Navedtra 14145 Military Requirments For Petty Officer First Class

Front 1

To ensure your work center meets the deadlines set for the
completion of tasks, which of the following factors must you properly manage?
1. Personnel, maintenance, and t i m e
2. Material, maintenance, and time
3. Personnel, material, and time
4. Maintenance, watch standing, and time

Back 1

3. Personnel, material, and time

Front 2

Which of the following resources within your division are the most important in accomplishing a task?
1. Personnel and time
2. Maintenance and time
3. Personnel and materials
4. Maintenance and personnel

Back 2

3. Personnel and materials

Front 3

A little time should be spent in
your office in the morning and
afternoon, then the rest of your
time should be spent in the work area.
1. True
2. False

Back 3

1. True

Front 4

As a minimum, how often should you assess your division's personnel and material readiness?
1. Daily
2. Biweekly
3. Monthly
4. Quarterly

Back 4

1. Daily

Front 5

When you assess your workers' job performance, you should look at which of the following areas?
1. Knowledge, work habits, and
character
2. Attitude, knowledge, and work habits
3. Attitude, work habits, and
character
4. Attitude, knowledge, and
character

Back 5

2. Attitude, knowledge, and work habits

Front 6

To keep abreast of the knowledge and experience of your personnel, you should randomly review each members
1. departmental record
2. divisional record
3. training record
4. service record

Back 6

3. training record

Front 7

At a minimum, how often should you take inventory so that you will know when to order additional supplies?
1. Daily
2. Weekly
3. Monthly
4. Quarterly

Back 7

2. Weekly

Front 8

Which of the following logs is used by your division or department to maintain its supply inventory?
1. EDL
2. JSN
3. OPTAR
4. POA&M

Back 8

3. OPTAR

Front 9

Each command should ensure all hand and power tools are assigned serial numbers.
1. True
2 . F a l s e

Back 9

1. True

Front 10

The equipment deficiency list
contains all of the following
information except
1. when it was discovered and the action taken
2. the space and space location
3. the problem or deficiency
4. the PMS requirements

Back 10

4. the PMS requirements

Front 11

What is the work center’s most valuable resource?
1. Equipment
2. Personnel
3. Material
4 Schedule

Back 11

2. Personnel

Front 12

The Enlisted Distribution
Verification Report can better
enable your division to fulfill
which of the following requirements without an adverse effect?
1. Liberty
2. Training
3. Watch standing
4. Temporary additional duty

Back 12

4. Temporary additional duty

Front 13

Based on the ship’s overall
manpower, how are TAD requirements usually allocated?
1. By TYCOM directive
2. By work center
3. By department
4. By division

Back 13

3. By department

Front 14

Which of the following schedules allows for losses in manpower, logistic problems, work stoppages, and personnel training?
1. Work center schedule
2. Annual employment schedule
3. Planning board for training
4. Quarterly employment schedule

Back 14

1. Work center schedule

Front 15

From the annual employment
schedule, all other schedules are developed.
1. True
2. False

Back 15

1. True

Front 16

Jobs on your work center schedule
are listed by what order of
precedence?
1. P r i o r i t y
2. Location
3. Numerical
4. Alphabetical

Back 16

1. P r i o r i t y

Front 17

What writing instrument should be used to fill out a work center schedule and time line?
1. Felt-tip marker
2. Ball-point pen
3. Highlighter
4. Pencil

Back 17

4. Pencil

Front 18

After your schedule is approved, which of the following requirements
should be met?
1. Goals
2. Working hours
3. Cleaning assignments
4. Maintenance assignments

Back 18

1. Goals

Front 19

Including your junior petty
officers in the planning process
prevents which of the following
problems from occurring?
1. Arguments
2. Harassment
3. Skylarking
4. Misunderstandings

Back 19

4. Misunderstandings

Front 20

How many goal setting elements should you consider when setting goals within the work center?
1. One
2. Two
3. Six
4. Eight

Back 20

3. Six

Front 21

Keeping abreast of changes prevents crisis management from occurring.
1. True
2. False

Back 21

1. True

Front 22

When you attend department
meetings, remember to check which of the following factors before the meeting?
1. Assess personnel
2. Work progress
3. Organizing
4. P l a n n i n g

