describe the Rancho Level of Cognitive Functioning?

1: no response, total assist; 2: generalized response, total assist, reflexive activity; 3: localized response: total assist, responds directly related to type of stimuli; 4: Confused/ agitated, max assist; 5: confused, inappropriate non-agitated, max assist; 6: confused, appropriate, mod assist, follows simple tasks that are familiar; 7: automatic, appropriate, min assist for ADLs, consistently oriented, attends to familiar tasks; 8: purposeful, appropriate, stand by assist, ind attends to familiar tasks; 9: purposeful, appropriate, stand by upon request; 10: purposeful, appropriate, mod ind

Describe central cord, Brown-Sequard, Anterior cord, posterior cord, conus medularis, and cauda equina syndromes

central cord: more UE deficits than LE deficits; Brown-Sequard: ipsilateral paralysis, proprioception, discriminative touch, and contralateral loss of pain and thermal; Anterior cord: loss of bilateral motor function, pain, pinprick, and temp; posterior cord: proprioceptive loss, conus medularis:LE motor and sensory loss, areflexive bowel and bladder, cauda equina: LMN lesion

Describe cerebral palsy, the types, and complications of cp?

caused by injury/disease prior to, during, or shortly after birth resulting in brain damage and secondary neurological and muscular deficits; prognosis is dependent on severity and location of injury, nonprogressive disorder; types: spastic, dyskinetic, and ataxic; complications: seizures, cog deficits, visual impairments, feeding disturbances, and diminished sensation

What is Parkinson's disease?

hypokinetic CNS movement disorder that is slowly progressive and degenerative, begins insidiously with pill-rolling tremor of 1 hand, cardinal signs: tremor, rigidity, resistance to PROM, akinesia, postural instability, festinating gait, falling backwards/forwards, mask face, and micrographia

Describe the Hoehn and Yahr 5 stage scale for parkinsons?

stage 1: unilateral tremor, rigidity, akinesia, minimal/no functional impairment; stage 2: bilateral tremor, rigidity or akinesia with or without axial signs, ind with ADL, no balance impairment; stage 3: worsening of symptoms, first signs of impaired righting reflexes, onset of disability in ADLs but can still remain ind; stage 4: requires assist with ADLs, unable to live ind, able to walk and stand unaided; stage 5: confined to wheelchair, max assist

Describe spina bifida and the different types?

failure of spinal column's vertebral arches to fully form to enclose and protect neural tube; classification: occulta: bony malformation, dysraphism: external manifestations over site, cystica: exposed pouch comprised of SC and meninges, meningocele: sac contains CSF but no SC, myelomeningocele: contains CSF and SC; symptoms: vary depending on type, may cause motor/sensory deficits below injury; Tethered cord syndrome: SC is stretched causing bladder/bowel problems, gait issues, and deformities

What are the major types of muscular dystrophies/atrophies?

Duchenne's: 2-6 years, sex linked in males, pseudohypertrophy of calves, forearms, and thighs, weakness of proximal joints causing mobility impairments, weakness of voluntary muscles, life expectancy 20 years; Becker: less severe form of Duchenne's, loss of motor function at hips, thighs, pelvis, and shoulders; Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita: loss of anterior horn cells, detected at birth, waiter's tip deformity; Limb girdle: progresses slowly, hips and shoulders most affected; Fascioscapulohumeral: teens, face, UE, and scapula causing weakness and decreased mobility, slow progression; spinal muscular atrophy: decrease in motor neuron protein, 3 types;

Describe progressive supranuclear palsy, Huntington's chorea, cerebellar disorders, cerebellar lesions, and spinocerebellar degenerations?

