Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/459

Click to flip

459 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

AMR

AMR

AMR

AMR

AMR
AMR
What safety term is used to indicate an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that is essential to emphasize?

• NOTE
• WARNING
• ALERT
• CAUTION
NOTE
What system/program is used to acquire, store, and disseminate data on hazardous materials procured for use?

• Hazardous Material Information program (HMIP)
• Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
• Navy Occupational Health and Safety (NAVOSH)
• Hazardous Material Information System (HMIS)
Hazardous Material Information System (HMIS)
Typically, a mobile electronic weighing system can be set up by two men in what minimum number of minutes?

. 30 min
. 20 min
. 15 min
. 10 min
30 min
How many basic categories of malfunctions are there?

• Five
• Three
• Two
• Four
Four
What publication outlines the requirements, procedures, and responsibilities for weight and balance control?

• NA 01–1A–50
• NA 01–1B–50
• OPNAVINST 4790.2
• NA 01–1B–40
NA 01–1B–50
Thin lines terminated with arrowheads at each end are known by what name?

• Dimension lines
• Leader lines
• Extension lines
• Hidden lines
Dimension lines
Upon task assignment, you must record the tool container number on what copy of the VIDS/MAF?


• Copy 5
• Copy 3
• Copy 2
• Copy 1
Copy 1
After removing an aircraft from the scales, you must reweigh it if the scales do NOT return to zero within what number of minutes?


• 5 min
• 10 min
• 20 min
• 15 min
10 min
Why are lubricants necessary in aircraft components?

• To minimize friction
• To cool parts
• To prevent corrosion
• To prevent wear
To minimize friction
Thin lines made up of long and short dashes alternately spaced and consistent in length are known by what name?

• Center lines
• Dimension lines
• Hidden lines
• Extension lines
Center lines
Ensuring that tools are procured and issued in a controlled manner consistent with the approved tool control plan is the responsibility of what officer?


• The material control officer
• The quality assurance officer
• The maintenance officer
• The assistant maintenance officer
The material control officer
Who is responsible for training work center personnel in the use of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)?

• The work center supervisor
• The maintenance control chief
• The division officer
• The safety officer
The work center supervisor
What section of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identifies personal protective equipment required?


• Section VII
• Section II
• Section VIII
• Section V
Section VIII
Heavy–duty portable scales must be calibrated at least how often?

• Twice every 6 months
• Prior to use
• Once every 6 months
• Once every 12 months
Once every 6 months
What document should you consult for safety precautions for a specific lubricant?


• Aircraft MIMs
• NAVAIR 01–1A–509
• Aircraft MRCs
• Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
You are troubleshooting a malfunction and conducting the final operational check. What is the minimum number of times the affected system must be actuated?


• 5
• 7
• 3
• 10
5
Efficient troubleshooting of an electrically controlled hydraulic system may require you to use a multimeter for which of the following reasons?


• To read the electrical portion of a Schematic
• Check frequency
• Check voltage and continuity
• Relieve the AE of solving the problems
To read the electrical portion of a Schematic
After conducting a visual inspection and an operational check, what troubleshooting step should be next?


• Classify the trouble
• Locate the trouble
• Isolate the trouble
• Correct the trouble
Classify the trouble
Which of the following is NOT a type of aircraft lifting sling?


• Structural steel
• Fabric webbing
• Wire rope
• Snatch cable
Snatch cable
Which of the following reports should be used to report poor quality tools to FLEMATSUPPO?


• EI
• CAT I QDR
• HMR
• CAT II QDR
CAT II QDR
Which of the following components is NOT normally a part of a weighing kit?


• A plumb bob
• A chalk line
• A hydrometer
• A spirit level
A hydrometer
What total number of common methods are used to apply lubricants?

• Three
• Four
• Two
• One
Four
What is the primary purpose of a spoiler?


• Decrease lift
• Increase lift
• Reduce airspeed
• Increase airspeed
Decrease lift
A leg extension kit for a variable height tripod jack will increase its effective height by what total amount of inches?


• 6 inches
• 12 inches
• 24 inches
• 18 inches
18 inches
What are the two types of aircraft jacks used by the Navy?


• Hand carried and T–bar
• Axle and airframe (tripod)
• Horseshoe and camel
• T–bar and camel
Axle and airframe (tripod)
Aircraft jacks are serviced with what type of fluid?


• General–purpose oil
• Aircraft hydraulic fluid
• Support equipment hydraulic fluid
• Synthetic oil
Aircraft hydraulic fluid
The load imposed on the wings during flight acts primarily on what structural member(s)?


• Beams
• Spars
• Skin
• Ribs
Skin
What is the primary unit(s) that houses an aircraft engine?


• Bulkhead
• Nacelle
• Mount beam
• Stringers, formers, and frames
Nacelle
You should examine and lubricate all lifting slings at least how often?


• Twice a week
• Twice a month
• Once a week
• Once a month
Once a month
Which of the following is a primary flight control?


• Spoiler
• Trim tab
• Wing flap
• Rudder
Rudder
During jacking operation, the tie–down chain preload is too high when which of the following conditions exists?


• The jack baseplate is seated flush with the Deck
• The tensioning grip cannot be rotated by hand
• The jack safety valve bypasses fluid
• The first stage locknut does not turn
The tensioning grip cannot be rotated by hand
In reference to a cable, what does the term "bird cage" mean?


• A neatly coiled cable
• A kink that has been pulled through in order to straighten a cable
• A cable that is improperly stored
• A cable that is manufactured to look like a bird cage
A kink that has been pulled through in order to straighten a cable
When the control stick of an aircraft equipped with a flaperon system is moved to the left, the left and right flaperons will be in which of the following positions?


• Left down, right flush
• Left up, right flush
• Left flush, right down
• Left down, right up
Left up, right flush
To roll an aircraft clockwise, you must cause which of the following changes in flight control positions?


• Lower the left aileron and raise the right one
• Raise the elevators and move the rudder(s) to the left
• Raise the left aileron and lower the right one
• Lower the elevators and move the rudder(s) to the right
Raise the left aileron and lower the right one
What are the internal chordwise structural members of a wing assembly?


• Spars
• Stringers
• Rib
• Rings
Spars
In a semimonocoque fuselage design, longerons are supplemented by what other longitudinal members?


• Station webs
• Vertical rings
• Stringers
• Bulkheads
Stringers
Hoisting restrictions for a specific type of aircraft can be found in which of the following publications?


• Applicable MIM
• NAVAIR 01–1A–8
• NAVAIR 15–02–500B
• NAVAIR 01–1A017
Applicable MIM
The shear load on a reinforced shell type fuselage is primarily carried by what structural component(s)?


• The formers
• The stringers
• The skin
• The keel
The skin
You are using three tripod jacks to jack an aircraft aboard a ship. What is the minimum number of tie–down chains that will be attached to the jacks?


• 18
• 12
• 3
• 9
3
Special inspections for tripod jacks are required at what intervals?


• Every 8 weeks
• Every 13 weeks
• Every 7 weeks
• Every 10 weeks
Every 13 weeks
Longitudinal control systems control movement of the aircraft about which of the following axes?


• Lateral, vertical, and longitudinal
• Vertical only
• Lateral only
• Longitudinal only
Lateral only
The skin of a wing assembly is fastened to which of the following structural components?


• Ribs only
• Spars only
• Formers only
• Ribs, spars, and formers
Ribs, spars, and formers
A group of wires twisted together is known by what name?


• A cable
• A strand
• A core
• A wire rope
A strand
What is another name for the T–bar axle jack?


• Alligator jack
• Hard tail jack
• Crocodile jack
• Toothpick jack
Alligator jack
Which of the following types of flaps operate on tracks and rollers?

• Split
• Leading edge
• Plain
• Fowler
Fowler
To find load testing and inspection information on aircraft lifting slings, you should consult what publication?

• NAVAIR 17–1–114
• NAVAIR 01–1A–17
• NAVAIR 17–15E–52
• NAVAIR 01–1A–20
NAVAIR 17–1–114
A tripod jack consists of what total number of basic assemblies?

• 6
• 3
• 4
• 8
3
What does the core material of reinforced plastic consist of?


• Bonding material
• Fiber cloth
• Honeycomb structure
• Liquid resin
Honeycomb structure
What metal property allows a metal to be hammered, rolled, or pressed into various shapes without cracking or breaking?


• Brittleness
• Malleability
• Ductility
• Elasticity
Malleability
What structural metal is lightweight, strong, and corrosion resistant?


• Nickel
• Aluminum
• Magnesium
• Titanium
Titanium
The shimmy damper on a nose landing gear assembly prevents the nosewheel from shimmying during takeoff and landing by what means?


• By accentuating sudden torque loads applied to the nose wheel
• By forcing a rotary bar to move against a friction plate
• By metering hydraulic fluid through a small orifice between two cylinders or chambers
• By actuating a low–rate gear train
By metering hydraulic fluid through a small orifice between two cylinders or chambers
What type of spar is used in the construction of a rotor blade?


• Aluminum spar
• Magnesium spar
• Nickel spar
• Titanium spar
Titanium spar
The intermediate shape of steel that has width greater than twice the thickness and from which sheets are rolled is known by what name?


• Slab
• Ingot
• Billet
• Bloom
Slab
What metal property allows a metal to carry heat or electricity?


• Fusibility
• Conductivity
• Ductility
• Malleability
Conductivity
What high tensile metal is used to manufacture tubes, rods, and wires?


• Titanium
• Magnesium
• Alloy steel
• Aluminum
Alloy steel
What property of a metal allows for little bending and deformation without shattering?


• Malleability
• Hardness
• Brittleness
• Ductility
Brittleness
What metal property allows a metal to be permanently drawn, bent, or twisted into various shapes without breaking?


• Elasticity
• Malleability
• Brittleness
• Ductility
Ductility
The tail landing gear of a helicopter is capable of swiveling how many degrees?


• 360°
• 180°
• 90°
• 45°
360°
A boundary layer control is used with which of the following secondary flight controls?


• Aileron droop
• Trim tabs
• Speed brakes
• Slats
Slats
What component is used to hold the arresting hook in the down position to prevent it from bouncing when it strikes the carrier deck?


• A drag ling
• A snubber
• A liquid centering spring
• A cable assembly
A snubber
Which of the following components is NOT a part of the tail pylon of a helicopter?


• The swash plate
• The tail gearbox
• The horizontal stabilator
• The intermediate gearbox
The swash plate
What type of stress is produced in an engine crankshaft while the engine is running?