Back 22

2. Work progress

Front 23

As major job completion dates near, you should never allow which of the following situations to happen?
1. Change the work priority
2. Shorten the work day
3. Neglect major jobs
4. Neglect minor jobs

Back 23

4. Neglect minor jobs

Front 24

Assigning your junior petty
officers challenging jobs will
increase which of the following
s k i l l s ?
1. Management
2. Leadership
3. Organizational
4. Administrative

Back 24

2. Leadership

Front 25

The work center supervisor has the complete responsibility for the
completion of a job.
1. True
2. False

Back 25

2. False

Front 26

When delegating authority, you
should delegate to which of the
following competent levels
to develop your subordinates?
1. Highest
2. Average
3 . L o w e s t

Back 26

3 . L o w e s t

Front 27

You should inform your subordinates of their standing in the division in which of the following ways?
1. By giving awards
2. By the use of counseling
3. By the use of a memorandum
4. By awarding special privileges

Back 27

2. By the use of counseling

Front 28

Who generates letters of
instruction and command counseling sheets?
1. Work center supervisor
2. D i v i s i o n o f f i c e r
3. Division chief
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 28

4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 29

Counseling sheets and letters of
instruction are entered in a
member’s service record.
1. True
2 . F a l s e

Back 29

2 . F a l s e

Front 30

A page 13 entry reflects which of the following types of job
performance?
1. Average
2. Good
3 . B a d
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 30

4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 31

If you use a facsimile stamp of
someone’s signature, what should appear next to the signature to authenticate the facsimile?
1. Acting
2. By direction
3. Your initials
4. Your signature

Back 31

3. Your initials

Front 32

A naval message should be used instead of a NAVGRAM under which of the following circumstances?
1. The communication is urgent and speed is of primary importance
2. The addressee is an overseas station
3. The communication is classified
4. Its use is cost effective

Back 32

1. The communication is urgent and speed is of primary importance

Front 33

If a command is the “information addressee” on a message, which of the following actions, if any,
should the command take concerning the message?
1. Route the message to concerned officers to determine the
action addressee’s
r e s p o n s i b i l i t i e s
2. Whatever action is required
within the command
3. The actions directed by the
action addressee
4. None of the above

Back 33

2. Whatever action is required
within the command

Front 34

After a naval message has been prepared and signed by the drafter, which of the following persons
releases the message?
1. The drafter
2. The senior Radioman
3. The delegated releasing officer
4. The communications watch
o f f i c e r

Back 34

3. The delegated releasing officer

Front 35

Who is responsible for the
validation of the contents of a
message?
1. Originator
2. Addressee
3. Releaser
4. Drafter

Back 35

3. Releaser

Front 36

Who is responsible for the selection of a message precedence?
1. Drafter
2. Releaser
3. Addressee
4. Originator

Back 36

1. Drafter

Front 37

Who is responsible for the proper addressing of messages?
1. Originator
2. Addressee
3. Releaser
4. Drafter

Back 37

4. Drafter

Front 38

When assigning precedence to a message, which of the following factors should you
consider?
1. Importance of the subject
2. Desired delivery time
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Seniority of the originator

Back 38

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 39

What is the highest precedence normally
authorized for administrative messages?
1. Immediate
2. Priority
3. Routine
4. Flash

Back 39

2. Priority

Front 40

What precedence is identified by the prosign 0?
1. Flash
2. Priority
3. Immediate
4. Emergency Command

Back 40

3. Immediate

Front 41

A message is released at 1930 hours
Greenwich mean time on 2 January 1991. What is the correctly stated date-time group (DTG) assisgned to the message?
1. 1930Z 02JAN91
2. 02JAN91 1930Z
3. 19302Z JAN 91
4. 021930Z JAN 91

Back 41

4. 021930Z JAN 91

Front 42

Naval messages may have a total of (a) how many originators and (b) how many
action and information addresses?
1. (a) One (b) one each
2. (a) Two (b) two each
3. (a) Three (b) unlimited
4. (a) One (b) unlimited