PSP: loss of voluntary movements, rigidity, and dementia, Huntington's: choreiform movements and progressive intellectual deterioration; cerebellar d/o: ataxia, dysmetria, hypotonia, and movemetn decomposition; cerebellar lesions: caused by stroke or tumors; spinocerebellar degeneration: progressive ataxia due to degeneration of cerebellum, brain stem, SC, and nerves

What is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

motor neuron disease characterized by progressive degeneration of corticospinal tracts and anterior horn cells, death occurs in 2-5 years, symptoms: muscle weakness and atrophy, cramps precede weakness, dysarthria and dysphagia

What is brachial plexus disorder and what are the two major types?

secondary to traction or radiation, mixed motor and sensory d/o of corresponding limb; Erb's palsy: paralysis of upper brachial plexus, arm cannot be raised, no elbow flexion, waiter's tip deformity; Klumpke's Palsy: less common, paralysis of lower brachial plexus, paralysis in hand and wrist with limp hand and nonmoving fingers

What is Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

acute, rapidly progressive polyneuropathy that is characterized by symmetrical muscle weakness, and distal sensory loss/paresthesias

Describe myasthenia gravis and post-polio syndrome?

Myasthenia gravis: autoimmune attack characterized by episodic muscle weakness in cranial nerves, fluctuating symptoms; post-polio: new weakness and fatigue after recovery from polio

What is multiple sclerosis?

myelin damage caused by immune system, characterized by remissions and exacerbations, paresthesias, weakness, visual disturbances, emotional disturbances, balance loss, bladder dysfunction, cognitive features; 4 patterns: relapsing remitting, secondary progressive, primary progressive, progressive relapsing

Describe the OT eval and general intervention process for neuro disorders?

Eval: develop occupational profile, analysis of areas of O, determine sensory and motor function, determine cog/perceptual function, eval impact of deficits, determine psychosocial function, eval cultural, architectual, and societal barriers as well as home and work environments; Intervention: positioning, postural control, motor learning, motor retraining, ADL training, AT, splinting, cog-perceptual training, visual skills training, sexual dysfunction, bowel and bladder training, skin care, sensory re-ed, developing coping strategies, community re-integration, return to work

Describe the OT assessment and intervention for pain?

Assessment: history, localization of pain, nature of pain, irritating stimuli, use pain rating scales, physical exam, assess degree of suffering, assess functional changes, assess consequences, behavioral impact, and secondary gains, depression and anxiety, drug misuse, motivational components; intervention: education, assist indivual in identifying and responding to pain behaviors, develop strategies to manage pain, refer to other professionals, establish daily activity program, family education

What are the 4 categories of sensory processing? What are the major sensory processing disorders?

4 categories: Poor registration (high threshold, passive behavior), sensory seeking (high threshold, active behavior), sensory sensitivity (low threshold, passive behavior), sensory avoiding (low threshold, active behavior


Major d/o: sensory modulation disorder: sensory over-responsivity/under-responsivity/seeking-craving, sensory-based motor disorder, sensory discrimination disorder

What are the general symptoms of sensory processing disorders and OT eval?

symptoms: fluctuating responsiveness, difficutly interacting with environment, difficulty planning, sequencing, organizing, poor initiation, tactile, proprioceptive, and vestubular symptoms; Eval: parent/caregiver interview, formal assess of sensory processing, observation in natural environments

What are the different types of seizures?

tonic-clonic/grand mal: aura, loss of consciousness with stiffening of body, rigidity and relaxation of muscles, period of drowsiness after seizure; myoclonic-akinetic seizure: brief jerking of extremities w/o loss of consciousness, petit mal: loss of consciousness w/o loss of tone, partial focal: jerking of parts of body w/o loss of awareness, complex partial: alterations in consciousness, infantile spasms: 100xper day, dropping head and flexing arms, landau-Kleffer: progressive encephalopathy, status epilepticus: prolonged or rapid succession of seizures

What are OT interventions for seizure d/o?

first aid: stay calm, remove dangerous items, protect individual from harm, don't place anything in mouth, turn on side if risk of aspiration, allow seizure to happen, monitor mental state, call for medical attention; post seizure: allow individual to rest, call physician, notify caregivers, observe safety precautions; OT intervention: assess and intervene for developmental delays, observe all medical precautions, document seizure activity

What is atherosclerosis and the risk factors for it?

Thickening of intimal layer of blood vessel wall from accumulation of debris. Risk factors: age, sex, race, family history, smoking, high BP, high cholesterol, stress, diabetes, obesity, sedentary lifestyle

What is angina pectoris?

mild to moderate chest pain lasting 20 minutes, types: stable, unstable, and variant

What is a myocardial infarction?

prolonged ischemia injury and death of area of myocardium. Symptoms: severe pain, dyspnea, rapid respiration, SOB, indegestion, nausea, pain unrelieved by rest

What is heart failure?