• Torsion
• Bending
• Tension
• Compression
Torsion
During strut compression, fluid passes through an orifice into what camber of an air–oil type shock strut?


• Upper
• Forward
• Lower
• Aft
Upper
Which of the following helicopter components provide(s) lift?


• The engines
• The fuselage
• The tail rotor
• The rotor blades
The rotor blades
What is the largest portion of metal present in an alloy?


• Major component metal
• Foundation metal
• Main metal
• Base metal
Base metal
What type of stress is defined as “stress exerted when two pieces of fastened material tend to separate”?


• Shear
• Bending
• Tension
• Compression
Shear
The strength of all metals is closely related to what other characteristic?


• Brittleness
• Denseness
• Hardness
• Conductivity
Hardness
When comparing catapult hookup methods on a carrier, the nose gear launch method is superior to the holdback pendant method for all EXCEPT which of the following?


• It saves time
• It cost less to operate
• It requires fewer personnel
• It is the safest method
It cost less to operate
What part of an air–oil shock strut controls the rate of flow of the fluid between the piston and the cylinder?


• The snubber orifice
• The torque arm
• The metering pin
• The orifice plate
The snubber orifice
When all other metal properties are equal, what method of joining metals structurally has the greatest advantage?


• Brazing
• Soldering
• Riveting
• Welding
Welding
How many rotor blades are attached to the main rotor head of an H–60 helicopter?


• Two
• Five
• Four
• Three
Four
What main landing gear component of a helicopter includes the weight–on–wheels sensing switch?


• Left main landing gear
• Tail gear
• Sponson
• Right main landing gear
Left main landing gear
What type of rivet is used for fastening thick gauge sheets of metal together?


• Solid
• Blind
• Shear
• Structural
Shear
Alclad is an aluminum alloy with a protective coating of what material?


• Pure aluminum
• Manganese
• Zinc chromate
• Aluminum oxide
Pure aluminum
The use of copper as a structural material is limited because of what factor?


• High heat conductivity
• Great weight
• Cost
• High electrical conductivity
Great weight
What is the principal element added to copper to form brass?


• Zinc
• Lead
• Aluminum
• Tin
Zinc
What is the principal alloying element of aluminum alloy 2024?


• Copper
• Magnesium
• Manganese
• Zinc
Copper
An aluminum alloy containing manganese as the major alloying element is identified by what number?


• 7010
• 1035
• 2014
• 3003
7010
You can distinguish a plastic enclosure from a glass enclosure by performing which of the following actions?


• Checking its reaction to acetone
• Checking the ease with which it is drilled
• Checking for a nonringing sound while tapping lightly
• Checking its reaction to hexane
Checking for a nonringing sound while tapping lightly
Which of the following is NOT a factor in the classification of solid rivets?


• Head shape
• Size
• Color
• Material
Color
What is the prime characteristic of aluminum?


• Lightweight
• Corrosion–resistant properties
• Low melting point
• Ease of fabrication
Lightweight
How many different weights does a Rockwell hardness tester have?


• One
• Three
• Four
• Two
Three
What metal working process involves the forcing of metal through an opening in a die?


• Cold working
• Cold drawing
• Cold rolling
• Extruding
Extruding
What metal working process is used to make wire?


• Hammering
• Pressing
• Extruding
• Cold drawing
Cold drawing
While holding a piece of metal against a revolving stone, you see red sparks leave the stone and turn to straw color. This is what type of metal?


• Cast iron
• Wrought iron
• Low–carbon steel
• Nickel steel
Low–carbon steel
Which of the following processes of joining aluminum alloys produces the strongest joints?


• Riveting
• Forging
• Brazing
• Heat treating
Riveting
What position of a rivet identification code identifies the length of the rivet?


• 1st
• 4th
• 2d
• 3d
2d
What is the greatest disadvantage in the use of titanium?


• Tendency to back away from or resist the cutting edge of tools
• Tendency to crack when cold–worked
• Strength–to–weight ratio
• Brittleness after long exposure to temperatures above 1000° F
Brittleness after long exposure to temperatures above 1000° F
In various aircraft structural components, what materials are replacing and supplementing metallic materials?


• Composite material
• Sandwich material
• Rubber material
• Plastic material
Composite material
Which of the following precautions should you take when using a hi–shear (pin) rivet?


• Never use them with an aluminum collar
• Never use them where the grip length is less than the shank diameter
• Never use them on aluminum alloys
• Never use them on thick sheets
Never use them where the grip length is less than the shank diameter
What extinguishing agent should be used on a magnesium fire?


• Foam
• Water
• Carbon dioxide
• Graphite powder
Graphite powder
When space on one side is too restricted to properly use a bucking bar, what type of rivet should you use?


• Blind
• Hi–shear
• Solid
• Flat
Blind
What aluminum alloy should be used when the highest strength is required?


• 2014
• 7178
• 1100
• 5052
7178
You check the condition of the point of a Barcol hardness tester by using the test disc and find the indicator reading is NOT within the specified range. You should correct this condition by first following what procedure?


• Adjust the lower plunger guide
• Adjust the upper plunger guide nut
• Grind the point
• Install a new point
Adjust the lower plunger guide
Each Riehle harness tester is supplied with a diamond penetrator and what size ball penetrator?


• 1/32
• 1/8
• 1/16
• 1/64
1/16
A 5056 rivet is used to join magnesium alloy materials because of which of the following factors?


• Corrosion resistance
• Tensile strength
• Cold working
• Heat resistance
Corrosion resistance
If long and improper storage has caused the adhesive to deteriorate on a sheet of plastic, the masking paper should be moistened with what chemical?


• Xylene
• Aliphatic naphtha
• Ether
• Glass cleaner
Aliphatic naphtha
When replacing an original screw in a structure, you should NOT use which of the following screws?


• A structural screw
• A setscrew
• A self–tapping screw
• A machine screw
A self–tapping screw
A flat–head pin used in a tie–rod terminal should be secured with what device?


• A sheet spring nut
• A self–locking nut
• A cotter pin
• A piece of safety wire
A cotter pin
Which of the following parts is used only on heavy–duty Dzus fasteners?


• A pin
• A spring
• A stud
• A grommet
A grommet
A piece of 7 x 19 cable has what total number of wires?


• 133 wires
• 7 wires
• 19 wires
• 26 wires
19 wires
A replacement bolt is considered the correct length if at least two threads are extending through the nut?


• True
• False
False
What distance will the stud of a Camloc fastener have to be turned to release it without permitting re–engagement?


• One–half turn clockwise
• One–fourth turn clockwise
• One–fourth turn counterclockwise
• One–half turn counterclockwise
One–half turn counterclockwise
Which of the following is an example of an all–metal self–locking nut?


• A wing nut
• A flexloc nut
• An internal wrenching nut
• An elastic stop nut
A flexloc nut
Aircraft cables have the center core twisted in one direction and the outer core in the opposite direction for what reason?


• To make the cable stiffer
• To minimize the stretch or set
• To make the cable rigid
• To allow the strands to expand when cut
To minimize the stretch or set
What three types of screws are most commonly used in aircraft construction?


• Machine, structural, and self–tapping screw
• Brazier–head, round–head, and common screws
• Structural, machine, and pan head screws
• Self–tapping, Phillips, and common screws
Machine, structural, and self–tapping screw
Flush–head screws are available in what degree(s) of head angles?


• 82° only
• 82°, 100°, and 125° only
• 82° and 100°only
• 82°, 100°, 125°, and 145°
82° and 100°only
Aircraft nuts are divided into what two general groups?


• Metal insert and fiber insert
• High temperature and common
• Self–locking and nonself–locking
• Ferrous and nonferrous
Self–locking and nonself–locking
Which of the following is NOT a head style of a Jo–bolt?


• Hexagon protruding head
• 100–degree flush head
• 100–degree flush millable head
• Diamond recessed head
100–degree flush head
What metal is used in the construction of the threaded pins of Hi–lok fasteners?


• Anodized 2024–T6 aluminum
• Cadmium–plated alloy steel
• Titanium
• Stainless
Cadmium–plated alloy steel
What type of fastener is used in an application where a high strength, interference–free fastener is required?

• Lock–bolt
• Hi–lok
• Rivnut
• Jo–bolt
Hi–lok
What type of fastener has high strength and is used in applications where access to only one side of the material is available?


• Hi–lok
• Lock–bolt
• Jo–bolt
• Rivnut
Jo–bolt
Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a rivnut?


• It is oblong
• It is hollow
• It is square
• It is solid
It is hollow
Which of the following types of nuts are designed to be used with cotter pins or safety wire?


• Barrel nuts
• Plate nuts
• Castle nuts
• Check nuts
Castle nuts
Which of the following types of screws are as strong as bolts of the same size?


• Setscrews
• Machine screws
• Self–tapping screws
• Structural screws
Structural screws
What type of rivet must be used on sealed floatation or pressurized compartments?


• Groove shanked
• Closed–end
• Externally threaded
• Open–end
Open–end
Terminal fittings are generally attached to the ends of cables by what method?


• Welding
• Soldering
• Swaging
• Splicing
Swaging
A V–band coupling requires what minimum number of turns of safety wire?


• Three
• Two
• Four
• One
Two
Which of the following fasteners has a shear and tensile strength at least equal to the requirements of AN or NAS bolts?


• Airloc
• Turnlock
• Rivnut
• Lock bolt
Lock bolt
When an assembly is frequently removed, which of the following types of nuts should be used?


• Shear nuts
• Klincher locknuts
• Sheet spring nuts
• Wing nuts
Wing nuts
What type of fastener is used on panels that are removed and reinstalled frequently for maintenance repairs?


• Turnlock
• Jo–bolt
• Structural
• Hi–lok
Turnlock
When you install a hose between two duct sections, what is the maximum allowable gap between the duct ends?


• 1/4 inch
• 3/4 inch
• 3/8 inch
• 7/8 inch
3/4 inch
A fairlead may be used to minimize cable whipping and for what other purpose?


• Minimize vibration in long cable runs
• Minimize binding
• Minimize slacking
• Minimize sticking
Minimize vibration in long cable runs
How many different types of cable guides are used throughout an aircraft?


• Five
• Two
• Three
• Four
Four
The clip–locking method is the preferred method for safetying a turnbuckle?


• True
• False
True
Adjustable connector links are used in what type of cable assemblies?


• Stretch cable assemblies
• Very long cable assemblies
• Very short cable assemblies
• Thin cable assemblies
Very long cable assemblies
What type of terminals are usually used in emergencies only?