Back 42

4. (a) One (b) unlimited

Front 43

Messages addressed to address indicating
groups (AIGs) would most likely contain which of the following types of information?
1. Directive changes
2. Emergency leave requests
3. Destructive storm warnings
4. Personnel changes of station

Back 43

3. Destructive storm warnings

Front 44

When a message is unclassified, what word
or abbreviation should appear on the
classification line?
1. UNCLASSIFIED
2. NOCLASS
3. NONCLAS
4. UNCLAS

Back 44

4. UNCLAS

Front 45

A message readdressal refers to what kind of message?
1. A corrected copy of the original draft
2. A duplicate copy transmitted to an
activity because the original was illegible
3. One transmitted to an activity that is not an addressee on the original draft
4. One that has been returned to the originator for additions or deletions by higher authority

Back 45

3. One transmitted to an activity that is not an addressee on the original draft

Front 46

Unless otherwise directed, all naval message directives are automatically canceled after what maximum period of
time?
1. 12 months
2. 6 months
3. 90 days
4. 30 days

Back 46

3. 90 days

Front 47

Minimize requires message drafters and releasers to make which of the following considerations?
1. Is the message as short as possible
2. Is electrical transmission essential
3. Can the message be sent at a later date
4. May the message be sent to more than one addressee

Back 47

2. Is electrical transmission essential

Front 48

A rough draft of naval correspondence to be reviewed by a drafting officer should contain which of the following types of information?
1. Two ideas in each sentence and more than one central thought in each paragraph
2. One subject, clearly and concisely written
3. All information pertaining to the subject
4. The smallest details of all the facts

Back 48

2. One subject, clearly and concisely
written

Front 49

What should be your first concern in drafting correspondence?
1. Format
2. Purpose
3. Distribution
4. Security classification

Back 49

2. Purpose

Front 50

When organizing a naval letter, what information should you include in the first
paragraph?
1. References used
2. Listing of addressees
3. Purpose of the letter
4. Overview of the letter contents

Back 50

3. Purpose of the letter

Front 51

You are assigned the task of writing a piece of naval correspondence. Which of the following steps should be your first?
1. Writing an outline
2. Determining the target date
3. Determining the distribution list
4. Gathering appropriate reference material

Back 51

2. Determining the target date

Front 52

When preparing the rough draft of a naval letter, you should concentrate on which of
the following aspects?
1. Proper spelling and punctuation
2. Proper style and letter format
3. The appropriate references
4. The necessary information

Back 52

4. The necessary information

Front 53

When reviewing the rough draft of your
correspondence for the first time, which of the following procedures should you follow?
1. Review your accomplishments
2. Remove unnecessary introductory
phrases 3. Rework paragraphs that are difficult to understand
4. Make brief notes at points where the text can be improved

Back 53

4. Make brief notes at points where the text can be improved

Front 54

Before presenting smooth
correspondence for signature, you should check for accuracy in which of
the following areas.
1. Standard subject identification codes
2. Properly labeledand attached enclosures
3. Correct titles of all addressees
4. All of the above

Back 54

4. All of the above

Front 55

The security classification you assign to naval correspondence is determined by which of the following factors?
1. The number of information addressees
2. The information contained in the correspondence
3. The security classification of related documents
4. The security classification of
references contained in the
correspondence
The security classification you assign to

Back 55

2. The information contained in the correspondence

Front 56

An endorsement may be placed on the signature page of a naval letter under which of the following circumstances?
1. The text of the endorsement consists of
a maximum of three lines
2. The basic letter and the endorsement bear the same security classification
3. The security classification of the endorsement is lower than that of the basic letter
4. The space on the signature page of the basic letter is sufficient to accommodate the entire endorsement

Back 56

4. The space on the signature page of the basic letter is sufficient to accommodate the entire endorsement

Front 57

Correspondence that is used as informal communication between subordinates
within the same activity can be
accomplished by using which of the
following methods?
1. NAVGRAM
2. Speedletter
3. "Memorandum For"
4. "From-To" memorandum

Back 57

4. "From-To" memorandum

Front 58

What is the purpose of a NAVGRAM?
1. Urgent communications between DOD addressees
2. To ensure priority handling of the correspondence by addressee
3. To transmit urgent correspondence by
electrical means
4. To ensure special handling by postal authorities