Left sided: blood not pumped to systematic circulation, dry cough, wheezing, hypotension, dizziness, fatigue; Right sided: blood not returned from systemic to heart, edema, weight gain, nausea, cyanosis; biventricular: severe pathology producing back up into lungs, increased pressure

What are the different types of peripheral vascular disease and their characteristics?

arterial: occlusive (diminished blood supply to extremities, pain when walking, affects LEs), thromboangitis obliterans (chronic, common in men who smoke, begins distally), diabetic angiopathy, Raynaud's phenomenon; Venous: varicose veins, superficial vein thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, chronic venous insufficiency; lymphedema: chronic disorder with excessive acuumulation of fluid due to obstruction of lymphatics

What are acute pulmonary diseases?

bacterial pneumonia, viral pneumonia, aspiration pneumonia, tuberculosis, pneumocystis pneumonia: caused by fungus, severe acute respiratory syndrome: caused by coronavirus

What are chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases?

peripheral airways disease: inflammation in airways from smoking, chronic bronchitis, emphysema: permanent abnormal destruction of air spaces in bronchioles; asthma, cystic fibrosis, respiratory distress syndrome

What does an OT cardiopulmonary assessment look like?

review medical record, interview patient and caregivers, document presenting symptoms (angina, dyspnea, palpitations, dizziness, edema), past med history, review diagnostic tests, gather social history, determine discharge environment

How may activity tolerance be assessed?

graded exercises test, observation of activities, periodic monitoring of physical condition, monitor exertion using Borg rate of perceived exertion, metabolic equivalent levels

Describe phase 1, inpatient rehab/acute hospitalization OT for cardiopulmonary conditions?

begins when pt determined to be medically stable, program focus: pt and family ed on energy conservation and work simplification, knowledge of METs, improve self-care, decrease anxiety, promote risk factor modification, discharge. Eval and intervention: initiated t bedside, MET levels 1-2, energy conservation, breathing exercises, monitor vital signs and exertion; discharge: 5-14 days

Describe phase 2, outpatient rehab/subacute stage for OT cardiopulmonary rehab?

begins after discharge from hospital, focus: educate about importance of exercise, build up activity tolerance, improve performance in IADLs, improve work performance, support efforts in smoking cessation and lifestyle changes; Eval and intervention: home eval, consumer education, graded exercise program, METs 3-4, practice functional activities, use energy conservation, community activities, work site eval

Describe phase 3, maintainence/training, community stage for OT cardiopulmonary rehab?

attend once a week after phase 2, OT intervention provided as necessary, maintenance gym program including weight and cardiovascular training

What are rehab guidelines for lymphatic disease?

Phase 1: management, short stretch compression bandages worn 24 hrs, manual lymph drainage, massage and PROM, functional activities; phase 2: self-management, skin care, compression bandages, exercise, education about skin and nail care, bandaging, infection management, maintain exercise, and home program

Describe cystic fibrosis, eval, intervention?

chronic progressive lung disease characterized by production of abnormal mucous, causes exercise intolerance and poor nutrition; Eval: assess for developmental delays, assess environment to determine adaptations needed, assess psychosocial status; Intervention: energy conservation, environmental adaptations, positioning, neurodevelopmental treatment, parent education

Describe Respiratory Distress Syndrome, OT eval and intervention?

lungs collapse after each breath, effect on function: intellectual development may be affected, motor, sensory, cognitive impairments; Eval: assess for developmental delays, assess the environment; Intervention: monitor development, facilitate sensorimotor and cognitive development, address psychosocial issues, provide parent education on handling, positioning, and energy conservation, adapt environment

Describe bronchopulmonary dysplasia, OT eval and intervention?

respiratory disorder caused by barotrauma, exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide is more difficult, effect on function: poor autonomic and sensory state regulation, poor activity tolerance, reduced socialization, isolation and stress, attachment disorder; Eval: assess for developmental delays and environment; Intervention: facilitate development, address psychosocial issues, provide ed regarding handling, positioning, feeding, energy conservation, and environmental adaptations, pt advocacy