• Twist on
• Fused–type
• Crimped–type
• Soldered
Soldered
What type of safety wire is used in high–temperature areas?


• Bailing wire
• Brass wire
• Annealed copper wire
• Annealed, corrosion–resistant wire
Annealed, corrosion–resistant wire
A connector assembly consists of how many different parts?


• Four
• Two
• Three
• One
One
Cotter pins are used to secure which of the following devices?


• Bolts only
• Nuts only
• Screws only
• Bolts, nuts, and screws
Bolts, nuts, and screws
A grommet is manufactured from what material?


• Rubber
• Aluminum
• Copper
• Felt
Rubber
The turnbuckle is used to make what type of cable adjustments?


• Minor adjustments to cable tension only
• To adjust cable threads
• Minor adjustments to cable length and tension
• Minor adjustments to cable length only
Minor adjustments to cable length and tension
How many pieces of safety wire are used when securing a turnbuckle using the wire–wrapped method?


• Three
• One
• Four
• Two
Two
What component allows for the continuous satisfactory operation of onboard navigation and radio communication systems?


• Connectors
• Bonding wires
• Terminals
• Static dischargers
Static dischargers
How many different methods are used for safetying a turnbuckle?


• One
• Two
• Three
• Four
Two
What device provides a means of fastening a wire to a terminal stud?


• Connector
• Static discharger
• Bonding wire
• Terminal
Terminal
What factor accounts for the majority of all fastener problems?


• Cross–threading
• Fatigue failure
• Improper material
• Corrosive breakdown
Fatigue failure
A ball peen hammer is sometimes referred to as what type of hammer?


• Machinist hammer
• Mechanics hammer
• Forging hammer
• Striking hammer
Machinist hammer
What type of safety wire is used on valves and levers used for emergency operation of aircraft equipment?


• Corrosion–resistant wire
• Brass wire
• Bailing wire
• Copper wire
Copper wire
What type of terminal is generally recommended for use on naval aircraft?


• Soldered
• Fused–type
• Twist on
• Crimped–type
Crimped–type
What device changes cable direction and allows a cable to move with minimum friction?


• Sector
• Quadrant
• Pulley
• Bell crank
Pulley
What type of connection is used to connect all metal parts of an aircraft to complete an electrical unit?


• Bonding
• Fused
• Terminal
• Static
Bonding
When you use the wire–wrapped method on a turnbuckle, each wire is wrapped how many times around the shank?


• One
• Three
• Four
• Two
Four
How many times, if any, can a turnbarrel lock clip be reused?


• Two times
• One time
• Three times
• It cannot be reused
It cannot be reused
The size of a cable is determined by which of the following factors?


• Strength
• Diameter
• Lay
• Tension
Diameter
What device is used on cables or rods that must move through a pressurized bulkhead?


• Back–up ring
• Grommet
• O–ring
• Pressure seal
Pressure seal
Torque values must be followed unless the MIM or structural repair manual for the specific aircraft requires a specific torque for a given nut.

• True
• False
True
To allow the lines to stand out more clearly when laying out sheet metal patterns, you should use which of the following items?


•Felt tip marker
•Layout fluid
•Graphite pencil
•Ball–point pen
Layout fluid
When marking or drawing lines on aluminum or magnesium, which of the following should be remove to prevent corrosion?


• Scriber lines
• Lead pencil marks
• Finger prints
• Masking tape
Scriber lines
What weight ball peen hammer will suffice for most work?


• 6–ounce and 1–pound weight
• 12–ounce and 1 1/2–pound weight
• 2–pound and 5–ounce weight
• 8–ounce and 2–pound weight
12–ounce and 1 1/2–pound weight
The hot dimpling squeezer is capable of working all material gauges up to and including which of the following measurements?


• 0.098 of an inch
• 0.102 of an inch
• 0.091 of an inch
• 0.084 of an inch
0.091 of an inch
The size and weight of the bucking bar to be used on a particular riveting job is determined by which of the following factors?


• The size of the rivets to be driven only
• The alloy of the rivets to be driven only
• The size and alloy of the rivets to be driven
• The location of the rivets to be driven
The size and alloy of the rivets to be driven
Lines at a known angle or parallel to the straight edge of the sheet of material can be made by marking points from a combination square held firmly against the straight edge.


• True
• False
True
When dimple countersinking, what is the combined process that occurs to the metal to form a dimple?


• Shearing and forming
• Machining and burring
• Heating and drilling
• Bending and stretching
Bending and stretching
What is the domed end of the ball peen hammer called?


• Head
• Face
• Peen
• Round
Peen
Which of the following rivet guns is preferred when driving medium–size, heat–treated rivets that are in accessible places?


• Slow–hitting gun
• Squeeze riveter
• One–shot gun
• Fast–hitting gun
Slow–hitting gun
Machine countersinking is used to flush rivet sheets of what minimum thickness?


• 0.060 in.
• 0.055 in.
• 0.048 in.
• 0.064 in.
0.064 in.
Squaring shears can be used to perform all EXCEPT which of the following cutting operations?


• Squaring
• Multiple cutting
• Notch cutting
• Cutting to a line
Notch cutting
Which of the following types of pneumatic riveters is in general use in the Navy?


• Corner riveter only
• One–shot gun, corner riveter, and fast–hitting gun
• One–shot gun only
• Fast–hitting gun only
One–shot gun, corner riveter, and fast–hitting gun
What component must be used on all pneumatic rivet sets to prevent the set from being discharged from the rivet gun when the trigger is pulled?


• Cylinder safety clip
• Retainer springs
• Retaining setscrews
• Barrel retention key
Retainer springs
Which of the following terms is used to describe the amount of material consumed in making a bend?


• Bend line
• Bend allowance
• Mold line
• Bend tangent line
Bend allowance
What size Cleco skin fastener is identified by its brass color code?


• 5/32 in.
• 1/4 in.
• 1/8 in.
• 3/16 in.
3/16 in.
What is likely to occur when dimpling a strip of material by using excessive pressure?


• The strip tends to form a concave shape
• The strip tends to form a convex shape
• Excessive pressure is required to keep the strip straight and flat
• The strip tends to form a channel shape
The strip tends to form a convex shape
Which of the following is a common error made by the inexperienced person when using portable drills?


• Incorrect angle to the work
• Excessive pressure on the drill
• Both 1 and 2 above
• Failure to lubricate prior to use
Incorrect angle to the work
The dies of hot dimpling machines are maintained at a specific temperature by which of the following devices?


• Steam generator
• Hot air blowers
• Electric heaters
• Hot oil vats
Electric heaters
Before you use the bar folder, which of the following adjustments must be made?


• Sharpness of the fold only
• Angle of the fold only
• Width, sharpness, and angle of the fold
• Width of the fold only
Width, sharpness, and angle of the fold
Which of the following sheet metal bending equipment has a series of removable fingers of varying widths?


• A box and pan break
• A cornice break
• A bench vise
• A bar folder
A box and pan break
Which of the following power tools is used to smooth countersunk rivet heads that protrude?


• Dimple countersinking tool
• Rivet–head shaver
• Rotary–rivet cutter
• Pneumatic drill with grinding wheel
Rivet–head shaver
Which of the following types of shears are portable and power operated?


• Unishears
• Hand bench shears
• Throatless shears
• Squaring shears
Unishears
Mallet heads are constructed from which of the following materials?


• Plastics only
• Brass, plastics, and rawhide
• Brass only
• Rawhide only
Brass, plastics, and rawhide
Special rivet sets, called “draw sets” are used to “draw up” the pieces of metal being riveted in order to eliminate any opening between them before the rivet is bucked.


• True
• False
True
Which of the following materials should you NEVER attempt to bend in a brake?


• Spring steel sheets only
• Rods, wire, and spring steel sheets
• Rods only
• Wire only
Rods, wire, and spring steel sheets
What type of airframe damage is more noticeable as the operating time of the aircraft accumulates?

• Stress
• Heat
• Fatigue
• Corrosion
Fatigue
When installing a 5/32 diameter rivet, what is the correct shift valve operating pressure for the CP350 blind rivet pull tool?

• 66 to 67 psi
• 30 to 31 psi
• 35 to 41 psi
• 46 to 47 psi
46 to 47 psi
Visual inspection of a self–plugging rivet (mechanical lock) shows the locking collar pin breaking off below the surface of the manufactured head. This is an indication of what discrepancy?

• Incorrect rivet gun air pressure
• Insufficient rivet grip length
• Excessive rivet grip length
• Proper rivet grip length
Insufficient rivet grip length
Which of the following rotary machine–rolling operations is generally the most difficult to perform?

• Burring
• Crimping
• Wiring
• Beading
Burring
Which of the following machines forms sheet metal by using beading rolls, turning rolls, wiring rolls, crimping rolls, and burring rolls?

• A rotary machine
• A slip–roll forming machine
• A lathe turning machine
• A bar folder
A rotary machine
Which of the following machines is used to form sheet metal into cylindrical or conical shapes?

• A slip–roll forming machine
• A lathe turning machine
• A rotary forming machine
• A bar folder
A slip–roll forming machine
What term is used to describe the longer part of a formed angle?

• Flange
• Arm
• Leg
• Flat
Leg
The edges of a lap patch are normally chamfered to what degree of angle?

• 35°
• 55°
• 60°
• 45°
45°
What is the decimal equivalent drill size for drill number “P”?

• .1590
• .2570
• .3230
• .3860
.3230
Flush rivets are made with heads of several different angles. What is the standard rivet head angle for all Navy aircraft?

• 90°
• 95°
• 110°
• 100°
100°
You are using a CP350 blind rivet pull tool and want to change the rivets from universal heads to countersunk heads without changing the rivet diameter. Which of the following blind rivet pull tool components will you need to change?

• The chuck jaws
• The inner anvil thrust bearing
• The inner anvil
• The outer anvil
The outer anvil
What classification of damage repair can be performed by installing a reinforcement or patch to bridge the damaged portion of a part?

• Negligible damage
• Damage requiring replacement
• Damage repairable by insertion
• Damage repairable by patching
Damage repairable by patching
The term “setback” is used to describe the distance between which of the following two points?


• Bend radius and material thickness
• Bend tangent line and the mold line
• Base measurement and the bend allowance
• Bend tangent line and the mold point
Bend tangent line and the mold point
What is the minimum length for a reinforced splice?