Back 58

1. Urgent communications between DOD addressees

Front 59

Our Navy uses a standard filing
system for which of the following reasons?
1. Frequent rotation of personnel
2. Saves the Navy space
3. Saves the Navy money
4. All of the above

Back 59

4. All of the above

Front 60

Which, if any, of the following
classified material does not
require controlled routing?
1. Confidential
2. Top secret
3. Secret
4. None of the above

Back 60

1. Confidential

Front 61

When filing material you should include all of the following except
1. the incoming document
2. a copy of the outgoing
correspondence
3. any essential supporting
documents
4. all early drafts and extra
copies

Back 61

4. all early drafts and extra
copies

Front 62

Standard subject identification
codes (SSICs) provide which of the following standard systems throughout the Navy?
1. Colors
2. Numbers
3. Symbols
4. Alphabets

Back 62

2. Numbers

Front 63

When writing a naval letter, you should ensure it is well organized and orderly. Which of the following writing methods is NOT in the correct order?
1. Stating requests before
j u s t i f i c a t i o n s
2. Stating explanations before
answers
3. Giving conclusions before
discussions
4. Giving summaries before details

Back 63

2. Stating explanations before
answers

Front 64

The order that references appear in reference block of a naval letter is based on which of the following factors?
1. The OPNAV/SECNAV number assigned
2. The length of the title of the
reference
3. The order in which they appear in the text
4. The numerical listing

Back 64

3. The order in which they appear in the text

Front 65

Paragraphs in a naval letter should be short and contain roughly what maximum number of sentences?
1. 4 t o 5
2. 6 t o 7
3. 8 to 10
4. 10 to 12

Back 65

1. 4 t o 5

Front 66

For an idea to gain emphasis within a sentence, where should it appear?
1. At the start or the end of the
sentence
2. At the end of the sentence only
3. At the start of tie sentence
only
4. In the middle of the sentence

Back 66

1. At the start or the end of the
sentence

Front 67

To save words, clarify ideas, and provide balance when you wish to express two or more equally important ideas in a sentence, you should use which of the following
types of sentence construction?
1. Minisentences
2. Topic sentences
3. Rambling sentences
4. Parallel sentences

Back 67

4. Parallel sentences

Front 68

To make your writing more like
speaking, you should use which of the following writing techniques?
1. Use personal pronouns
2. Use everyday words
3. Use short sentences
4. All of the above

Back 68

4. All of the above

Front 69

Which of the following writing
practices is the best approach to a subject when writing a directive?
1. Write in the “third person”
s t y l e
2. Write directly to a user
3. Write in terms of “how to”
instructions
4. Write in terms of “how to”
c h e c k l i s t s

Back 69

2. Write directly to a user

Front 70

As a subordinate writing to a
senior, which of the following
approaches should you avoid when setting the tone of the letter?
1. Directing
2. Suggesting
3. Requesting
4. Recommending

Back 70

1. Directing

Front 71

Which of the following words hurt naval writing by stretching
sentences, delaying meaning, and hiding responsibility?
1. Request you
2. You are
3. I t i s
4 . I a m

Back 71

3. It is

Front 72

For economy in writing, you should
use as many abbreviations as
p o s s i b l e .
1. True
2. False

Back 72

2. False

Front 73

Make a ________inventory of material being used. Also make a __________inventory to order supplies.

Back 73

daily, weekly

Front 74

Define EDVR

Back 74

Your command maintains an inventory of personnel. This report is called the enlisted distribution verification report. (EDVR).

Front 75

How do the commands put out the EDVR

Back 75

The EDVR is a computer printout of the number of personnel in each rate at the command

Front 76

Why is the Quarterly employment schedule important ?

Back 76

• The quarterly employment schedule shows changes in the ship’s operations that could alter each department’s long range plan.
• Before making your work center schedule refer to the command’s annual and quarterly employment schedules.

Front 77

How many kinds of counciling are their ?

Back 77

• You can use three methods of counseling:
- Counseling sheet/letter of instruction
- Page 13 entry (service record)
- Document the positive/ negative marks on the evaluation report

Front 78

What are some ways to recognize good performance?

Back 78

• You can recognize good performance with rewards such as special liberty, late sleepers, extra time off at lunch, etc.
• Other types of recognition:
- Sailor of the Quarter/Year
- Letter of Appreciation
- Letter of Commendation
- Navy Achievement Medal
- Meritorious advancement

Front 79

What are two types of authority and what do they mean ?

Back 79

• There are two types of authority.
- general
- Organizational
• General authority is given to officers and petty officers so they can fulfill their duties and responsibilities.
• Individuals have organizational authority needed to fulfill duties and responsibilities by virtue of their positions within the Navy organization.

Front 80

How must the CO have knowledge of the delegated authority granted ?

Back 80

• The CO must have all delegated signatures in writing

Front 81

Why is delegated authority delegated to title rather than names?

Back 81

Delegated signatures are delegated to titles rather than names, because people come and go but the position will be their and assumed by someone.

Front 82

How do subordinates sign documents under delegated authority?

Back 82

When subordinates sign documents under delegated authority, they usually sign “by direction"

Front 83

What is the originator and releaser responsible for on a message?

Back 83

The originator is responsible for the functions of the message drafter and message releaser.
•The Releaser is responsible for validating the contents of the message. Usually the CO is the releasing officer, but the CO can delegate releasing authority.

Front 84

How are messages divided what are their prosigns?

Back 84

• Messages are divided into four common precedence categories:
- Routine (prosign R)
- Priority (prosign P)
- Immediate (prosign O)
- Flash (prosign Z)

Front 85

What are the time limits given for each prosign?

Back 85

Z - 10 min
O - 30 min
P - 3 hours
R - 6 hours

Front 86

An element that enables a seadependent nation to project its political, economic, and military strengths seaward is known as?

Back 86

sea power

Front 87

The true strength of sea power can only be measured in terms of a nation’s ability to use the sea to further its?

Back 87

national objectives

Front 88

It is more feasible to send naval forces, in comparison to other military forces, into crisis areas for which of the following reasons?

Back 88

The cost is low; Naval forces can stay on station indefinitely; Naval forces leave behind no physical reminders of their presence

Front 89

To continue to exist as we know it today, the United States must have a policy that recognizes its?

Back 89

worldwide commitments

Front 90

What are the three fundamental pillars on which United States military strategy rests?

Back 90

Deterrence, forward defense,
and alliance solidarity

Front 91

What responses could the United States take in the event of aggression by a potential enemy?

Back 91

meet force with force at the point of attack; increase the intensity of the conflict; alter the geographic width of the conflict; or control the duration of fighting.

Front 92

The Navy has the ability to outlast any aggressor with?

Back 92

secure sea-lanes

Front 93

True or False. In time of emergency the Navy must be able to venture into harm’s way.

Back 93

True

Front 94

What are the components of the TRIAD of strategic nuclear forces?

Back 94

BALLISTIC MISSILES, INTERCONTINENTAL BALLISTIC MISSILES (ICBMs) and LONG-RANGE BOMBERS.

Front 95

What is the most flexible element of the TRIAD?

Back 95

Intercontinental ballistic
missiles

Front 96

What is the sole mission and
fundamental reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine?

Back 96

To deter war

Front 97

The TRIAD has been developed and maintained for which of the following purposes?

Back 97

to deter nuclear attack

Front 98

Ships of the Second Fleet patrol some of the world’s most important trade routes. In what area of the world does the Second Fleet normally patrol?

Back 98

Western Atlantic

Front 99

Which of the following fleets would you find in the Western Pacific and Indian Ocean regions?

Back 99

Seventh

Front 100

Which of the following terms
describes an attack that is
intended to inflict damage to,
seize, or destroy an objective?

Back 100

Strike

Front 101

Which of the following characteristics of a strike force is one of its greatest assets?

Back 101

Mobility

Front 102

What are the types of task forces organized primarily for strike force operations?

Back 102

carrier, surface, and submarine strike forces

Front 103

The primary mission of our
submarine force is to destroy which of the following types of enemy ships?

Back 103

submarines

Front 104

The first fleet ballistic missile submarine was launched in what year?