• Two times the length of the filler splice
• Four times the length of the leg of the stringer for each side of the damaged area
• Four times the width of the leg of the stringer for each side of the damaged area
• Two times the width of the filler splice
Four times the width of the leg of the stringer for each side of the damaged area
When applying the nylon barrier of a rubber–type bladder fuel cell, you should NOT use which of the following methods of application?


• Roller
• Swab
• Spray
• Swab
Roller
The milled skins of an integral fuel cell are normally fastened to the aircraft by what means?


• Rivets
• Screws
• Pins
• Bolts
Bolts
To allow the gun piston to return before another cycle can begin, the trigger of a sealant injector gun must be released approximately how often?


• Every 45 seconds
• Every 30 seconds
• Every 3 minutes
• Every 2 minutes
Every 30 seconds
When performing a flush access door installation to attach the cover plate to the doubler, you should use what type of fasteners?


• Hi–lok rivets
• Machine screws
• Rivnuts
• Flush head jo–bolts
Machine screws
When manufacturing a section of sheet metal for replacement (using the old section as a template), you should drill the rivet holes in the new sheet in what direction?


• From the outside to the center
• From the center to the outside
• From the top to the bottom
• Diagonally from corner to corner
From the center to the outside
What is fitted to some baffles inside fuel cells to control the direction of fuel flow between compartments or interconnecting cells?


• Fuel pumps
• Fuel siphon valves
• One–way check valves
• Flapper valves
Flapper valves
Which of the following airframe structural members are primarily designed to take bending loads imposed on the wing or other airfoils?


• Ribs
• Stringers
• Spars
• Longerons
Spars
Airframe fuel system maintenance is the responsibility of which of the following aviation rating work centers?


• AD only
• AM only
• AO only
• AD, AM, and AO
AD, AM, and AO
Upon finding a section of plastic material that is crazed, what action, if any, should you take to correct the problem?


• Buff it with polish
• Wipe it with naphtha
• Rub it with turpentine
• None
None
For aircraft applications, all EXCEPT which of the following features is an advantage of plastic over glass?


• Its ease of fabrication
• Its ease of repair
• Its lightness in weight
• Its ability to resist scratches
Its ability to resist scratches
What is the main advantage of a bladder–type fuel cell over a self–sealing fuel cell?


• Slightly smaller than the aircraft cavity
• Thicker wall construction
• Less total weight
• Fewer inspections
Less total weight
Any major vertical structural member of a semimonocoque fuselage, hull, or float may be considered as what structural component?


• Stringer
• Bulkhead
• Spar
• Longeron
Bulkhead
How many primary layers of material are used in the construction of a self–sealing fuel cell?


• Five
• Four
• Three
• Two
Four
What is the first step you should take to stop a fuel leak?


• Replace the O–rings under all fasteners in the leak area
• Replace the Stat–O–Seal washers under all fasteners in the leak area
• Reinject sealant around the perimeter of the cell
• Retorque all fasteners 6 inches on either side of the leak area
Retorque all fasteners 6 inches on either side of the leak area
To pressure test a repair made on an integral fuel cell, you should use what type of gas?


• Dry air
• Nitrogen
• Helium
• Oxygen
Nitrogen
What is the most commonly used type of self–sealing fuel cells?


• Self–sealing cell (nonstandard construction)
• Rubber–type bladder cell
• Nylon–type bladder cell
• Self–sealing cell (standard construction)
Self–sealing cell (standard construction)
Buna rubber is an artificial substitute for crude or natural rubber. Which of the following types is used as fuel cell inner liner material and is not affected by petroleum fuels?


• Buna R
• Buna L
• Buna N
• Buna S
Buna N
Which of the following airframe structural members is designed to stiffen the skin and aid in maintaining the contour of the structure?


• Spars
• Stringers
• Ribs
• Bulkheads
Stringers
What term refers to small surface fissures that develop on plastic materials?


• Glazing
• Cracking
• Hazing
• Crazing
Crazing
By sanding or buffing a plastic surface too long or too vigorously in one spot, you can cause which of the following problems?


• Discoloration or hazing
• Cracking or crazing
• Bleaching or glazing
• Softening or burning
Softening or burning
Which of the following airframe components is the principal chordwise structural member in the wing, stabilizers, and other airfoils?


• Bulkheads
• Spars
• Ribs
• Stringers
Ribs
Which of the following airframe components is a fore–and–aft member of the fuselage or nacelle and is usually continuous across a number of points of support, such as frames?


• Bulkheads
• Stringers
• Ribs
• Longerons
Longerons
When an aircraft skin is being replaced without the use of a template, which of the following methods of marking the new skin should NOT be used to duplicate the rivet holes in the old section?


• A soft pencil
• A scriber
• A transfer punch and hammer
• A hole finder
A scriber
A fuel leak that reappears 30 minutes after it is wiped dry is classified as what category of leakage?


• Slow seep
• Seep
• Running leak
• Heavy seep
Seep
Rain erosion–resistant coating MIL–C–7439, Class II, has an additional surface treatment included in the kit for what purpose?


• To reflect ultraviolet light
• To absorb radar waves
• To minimize radio noise
• To lower its internal working temperature
To minimize radio noise
In an advanced composite material, what is the homogeneous resin binder known as?


• Pulp
• Matrix
• Laminate
• Paste
Matrix
When you mount plastic panels, what is the minimum prescribed thickness for the packing material?


• 1/16 in.
• 3/16 in.
• 1/8 in.
• 1/4 in.
1/16 in.
A reinforced plastic component with a honeycomb core has damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core. What is the preferred method of repair for this component?


• Delaminated ply
• Scarfed
• Plugged
• Stepped
Scarfed
Standard buffing compounds on transparent plastics are usually composed of very fine alumina in combination with which of the following materials?


• Wax, tallow, or grease
• Wax or tallow only
• Wax only
• Tallow only
Wax, tallow, or grease
You are repairing a balsa wood core component. When you use two rows of rivets, the inner patch should overlap the hole in the core by what prescribed amount?


• 3 in.
• 2 in.
• 1 in.
• 4 in.
1 in.
You mixed aliphatic polyurethane paint and did not use it for more than 3 hours. Which of following problems will occur if you try to rethin the paint?


• Orange peel only
• Dry spots or orange peel
• Dry spots only
• Fish eyes
Dry spots or orange peel
When performing a tap test on advanced composite materials, you should use a hammer that weighs about the weight of a U.S. 50–cent coin.


• True
• False
True
Which of the following factors is a disadvantage of advanced composite materials over metals?


• Repair capability
• Corrosion resistance
• Expense of materials
• Weight of the material
Expense of materials
The flashpoints of solvents and resins for composite materials are usually around what minimum temperature?


• 400°F
• 200°F
• 300°F
• 500°F
200°F
Which of the following statements pertaining to aircraft stripping is NOT correct?


• The aircraft should be located outside if possible
• The aircraft's joints or seams in the stripping area should be masked
• The stripper should be applied with fiber brushes
• The stripper should be spread in a thin coat
The stripper should be applied with fiber brushes
After epoxy–polyamide primer is sprayed, it should be allowed to air dry for what minimum amount of time?


• 60 min
• 30 min
• 15 min
• 45 min
60 min
The damage to advanced composite materials may be categorized in which of the following ways?


• Physical or environmental
• Natural
• Organic or physical
• Organic or environmental
Physical or environmental
The scarfed method is normally used to repair small punctures in reinforced plastics up to what maximum dimension?


• 7 or 8 in.
• 3 or 4 in.
• 5 or 6 in.
• 9 or 10 in.
3 or 4 in.
The drill motors used on advanced composite materials should be capable of what maximum speed?


• 5,000 rpm
• 8,000 rpm
• 7,000 rpm
• 6,000 rpm
5,000 rpm
On Navy aircraft, the paint system is identified with a stencil or decal at what location?


• On the right side of the aft fuselage
• On the left side of the upper wing
• On the right side of the upper wing
• On the left side of the aft fuselage
On the right side of the aft fuselage
Paint feathering may be accomplished with all EXCEPT which of the following items?


• 280 grit aluminum oxide cloth
• Flap brush
• 320 grit aluminum oxide cloth
• 240 grit aluminum oxide cloth
240 grit aluminum oxide cloth
Which of the following components of SH–60B aircraft are manufactured from advanced composite materials?


• The scarf joints
• The upper canopies
• The horizontal stabilizers
• The gearboxes
The scarf joints
When using the stepped method to repair ply damage to solid laminates, which of the following procedures should you observe to ensure maximum strength of the repaired area?


• Replace every other piece of damaged Fabric
• Cut the replacement glass fabric pieces to an exact fit with the weave running in the same direction as the existing plies
• Ensure that the replacement pieces are slightly thicker than the existing plies
• Install the replacement pieces with the fabric plies overlapping the existing plies
Cut the replacement glass fabric pieces to an exact fit with the weave running in the same direction as the existing plies
A sandwich construction material is delaminated with facing–to–core voids of less than 2.5 inches in diameter. Which of the following repair methods should you use?


• Inject an expandable forming resin into the drilled holes over the void area with a pressure–type caulking gun
• Inject a nonexpandable forming resin into the drilled holes over the void area with a syringe
• Apply a flush patch by using thick cloth soaked in Thermofoam 706
• Apply a coat of Thermofoam 706 to the surface and cover it with Kraft paper
Inject an expandable forming resin into the drilled holes over the void area with a pressure–type caulking gun
The corners of a rectangular cutout must have what minimum radius?


• 1/2 in.
• 3/8 in.
• 1/4 in.
• 1/8 in.
3/8 in.
When working with advanced composite materials, which of the following personnel hazards should be your principal concern?


• Inhalation of fumes before the matrix has completely cured
• Contact with the dust on your hands
• Inhalation of airborne dust and fibrous particles
• Contact with the matrix on your clothing
Inhalation of airborne dust and fibrous particles
When repairing a puncture in a piece of reinforced plastic using the stepped method, what material should you use to cover the repair area while it cures?


• Petroleum jelly
• Aluminum barrier paper
• Cellophane sheeting
• Graphite grease
Cellophane sheeting
A section of advanced composite material has water trapped in the honeycomb area. This is what class of repairable damage?


• Class VII
• Class VI
• Class V
• Class IV
Class VII
When repairing minor surface damage to reinforced plastics, you should apply which of the following materials to the damaged area?


• One coat of room–temperature paste composed of catalyzed resin and short glass fibers
• One or more coats of room–temperature catalyzed resin
• Three coats of paste composed of catalyzed resin and nylon fibers heated to 137°F
• Two coats of catalyzed resin heated to 112°F
One or more coats of room–temperature catalyzed resin
What ultrasonic NDI inspection method projects a beam of vibrations that travels along or just below the surface of the material?


• Immersion
• Straight beam
• Angle beam
• Surface wave
Surface wave
NDI operators must use the NDI method(s) for which they are certified at least how often?


• Twice a month
• Twice a quarter
• Once a month
• Once a quarter
Twice a month
Which of the following magnetization methods are used in magnetic particle inspections?


• Circular only
• Linear only
• Linear, circular, and longitudinal
• Circular and longitudinal only
Circular and longitudinal only
You are performing a process that consists of inducing a magnetic field into a part and applying magnetic particles in a liquid suspension or dry powder. What type of NDI inspection are you conducting?


• Radiographic
• Eddy current
• Ultrasonic
• Magnetic particle
Magnetic particle
What command has cognizance over the NDI program?


• NADOC
• NAESU
• NAVAIR
• NADEP
NAVAIR
The particles used in magnetic particle testing must possess which of the following qualities?


• Low permeability and high retentivity
• High permeability and high retentivity
• High permeability and low retentivity
• Low permeability and low retentivity
High permeability and low retentivity
To magnetize both the inside and outside of parts that are hollow or tubelike, you should place them on a copper bar and pass current through them.


• True
• False
True
What type of sealing compound MIL–S–81733, is applied with a spray gun?


• Type IV
• Type I
• Type II
• Type III
Type III
Ultrasonic NDI inspection information is displayed by what means?


• Cathode–ray tube screen
• Cassette tape recorder
• Photographic film
• Video tape
Cathode–ray tube screen
If the whole body of a person is exposed to a very large dose of radiation, what would most likely be the result?


• Leukemia
• Cancer
• Death
• Skin damage
Death
What manual covers the theory and general applications of various methods of NDI?


• NAVAIR 01–1A–16
• NAVAIR 01–1A–12
• NAVAIR 01–1A–17
• NAVAIR 01–1A–20
NAVAIR 01–1A–16
To obtain excellent adhesion, elastomeric rain erosion–resistant coating, MIL–C–7439, should be allowed to dry for what minimum number of days?


• 6 days
• 7 days
• 8 days
• 5 days
5 days
When you lay out the blue border that outlines the entire design of the national insignia, the border should be what fractional part of the radius of the blue circle in width?


• 1/8
• 1/16
• 3/16
• ¼
1/8
Which of the following spray gun problems causes dusting?


• Excessive fluid pressure
• Excessive air pressure
• Insufficient fluid pressure
• Insufficient air pressure
Excessive air pressure
Currently active NDI technicians are required to be recertified at least how often?


• Every 3 years
• Every 4 years
• Every 2 years
• Every 5 years
Every 3 years
You should apply a sealant to a faying surface by what method?


• A spatula
• Injection
• Spraying
• A brush
A brush
Aircraft controlling custodians have all EXCEPT which of the following NDI program responsibilities?


• Designating an NDI program manager
• Ensuring that NDI equipment, laboratories, and personnel are audited as required
• Designating NDI specialist as required
• Providing NDI training for NADEPs as requested
Providing NDI training for NADEPs as requested
Concerning a radiographic NDI inspection, all EXCEPT which of the following statements are correct?


• It can be used on nonmetallic materials
• It should only be used on items that are accessible or favorably oriented
• It is the least sensitive method of crack detection
• It is one of the most expensive
It can be used on nonmetallic materials
The detection of flaws or defects in material with a high degree of accuracy and reliability by the use of NDI methods depends primarily on which of the following factors?


• The availability of a large and well–equipped facility
• The detection method used
• The availability of a trained and experienced technician
• The type of material being inspected
The availability of a trained and experienced technician
The epoxy–polyamide topcoat is mixed in what ratio of (a) pigmented component to (b) clear resin?


• (a) One (b) two
• (a) Two (b) one
• (a) Two (b) three
• (a) One (b) one
(a) One (b) one
When spraying epoxy–polyamide and polyurethane finishes, you should hold the gun at what prescribed distance from the work?


• 10 to 14 in.
• 4 to 8 in.
• 6 to 10 in.
• 8 to 12 in.
6 to 10 in.
Which of the following types of sealants set and cure by evaporation of the solvent?


• Flexible sealants
• Drying sealants
• Pliable sealants
• Curing sealants
Drying sealants
Prior to use, what component of a spray gun should be removed and treated with oil?


• The air valve packing
• The fluid needle spring
• The fluid needle packing
• The trigger bearing screw
The fluid needle packing
What type of eddy current probe or coil is used on plates, sheets, or irregular–shaped parts?


• Inside probe
• Bobbin–type coil
• Surface probe
• Encircling coil
Surface probe
A pressure–feed spray gun is designed to operate at (a) what fluid volume and (b) what air pressure?


• (a) High (b) high
• (a) High (b) low
• (a) Low (b) low
• (a) Low (b) high
(a) High (b) low
You should use water–cooled GTA welding torches when welding with current above what prescribed amperage?


• 100 amp
• 50 amp
• 200 amp
• 150 amp
200 amp
In the GTA welding process, the greatest concentration of heat at the electrode results from what arrangement of (a) current and (b) polarity?


• (a) ac (b) reverse
• (a) ac (b) straight
• (a) dc (b) straight
• (a) dc (b) reverse
(a) dc (b) reverse
Which of the following weld joints is made by welding two or more parallel members?


• Edge
• Tee
• Butt
• Corner
Edge
What type of flame should you use when welding bronze with an oxyacetylene welding rig?


• Neutral
• Carburizing
• Oxidizing
• Nitrating
Oxidizing
When you are GMA welding with a constant–voltage power source, what condition will occur as a result of any changes in the length of the welding arc?


• The welding current will automatically change
• The wire driven mechanism will automatically adjust the feed speed
• The shielding gases will automatically shut off
• The welding gun will automatically stop delivering the electrode until the problem has been resolved
The wire driven mechanism will automatically adjust the feed speed
In the GMA welding process, what factor determines the melting rate of the filler wire?


• The size of the area to be welded
• The level of the welding current
• The diameter of the filler wire
• The speed rate of the welder
The level of the welding current
Which of the following weld joints is made by joining two pieces of material edge to edge without any overlapping?


• Tee
• Edge
• Butt
• Corner
Butt
Which of the following weld joints is made by joining two members located approximately at right angles to each other?


• Corner
• Butt
• Edge
• Tee
Corner
On a single–stage oxygen regulator, the outlet pressure gauge provides what indication?


• The working pressure
• The amount of oxygen in the cylinder
• The mixing ratio of the gases
• The amount of acetylene in the cylinder
The working pressure
The groups of metals for which separate and distinct welding certifications are required are specified in what manual?


• NAVAIR 01–1A–12
• NAVAIR 01–1A–34
• NAVAIR 01–1A–16
• NAVAIR 01–1A–11
NAVAIR 01–1A–12
In the oxyacetylene gas welding process, the welding torch is used for which of the following purposes?


• To provide a clamping device for the gas tubes and rods
• To direct the flame against the metal and mix the gases in proper proportions
• To direct the flame against the metal only
• To mix the gases in proper proportions only
To mix the gases in proper proportions only
Training programs and testing facilities for those personnel desiring to qualify as aircraft welders are available at which of the following activities?


• NAESU
• NATTC
• NADEP
• NADOC
NADEP
Which of the following statements pertaining to oxygen is NOT correct?


• It is colorless
• It is flammable
• It is tasteless
• It is heavier than air
It is flammable
When burned with oxygen, acetylene produces a flame in what temperature range?


• 5,700 to 6,300°F
• 2,850 to 4,500°F
• 1,200 to 3,300°F
• 6,150 to 7,500°F
5,700 to 6,300°F
What is the most popular gas used in the GTA welding process?


• Argon
• Hydrogen
• Nitrogen
• Radon
Argon
If you light the acetylene only on an oxyacetylene welding torch, the flame will be what color?


• Blue
• Yellow
• Orange
• Red
Blue
The developer used in a dye penetrant NDI inspection serves what purpose?


• It helps draw any trapped penetrant from the discontinuities
• It aids the penetrant in filling any discontinuities that are below the surface of the material
• It speeds the drying of the penetrant
• It neutralizes the dye
It helps draw any trapped penetrant from the discontinuities
When torch welding, you should hold the white cone of the flame at what prescribed distance from the surface of the metal?


• 1/2 in.
• 1/8 in.
• 3/8 in.
• 1/4 in.
1/8 in.
A torch flashback can be caused by all EXCEPT which of the following factors?


• Loose connection
• Touching the tip of the torch against the Work
• Overheating of the torch
• Improper pressures
Improper pressures
To strike the arc using an ac GTA welding machine, you should angle the end of the torch toward the work so that the electrode is at what prescribed distance above the plate?


• 1/4 in.
• 1/2 in.
• 1/8 in.
• 3/8 in.
1/8 in.
On oxyacetylene welding equipment, what color and thread type identifies the (a) oxygen hose and (b) acetylene hose?


• (a) Red with left–handed threads (b) Black with right–handed threads
• (a) Green with left–handed threads (b) Red with right–handed threads
• (a) Black with right–handed threads b) Green with left–handed threads
• (a) Green with right–handed threads (b) Red with left–handed threads
(a) Green with right–handed threads (b) Red with left–handed threads
The oxygen pressure is much higher than the acetylene pressure in what type of oxyacetylene welding torch?


• The high–pressure type
• The injector type
• The jet type
• The equal–pressure type
The injector type
What welding method should you use when welding material more than 1/8–inch thick?


• Forehand
• Puddle
• Backhand
• Ripple
Puddle
In the GMA welding process, what type of shielding gas is preferred for welding thick materials?


• Argon
• Hydrogen
• Neon
• Helium
Helium
Which of the following weld joints is made by welding two plates whose surfaces are 90° of each other at the joint?


• Corner
• Edge
• Butt
• Tee
Tee
When a nonferrous part is quenched, what is the maximum recommended time between the part's removal from the heat and immersion?


• 15 sec
• 25 sec
• 20 sec
• 10 sec
10 sec
When water is used as a quenching medium for steel, the water bath should be held at what prescribed temperature?


• 55°F
• 48°F
• 65°F
• 32°F
65°F
Which of the following conditions is a major cause for rejection or failure of aircraft wheels?


• Blowouts
• Normal wear
• Loss of lubrication
• Crashes
Loss of lubrication
What color is steel at 1,825°F?