Back 104

1959

Front 105

When the term “TRIDENT” is used, it is understood to include which of the following elements?

Back 105

submarines, missiles, and base.

Front 106

Trident I missiles have a multiple warhead capability and a maximum range of how many nautical miles?

Back 106

4,000

Front 107

The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear
weapons?

Back 107

strike

Front 108

The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships?

Back 108

antisurface ship

Front 109

Naval operations generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature?

Back 109

special

Front 110

This type of warfare prevents the effective use of cargo-carrying vessels by the enemy?

Back 110

antisurface ship

Front 111

Correctly interpreted, this type of warfare permits military decisions to be based on accurate knowledge of the enemy’s forces and capabilities?

Back 111

intelligence

Front 112

CMEO is an equal opportunity
management system controlled primarily at which of the following l e v e l s ?
1. Command
2. Secretary of Defense
3. Secretary of the Navy
4. Chief of Naval Operations

Back 112

1. Command

Front 113

Which of the following supervisors supports the Navy’s Equal Opportunity program?
1. The one who relates positively and directly with all people e q u a l l y
2. The one who only listens to one point of view
3. The one who stereotypes people
4. The one who feels it necessary to intimidate some people to achieve goals

Back 113

1. The one who relates positively and directly with all people e q u a l l y

Front 114

To manage and supervise people effectively, you must have which of the following leadership skills?
1. The ability to ignore conflicts
among various groups
2. The ability to listen to and
understand what people have to say
3. The ability to place people in
correct racial, ethnic, and
religious categories
4. The ability to substitute
generalized ideas about people
when you aren’t sure of their
motives

Back 114

2. The ability to listen to and
understand what people have to say

Front 115

To help your subordinates grow both personally and professionally, you
must use which of the following
supervisory practices?
1. Provide timely feedback on
performance
2. Provide on-the-job training
3. Identify their strengths and
weaknesses
4. Each of the above

Back 115

4. Each of the above

Front 116

If a person commits an act of
arbitrary discrimination, the
commanding officer may take which of the following disciplinary
actions?
1. Assign lower evaluation marks
2. Award nonjudicial punishment
3. Submit a recommendation for separation
4. Each of the above

Back 116

4. Each of the above

Front 117

The Navy Rights and
Responsibilities workshop is
conducted by which of the following groups?
1. Command Training Team (CTT)
2. Command Assessment Team (CAT)
3. Command Rights and
Responsibilities Team
4. Striker Board

Back 117

1. Command Training Team (CTT)

Front 118

Which of the following subjects is NOT covered during the Navy Rights
and Responsibilities workshop?
1. Navy Regulations
2. Combatant skills
3. Enlistment contract
4. Grievance and redress

Back 118

2. Combatant skills

Front 119

Information concerning equal
opportunity contained in command records may NOT be obtained through
which of the following methods?
1. Surveys
2. Training
3. Interviews
4. Observations

Back 119

2. Training

Front 120

What two methods of data collecting by the CAT require other data sources to be used to draw conclusions and produce findings that can be validly interpreted?
1. Command records and Interviews
2. Interviews and observations
3. Observations and surveys
4. Surveys and interviews

Back 120

3. Observations and surveys

Front 121

Nonjudicial punishment is better known in the Navy by which of the following titles?
1. Mast
2. Court-martial
3. Captains mast
4. Executive officers
investigation

Back 121

3. Captains mast

Front 122

Without using court-martial
intervention. what article of the
UCMJ empowers a commanding officer to impose punishment for minor
offenses on both officer and
enlisted personnel?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20

Back 122

3. 15

Front 123

Under the UCMJ, punishment must be imposed within 2 years of the o f f e n s e .
1. True
2. False

Back 123

1. True

Front 124

The Report and Disposition of
Offense(s), NAVPERS 1626/7,
contains all of the following
information except
1. preliminary inquiry report
2. action of the XO at screening mast
3. record of any pre-mast
restraint
4. all of the required pre-mast
advice that must be given to
the accused