• Light lemon
• Orange
• Salmon
• Lemon
Lemon
After welding a ferrous metal, you should use the normalizing process of heat treatment for what reason?


• To reduce its carbon content
• To make it harder
• To induce internal stresses
• To remove all strains
To remove all strains
What prescribed temperature is required for nitriding steel parts?


• 950°F
• 1,300°F
• 1,150°F
• 1,400°F
950°F
The heat–treatment cycle includes all EXCEPT which of the following events?


• Soaking
• Cooling
• Misting
• Heating
Misting
In the heat–treatment process of steel, the element that normally has the greatest influence is carbon.


• True
• False
False
Which of the following heat–treatment processes is used to relieve the strains induced during hardening?


• Normalizing
• Case hardening
• Tempering
• Annealing
Tempering
Which of the following components have been installed on the aircraft wheels to allow the attachment of braking components?


• The fusible plug
• The drive keys
• The demountable flange lock
• The bearing cups
The drive keys
Which of the following carburizing methods produces only a thin case?


• Gaseous
• Nitriding
• Pack
• Cyaniding
Cyaniding
The flange of a demountable flange wheel is held in place by what component?


• Locknut
• Locking pin
• Lockring
• Locking key
Lockring
What term refers to metals with iron bases?


• Alloy
• Nonferrous
• Ferrous
• Ironic
Ferrous
Which of the following heat–treatment processes is used for parts that require a wear–resistant surface?


• Tempering
• Normalizing
• Annealing
• Case hardening
Case hardening
At ordinary temperatures, the carbon in steel exists in the form of iron carbide particles. These particles are known by what name?


• Cordite
• Ferrite
• Austenite
• Pearlite
Austenite
In the GMA welding process, what basic welding position is preferred for most joints because it improves the molten metal flow, bead contour, and gives better gas protection?


• Vertical
• Overhead
• Flat
• Horizontal
Flat
Which of the following metals is used to make aircraft wheel assemblies?


• Steel
• Titanium
• Magnesium
• Manganese
Magnesium
What is the minimum length of the stem of a deflated tire tag that is inserted into the valve stem of the wheel assembly?


• 5/8 inch
• 1/2 inch
• 1/8 inch
• 3/4 inch
3/4 inch
Aluminum alloys are heated by which of the following methods?


• A molten salt bath or an electric furnace
• A molten salt bath only
• An electric furnace only
• An air furnace
A molten salt bath or an electric furnace
Which of the following heat–treatment processes is used to reduce residual stresses or induce softness?


• Tempering
• Case hardening
• Normalizing
• Annealing
Annealing
Aircraft bearings should be cleaned with what type of solvent?


• Fuel
• Freon
• P–D–680
• Naphtha
P–D–680
When annealing an aluminum part in a salt bath, you should use equal parts of which of the following chemicals?


• Potassium nitrate and sodium nitrate
• Epsom salt and sodium nitrate
• Epsom salt and silver nitrate
• Potassium nitrate and baking soda
Potassium nitrate and sodium nitrate
When steel parts have an uneven cross section, what factor determines the soaking period?


• Its lightest section
• Its heaviest section
• Its overall length and width
• Its total weight
Its heaviest section
What tool is used to remove the valve core and deflate an installed wheel assembly prior to any maintenance being performed?


• Safe–Core valve tool
• Scribe
• 3/8 in. socket
• Needle nose pliers
Safe–Core valve tool
For safety purposes, when welding cables must reach some distance from the machine, you should run the cables overhead, if possible.


• True
• False
True
An outer layer of rubber adjoining the tread and extending to the bead is know by what term?

• Plies
• Tread
• Sidewall
• Cord body
Sidewall
You have inflated a tube–type tire to its maximum operating pressure. The tire must remain at this pressure for what minimum length of time before you check it for a pressure loss?

• 15 min
• 20 min
• 5 min
• 10 min
10 min
Which of the following publications will give detailed information on wheel bearing maintenance?

• NAVAIR 01–1A–8
• NAVAIR 01–1A–503
• NAVAIR 04–10–1
• NAVAIR 04–1–506
NAVAIR 01–1A–503
The remote tire inflator assembly should be calibrated upon initial receipt, before being placed into service, and at what other maximum interval?

• Every 6 months
• Every 3 months
• Every month
• Every 2 months
Every 6 months
What is the maximum allowable tread wear for tires without wear depth indicators?

• When the tread pattern is worn to the bottom of the tread groove at any one spot
• When 3 layers of cord are exposed at any one spot
• When there is 1/16 inch of tread left
• When the tire is worn completely smooth
When the tread pattern is worn to the bottom of the tread groove at any one spot
Before disassembling a wheel assembly, what is the first thing you should do?

• Break the tire bead
• Check the tire for cuts
• Remove the wheel flange
• Ensure the tire is completely deflated
Ensure the tire is completely deflated
What size magnifier is used to perform a visual inspection of bearings, bearing retainers, and bearing cups?

• 8X
• 10X
• 5X
• 12X
10X
The slippage marks on an aircraft tire should be inspected for slippage on the rim at what maximum interval?

• After 10 flights
• Once a month
• After every flight
• Once a week
After every flight
A tire and wheel assembly should be removed from an aircraft and sent to AIMD if it shows a repeated pressure loss exceeding what prescribed percent of the correct operating inflation pressure?

• 15 %
• 10 %
• 5 %
• 2 %
5 %
A defect in a wheel rim is NOT considered significant unless it is deeper than what prescribed depth?

• 0.017 in.
• 0.015 in.
• 0.010 in.
• 0.020 in.
0.010 in.
What color dots mark vent holes on tubeless tires?

• Green
• Orange
• White
• Red
Green
What procedure should you use to identify a tubeless tire?

• Check to make sure the manufacture's mold number is preceded with the letterX
• Check to make sure the word "tubeless" is stamped on the sidewall
• Check the inside of the tire for an orange mark
• Check the tire's serial number with the list of tubeless tire serial numbers
Check to make sure the word "tubeless" is stamped on the sidewall
Each rebuilt tire receives a final nondestructive inspection by the use of what method?

• Penetrating radiation
• Visual
• Laser beam optical holographic
• Electromagnetic
Laser beam optical holographic
Before inserting an inner tube into a tire, you should sprinkle it with which of the following substances?

• Water
• Flour
• Talcum powder
• Cornstarch
Talcum powder
What total number of times has this tire been rebuilt?

• Five
• Four
• One
• Two
One
Multiple layers of nylon with individual cords arranged parallel to each other is know by what term?

• Plies
• Bead
• Undertread
• Cord body
Cord body
Which of the following tread patterns or designs is NOT used on naval aircraft?

• Plain
• Nonskid
• Ribbed
• Twisted
Twisted
The layer of rubber on the outer surface of the tire that protects the cord body from abrasions, cuts, bruises, and moisture is know by what term?

• Undertread
• Tread
• Sidewall
• Chafer strips
Tread
What is the dimension of the red slippage mark painted on a tube tire that operates with less than 150 psi?

• 2 inches wide and 2 inches long
• 1/2 inch wide and 2 inches long
• 1 inch wide and 1 1/2 inches long
• 1 inch wide and 2 inches long
1 inch wide and 2 inches long
The inner tube of a tube–type aircraft tire may be reused if it is in good condition and less than what total number of years old?

• 5
• 7
• 6
• 8
5
Information on cleaning aircraft wheels can be found in which of the following publications?

• NAVAIR 04–10–506
• NAVAIR 04–10–1
• NAVAIR 04–10–508
• NAVAIR 01–1A–1
NAVAIR 04–10–1
What is the ply rating of the tire shown?

• 45
• 43
• 26
• 38
26
Which of the following tire bead–breaking machines is intended for use at shore–based facilities?

• Lee–X
• Lee–I
• Lee–II
• Lee–IX
Lee–I
What is the maximum depression allowable in the eutectic material at the threaded end of a fuse plug?

• 1/8 inch
• 1/4 inch
• 1/32 inch
• 1/16 inch
1/16 inch
What is the outside diameter of the tire shown?
• 26 in.
• 30 in.
• 11.5 in.
• 14.5 in.
26 in.
Which of the following lubricants is NOT approved for O–ring seals?

• MIL–G–81322
• MIL–H–46170
• MIL–H–83282
• VV–L–800
VV–L–800
Rapid wear of the center of the tread of a tire is an indication of what problem?

• Misalignment
• Overinflation
• Out–of–balance
• Underinflation
Overinflation
Which of the following types of hydraulic fluids is used primarily for preservation?

• MIL–H–5606
• MIL–H–83282
• MIL–H–81019
• MIL–H–46170
MIL–H–46170
Hydraulic system fluid analysis is NOT required in which of the following situations?

• When the aircraft has flown two flights in less than 12 hours
• When the system is subjected to excessive heat
• When a pump fails
• When extensive maintenance has occurred
When the aircraft has flown two flights in less than 12 hours
Rapid and uneven wear at the outer edges of a tire is and indication of what problem?

• Misalignment
• Overinflation
• Out–of–balance
• Underinflation
Underinflation
Chlorinated solvents will hydrolyze to form hydrochloric acids when allowed to combine with minute amounts of which of the following substances?

• Water
• Oil
• Fuel
• Oxygen
Water
Most of the metallic solid contamination is caused by which of the following hydraulic components?

• Hoses
• Actuators
• Pumps
• Reservoirs
Pumps
What is the maximum acceptable Navy Standard Class hydraulic fluid particulate level for (a) naval aircraft and (b) support equipment?

• (a) 3 (b) 3
• (a) 3 (b) 5
• (a) 5 (b) 5
• (a) 5 (b) 3
(a) 5 (b) 3
How are tire valve cores designed for aircraft uses identified?

• Slot in the head of the valve core
• Valve core is blue in color
• "H" on the head of the valve core
• "A" on the head of the valve core
Slot in the head of the valve core
What is the principal hydraulic fluid used in military aircraft?

• MIL–H–5606
• MIL–H–83282
• MIL–H–81019
• MIL–H–46170
MIL–H–83282
During tire inflation, the setting on the pressure regulator should NEVER exceed what pressure?

• 800 psi
• 600 psi
• 500 psi
• 700 psi
500 psi
What type of aircraft tubes have radial vent ridges molded on the surface?

• Type III and type VII
• Type IV and VII
• Type III only
• Type VII only
Type III and type VII
On a dual–wheel installation where the tire has an outside diameter of 35 inches, what is the maximum difference allowed in the outside diameter of the tires?

• 9/16 in.
• 5/16 in.
• 7/16 in.
• 3/8 in.
3/8 in.
Which of the following types of hydraulic fluids is used in extremely low temperatures?

• MIL–H–81019
• MIL–H–83282
• MIL–H–5606
• MIL–H–46170
MIL–H–83282
How long is the service hose on the remote inflator assembly?

• 8 ft
• 15 ft
• 10 ft
• 20 ft
10 ft
Aircraft tires are inflated to what pressure for storage?

• 50 percent of operating pressure
• 50 percent of operating pressure or 100 psi, whichever is less
• Operating pressure or 100 psi, whichever is less
• 100 psi
100 psi
When hydraulic system fluid is lost to the point that the hydraulic pump runs dry or cavitates, you should take what action?

• Change the defective pump, change all filter elements, and decontaminate as required
• Change the defective pump and filter elements, and purge the system
• Change the defective pump and flush the system
• Change the defective pump, check the filter elements, and decontaminate as required
Change the defective pump, check the filter elements, and decontaminate as required
What condition code is put on tires that are potentially rebuildable?

• "F" (BCM–9)
• "F" (BCM–1)
• "H" (BCM–1)
• "H" (BCM–9)
"H" (BCM–1)
How high above the maximum required pressure should the remote inflator assembly relief valve be set?

• 10 psi
• 20 psi
• 10 %
• 20 %
20 psi
Which of the following discrepancies would NOT classify an inner tube nonrepairable?

• A valve stem that is pulled out of the fabric base
• A cut that completely penetrates the tube
• A replaceable leaking valve core
• Severe surface cracking
A replaceable leaking valve core
What solution should you use to clean oil or grease from a tire?

• Kerosene
• Jet fuel
• P–D–680
• Soap and water
Soap and water
A spongy response during hydraulic system operation would normally be caused by what type of contamination?

• Particulate
• Water
• Inorganic
• Air
Air
The inorganic solid hydraulic system contamination group includes which of the following contaminates?

• Silicates only
• Dust only
• Dust, silicates, and paint particles
• Paint particles only
Dust, silicates, and paint particles
Organic contamination is produced by all EXCEPT which of the following processes?

• Glass bead peening
• Polymerization
• Wear
• Oxidation
Glass bead peening
Aircraft tubes being stored, should be marked with what information?
• Size, type, cure date, and stock number
• Size and type only
• Size, type, and stock number only
• Size, type, cure date, and aircraft model
Size, type, cure date, and stock number
The purpose of quick–disconnect couplings is to provide a means of quickly disconnecting a line without having to contend with which of the following problems?

• Loss of hydraulic fluid or entrance of air into the system
• Loss of hydraulic fluid only
• Entrance of air into the system only
• System pressure surges
Loss of hydraulic fluid or entrance of air into the system
If the hydraulic test filter displays a rust color, what color contamination standards should you use for comparison?

• Silica
• Gray
• Tan
• Rust
Tan
O–ring age is computed by what means?

• From the service life
• From the replacement schedule
• From the operational conditions
• From the cure date
From the cure date
Which of the following authorities is required to recommend and supervisor and aircraft hydraulic system purging?

• The maintenance officer
• The commanding officer
• The functional wing commander
• The cognizant engineering activity
The cognizant engineering activity
What should you do with O–rings that have colored markings, such as dots, dashes, and stripes?

• Use them only in an emergency when no other O–ring is available
• Do not use them and purge them from the supply system
• Use them only in systems operating below 1500 psi
• Continue to use them until supply is exhausted
Do not use them and purge them from the supply system
What O–rings are replacing the AN6290 O–ring?

• MS28775
• MS28695
• MS28778
• MS28920
MS28778
What O–rings are replacing the AN6227 and AN230 O–rings?

• AN6290 O–rings
• MS28778 O–rings
• MS28775 O–rings
• MS28777 O–rings
MS28775 O–rings
You should perform a hydraulic fluid patch test from what system component to determine when system flushing is complete?

• System reservoir fluid
• System return line fluid
• Test stand reservoir fluid
• System pressure line fluid
System reservoir fluid
Which, if any, of the following types of quick–disconnect couplings allows the use of a wrench to assist in tightening the coupler?

• Series 3200 quick–disconnects
• All series 145 and 155 quick–disconnects
• Modified series 145 and 155 quick–disconnects only
• None of the above
None of the above
When an O–ring installation requires spanning or inserting through sharp threaded areas, ridges, slots, and edges, which of the following devices or procedures should you use?

• O–ring expanders
• Light coating of the threads with MIL–S–8802
• A rolling motion of the O–ring
• O–ring entering sleeves
O–ring entering sleeves
Which of the following materials should NOT be used to fabricate tools for use in replacing and installing O–rings and backup rings?

• Steel
• Brass
• Wood
• Phenolic rod
Steel
When a hydraulic system is purified, the fluid going to the purification tower is first filtered by what size filter?

• 5 micron
• 25 micron
• 3 micron
• 15 micron
25 micron
A hydraulic oil cooler leak would cause which of the following types of contamination?

• Air
• Foreign fluid
• Nonmetallic solid
• Particulate
Foreign fluid
You are processing a fluid sample and you have poured the hydraulic fluid from the graduate into the funnel. What total amount of solvent should you pour into the graduate?

• 50 ml
• 100 ml
• 15 ml
• 120 ml
15 ml
What is the purpose of the contamination control sequence chart?

• Guide for managing the contamination control program
• Guide for performing hydraulic fluid patch tests
• Guide for decontaminating naval aircraft only
• Guide for decontaminating naval aircraft and support equipment
Guide for decontaminating naval aircraft and support equipment
An electronic particle count analysis of hydraulic fluid will NOT be affected by particles smaller than what size?

• 15 microns
• 5 microns
• 35 microns
• 25 microns
5 microns
When processing a hydraulic fluid sample, you must use what type of filter?

• Single 47–mm test filter
• Double 20–mm test filter
• double 47–mm test filter
• Single 20–mm test filter
Single 47–mm test filter
The hydraulic seal used between non–moving fittings and bosses are known by which of the following terms?

• O–rings
• Packings
• Gaskets
• Backup rings
Gaskets
Test stands used for hydraulic system flushing must have an internal reservoir that holds what minimum number of gallons of hydraulic fluid?

• 10 gal.
• 16 gal.
• 20 gal.
• 14 gal.
16 gal.
The protruding nose of the series 145 and 155 (Aeroquip) coupling S4 half engages with what component to provide a positive seal?

• O–ring
• Sleeve
• Poppet valve
• Tubular valve
Tubular valve
Aircraft filter assemblies are sampled by removing the filter bowl and transferring what fluid contents to a clean sample bottle?

• Filter bowl only
• Filter element only
• Filter element or filter bowl
• Filter element and filter bowl
Filter element and filter bowl
Before you sample support equipment hydraulic systems, the fluid must be recirculated at full flow rate a minimum of how many minutes?

• 5 min
• 15 min
• 10 min
• 20 min
5 min
What method should you use to inspect the inner diameter of an O–ring for cracks?

• Stretch it between two fingers and visually examine it
• Perform NDI
• Roll it onto an inspection cone or dowel
• Use a small mirror
Roll it onto an inspection cone or dowel
What half of a series 145 or series 155 (Aeroquip) coupling has mounting flanges used for attaching them to a bulkhead or other structural member of the aircraft?

• S1
• S2
• S3
• S4
S4
The halogen leak detector is powered by what source of energy?
• Solar
• Battery
• 110 volts AC
• 220 volts AC
Battery
The sight gauge on the HSU–1 servicing unit reads from zero to how many gallons?

• 1 gallon
• 5 gallons
• 3 gallons
• 2 gallons
2 gallons
Where is the filter located on the HSU–1 servicing unit?

• Below the lower piercing unit
• Inside the reservoir
• Above the top piercing unit
• At the pump base
At the pump base
Teflon® backup rings are identified by which of the following means?

• Color coding
• Package labels
• Coded symbols
• Visual appearance
Package labels
Other than filtration, what other function does the 3–micron, in–line filter on the service hose of a H–250–1 unit perform?

• Prevents reverse flow
• Restrictor valve
• Two way check valve
Prevents reverse flow
What type of pump is on the HSU–1 servicing unit?

• Single–action, piston air pump
• Single–action, piston hand pump
• Double–action, piston air pump
• Double–action, piston hand pump
Single–action, piston hand pump
What size fluid container does the Model 310 fluid servicing unit incorporate?

• 10 gallons
• 3 gallons
• 5 gallons
• 8 gallons
10 gallons
What component of the Model 310 fluid servicing unit removes free air present in the fluid?

• Lower vent valve
• Air trap
• Air relief valve
• Upper vent valve
Air trap
What component of the Model 310 fluid servicing unit prevents the unit from being operated unless there is a filter installed?

• Two–way restrictor valve
• Check valve
• Air vent valve
• One–way restrictor valve
Check valve
The integral reservoir on the HSU–1 servicing unit is constructed from what type of material?

• Composite graphite
• Iron
• Cast aluminum
• Stainless steel
Cast aluminum
A metallic wiper is installed in what position?

• The groove facing outward
• The lip facing inward
• The lip facing outward
• The groove facing inward
The lip facing outward
What is the length of the service hose on a HSU–1 servicing unit?

• 5 ft
• 10 ft
• 7 ft
• 8 ft
7 ft
What type of filter is incorporated in the HSU–1 servicing unit?

• 3–micron, cleanable filter
• 3–micron, disposable filter
• 3–micron (absolute) cleanable filter
• 3–micron (absolute) disposable filter
3–micron (absolute) disposable filter
What component of the H–250–1 servicing unit minimizes airborne particulates and moisture contamination?

• Check valve
• 3 micron filter
• 5 micron filter
• Hand pump restrictor
Check valve
What is the maximum fluid holding capacity of the HSU–1 fluid servicing unit?

• 4 gallons
• 2 gallons
• 1 gallon
• 3 gallons
2 gallons
The H–250–1 hydraulic servicing unit is equipped with what size service hose?

• 5 ft
• 8 ft
• 7 ft
• 6 ft
8 ft
All hydraulic fluid servicing units must be equipped with what type of filtration?

• 5 micron
• 3 micron
• 5 micron (absolute)
• 3 micron (absolute)
3 micron (absolute)
What are the two types of backup rings used in naval aircraft?

• Teflon® single and double spiral
• O–ring and V–ring
• Flat and parallel
• Leather and polyvinyl
Teflon® single and double spiral
You have spilled hydraulic fluid on an aircraft after servicing it. It must be cleaned with approved wiping materials and with what other cleaning material?

• Soap and water
• Mineral spirits
• Air
• Dry–cleaning solvent
Mineral spirits
What is the fluid holding capacity of a Model H–250–1 servicing unit?

• 5 gallons
• 2 gallons
• 1 gallon
• 3 gallons
1 gallon
When you install Teflon® spiral rings in an internal groove, you must use what type of spiral?

• Double clockwise
• Double counterclockwise
• Right–hand
• Left–hand
Right–hand
The Model 310 fluid servicing unit uses what type of pump?

• Double–action hand pump
• Constant–displacement, motor–driven pump
• Single–action hand pump
• Variable–displacement, motor–driven pump
Single–action hand pump
Which of the following protective closures are approved for sealing hydraulic equipment?

• Plastic caps and plugs
• Rubber caps and plugs
• Paper caps and plugs
• Metal caps and plugs
Metal caps and plugs
A vent hose is connected on the HSU–1 servicing unit from the top of the reservoir and what other location?

• Base of the unit
• Bottom of the reservoir
• Vent check valve
• Upper can piercer
Upper can piercer
What is the specific shelf life, if any, of Teflon® backup rings?
• 3 years
• 1 year
• They have no shelf life
• 2 years
They have no shelf life
With every full stroke of the pump, the HSU–1 will deliver what quantity of fluid?
• 2.0 fluid ounces
• 1.5 fluid ounces
• 3.0 fluid ounces
• 4.0 fluid ounces
1.5 fluid ounces
How many gpm does the pressure outlet flowmeter on the A/M27T–5 unit indicate?

• 2 to 30 gpm
• 2 to 50 gpm
• 2 to 10 gpm
• 2 to 15 gpm
2 to 15 gpm
If the manifold of a portable test stand is equipped with a shutoff valve, what position must the valve be in prior to starting the unit?

• Close
• Open
• Normal
• Off
Close
What publication covers detailed information on the A/M27T–5?

• NA 17–15BF–93
• NA 17–15BF–89
• NA 17–15BF–91
• NA 17–15BF–95
NA 17–15BF–89
What is the recommended minimum inside bend radius for a 1–inch test stand hose?

• 5.90
• 4.30
• 7.31
• 5.37
5.90
At what psi does the A/M27T–5 provide a flow rate of 24 gpm?

• 2,000 psi
• 1,000 psi
• 3,000 psi
• 4,000 psi
3,000 psi
When using a portable hydraulic test stand on an aircraft in test stand mode, you must adjust the backpressure reducing valve to what pressure?

• Half the normal aircraft reservoir pressure
• Normal system operating pressure
• Half the normal system operating pressure
• Normal aircraft reservoir pressure
Normal aircraft reservoir pressure
What is the type equipment code (TEC) for the A/M27T–7 unit?

• GCAA
• GJCA
• GGJZ
• GGJV
GGJV
What is the type equipment code (TEC) for the A/M27T–5 unit?

• GGJV
• GGJZ
• GJCA
• GCAA
GGJZ
The fluid temperature warning light on the A/M27T–5 unit will illuminate at what temperature?

• 180°F
• 200°F
• 160°F
• 120°F
160°F
You can accomplish simultaneous multisystem operational checks on an aircraft by using which of the following methods?

• By attaching a T–fitting between the aircraft system's main selector valve
• By using a separate hydraulic test stand for each aircraft system only
• By manifolding two or more aircraft systems to a common test stand only
• Both 2 and 3 above
By using a separate hydraulic test stand for each aircraft system only
Portable hydraulic test stands must be allowed to recirculation clean for how long prior to using the unit?

• 1 to 2 minutes
• 8 to 10 minutes
• 5 to 7 minutes
• 3 to 5 minutes
3 to 5 minutes
When you are using a portable hydraulic test stand during an aircraft operation, the bypass control should be in what position?

• Half opened
• Fully closed
• Adjusted to the operating pressure
• Fully opened
Fully closed
What is the normal fluid operating temperature on a portable hydraulic test stand?

• 95°
• 100°
• 85°
• 75°
85°
What is the range of the fluid temperature gauge on the A/M27T–5 unit?

• 20° to 220°
• 20° to 150°
• 10° to 100°
• 20° to 175°
20° to 220°
What company manufactures the portable Hydraulic Test Stand A/M27T–5?

• Janke and Company, Inc.
• Dynacorp, Inc.
• General Dynamics, Inc.
• Teledyne Sprague Engineering
Janke and Company, Inc.
What is the recommended minimum inside bend radius for a 1/2–inch test stand hose?

• 5.37
• 5.90
• 4.30
• 2.30
2.30
The A/M27T–5 portable hydraulic test stand is replacing what other test stand?

• A/M27T–3
• AHT–64
• A/M27T–7
• AHT–63
AHT–64
When operating a portable hydraulic test stand on an aircraft system, you should use the test stand reservoir mode whenever possible for what reason?

• This mode allows the test stand reservoir supply valve to remain open, allowing greater backpressure in the return system
• This mode eliminates the possibility of aircraft pump cavitation
• This mode ensures positive flow to the aircraft pump
• This mode enables aircraft fluid deaeration during system operation
This mode enables aircraft fluid deaeration during system operation
During normal operation of a portable hydraulic test stand, an engine part fails. What procedure should you follow?

• Reduce the pressure slowly
• Turn off electrical power
• Reduce the pressure rapidly
• Stop the engine
Stop the engine
On the A/M27T–5, the S2 switch will close when the pressure between the high pressure filter inlet and outlet port is different by how much psi?

• 75 psi
• 50 psi
• 25 psi
• 100 psi
100 psi
Other than a loaded filter, what will cause a pressure differential indicator (PDI) on a filter assembly to pop up?

• Low fluid level
• Cold weather starting
• A new filter
• Hot weather starting
Cold weather starting
Other than providing external hydraulic power to an aircraft, a portable hydraulic test stand also serves as the primary means of aircraft decontamination.

• True
• False
True
During shutdown, before the throttle of an engine–driven portable hydraulic test stand is pushed completely closed, the engine should run at 100 rpm for approximately how many minutes?

• 12 min
• 10 min
• 1 min
• 5 min
5 min
What action must you take if a pressure differential indicator pops up on a portable hydraulic test stand after you have reset the indicator?

• Reset the indicator again
• Turn in the equipment to the supporting Activity
• Remove and replace the filter
• Check the fluid level
Turn in the equipment to the supporting Activity
What is the range of the head temperature gauge on the A/M27T–5 unit?

• 350° to 500°
• 50° to 100°
• 250° to 350°
• 100° to 250°
100° to 250°
When free air enters a fluid at a very high rate, the rapid collapse of bubbles generates extremely high local fluid velocities that are converted into impact pressure. What is this phenomenon known as?

• Cavitation
• Modulation
• Consumption
• Starvation
Cavitation
Where should an identification tag be placed on a locally manufactured hose assembly?

• Directly following the end fitting
• Not less than 1/2 inch from the end fitting
• 1/4 inch from the end
• In the middle of the hose
Not less than 1/2 inch from the end fitting
What part of a hose fitting fits the inside diameter of a hose?

• Sleeve
• Flange
• Socket
• Nipple
Nipple
What style of fittings is authorized as replacement fittings for replacement hose assemblies?

• Crimp style
• Swage style
• Reusable style
• Flared style
Reusable style
Fabrication of hoses is the function of what maintenance level?

• Intermediate
• Intermediate and Depot
• Organizational
• Depot
Intermediate and Depot
Before connecting a portable hydraulic test stand to an aircraft system, what two tasks must you ?

• Service the reservoir and set parking brake
• Service reservoir and take a hydraulic sample
• Set parking brake and apply electrical power
• Recirculation clean the unit and take a hydraulic sample
Recirculation clean the unit and take a hydraulic sample
What are the two methods used to secure a hose fitting on a hose?

• Flareless and reusable
• Flared and crimp
• Reusable and crimp
• Flared and flareless
Reusable and crimp
When the hydraulic fluid of SE contains a substance not readily removed by the internal filters, what decontamination method should you use?

• Purging
• Purifying
• Flushing
• Recirculation cleaning
Flushing
What size is a –8 hose assembly?

• 3/8 inch
• 1/2 inch
• 8/16 inch
• 1/4 inch
8/16 inch
The test chamber of the HCT–10 stationary hydraulic test stand is constructed from what material?

• 1/2–inch steel plate
• 1/4–inch steel plate
• 1/2–inch aluminum plate
• 7/8–inch aluminum plate
1/4–inch steel plate
Which of the following identification band codes identifies a hose assembly that was manufactured in June 1980?

• 2Q1980
• 6Q1980
• A3Q80
• A2Q80
A2Q80
When failure of a flexible hose assembly with swaged end fittings occurs, what procedure should you follow?

• Remove and replace the entire assembly
• Splice the damaged section
• Retorque the fittings
• Replace the fitting
Replace the fitting
Prior to hydraulic sampling, SE must be run for what maximum length of time?

• 7 min
• 10 min
• 5 min
• 15 min
5 min
What type of fitting requires the socket to be permanently deformed by an electric or hydraulic–powered machine?

• Crimp
• Flared
• Reusable
• Flareless
Crimp
How many basic types of hoses are used in military aircraft?

• Three
• Four
• Two
• One
Two
To aid in the removal of free air, what components are sometimes provided at high points in the aircraft hydraulic circulatory system?

• Air bleed valves
• Restrictor valves
• Filler valves
• Check valves
Air bleed valves
Aircraft hose fittings are manufactured from aluminum, carbon steel, and what other material?

• Corrosion–resistant steel
• Brass
• Titanium alloy
• Iron
Corrosion–resistant steel
What decontamination method must be performed under the direct supervision of the cognizant engineering activity?

• Flushing
• Purging
• Purifying
• Recirculation cleaning
Purging
How is a wire–braid Teflonâ hose assembly identified?

• A band at both ends
• A band at each end and in intervals of every 3 feet
• A band in the middle of the hose
• A band at one end
A band in the middle of the hose
What must be accomplished after you have completed all air bleed operations?

• Disconnect and reconnect the unit to the aircraft
• Turn in the unit for further maintenance
• Shut down the unit and re–start it
• Check the hydraulic fluid levels
Check the hydraulic fluid levels
What is the part number for the hydraulic fluid contamination analysis kit?

• P/N 574141
• P/N 571414
• P/N 571114
• P/N 574411
P/N 571414