Back 124

4. all of the required pre-mast
advice that must be given to
the accused

Front 125

Who must ensure that within a reasonable amount of time of the report of an offense that the accused is fully advised of his or her rights concerning a possible NJP?
1. Legal officer
2. Chief Master-at-Arms
3. Officer contemplating imposing NJP
4. Department head and division officer of the accused

Back 125

3. Officer contemplating imposing NJP

Front 126

Your rights are found under what UCMJ article?
1. 15
2. 31
3. 37
4. 38

Back 126

2. 31

Front 127

The preliminary inquiry officer
(PIO) completes what section of the
NAVPERS 1626/7?
1. C
2. E
3. G
4. I

Back 127

2. E

Front 128

Under article 15 of the UCMJ, the commanding officer has how many punishments identified that he or
she can impose at mast?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 9
4. 12

Back 128

3. 9

Front 129

Restriction is the least severe
form of deprivation of liberty.
1. True
2. False

Back 129

1. True

Front 130

Arrest in quarters may only be
imposed on which of the following naval personnel?
1. E-1 through E-9
2. W-2 through W-4
3. 0-1 through 0-10
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 130

4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 131

Confinement on bread and water has a maximum duration of how many
days?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Back 131

3. 3

Front 132

Which of the following punishments i s considered the most severe form of NJP
1. Correctional custody
2. Reduction in grade
3. Forfeiture of pay
4. Restriction

Back 132

2. Reduction in grade

Front 133

Under article 15 of the UCMJ, you have how many days to appeal the punishment awarded to you if you
feel that it was unjust or
disproportionate?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20

Back 133

1. 5

Front 134

Which of the following terms
describes the Navy’s recognition that drug and alcohol abuse is incompatible with the Navy’s effort to instill pride and professionalism?
1. Zero defects
2. Zero tolerance
3. Screening with meaning
4. Self-referrals preferable

Back 134

2. Zero tolerance

Front 135

Why has the Navy taken a firm stand against drug abuse?
1. Drug abuse undermines combined readiness
2. Drug abuse is costly in lost man-hours
3. Drug abuse causes the loss of morale and esprit de corps
4. Each of the above

Back 135

4. Each of the above

Front 136

What is the most valuable detection and deterrence tool used by the Navy to identify drug abusers?
1. Annual physicals
2. Urinalysis testing
3. Drug detection dogs
4. Undercover military police

Back 136

2. Urinalysis testing

Front 137

Each urinalysis sample is tested how many minimum number of times by
one of the Navy’s drug screening laboratories?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Five

Back 137

3. Three

Front 138

Under the Navy’s policy for drug abusers, which of the following actions is taken if a PO2 commits a drug abuse offense?
1. The person is screened for drug
dependency
2. The person is afforded
in-service residential
treatment
3. The person is processed for
immediate separation
4. The person is given a waiver if he or she has exhibited
exceptional service

Back 138

3. The person is processed for
immediate separation

Front 139

A drug abuser deeply under the influence of narcotics displays which of the following
characteristics?
1. Anxiety
2. Lethargy
3. Lucidity
4. H o s t i l i t y

Back 139

2. Lethargy

Front 140

Which of the following
paraphernalia found in a locker is
an indication that the person is a
narcotics abuser?
1. Bent spoons
2. Eyedroppers
3. Cotton balls
4 . A l l o f t h e a b o v e

Back 140

4 . All of the above

Front 141

A person who abuses heroin develops a tolerance for the drug. How does this tolerance affect the person’s reaction to the drug?
1. The drug no longer has an
effect on the person’s central
nervous system
2. Larger doses are required for
the same effect
3. Smaller doses are required for the same effect
4. The drug no longer has an
effect on the person’s
bloodstream

Back 141

2. Larger doses are required for
the same effect

Front 142

Normally, which of the following signs is the first emotional reaction following a dose of heroin?
1. A feeling of relief
2. A state of inactivity
3. A state of extreme stress
4. A feeling of weightlessness

Back 142

1. A feeling of relief

Front 143

Drinking a large amount of cough medication is a common method of
abusing which of the following
drugs?
1. Opium
2. Heroin
3. Codeine
4. Morphine

Back 143

3. Codeine

Front 144

A drug abuser who suffers long
periods of time without sleeping or eating is probably abusing which of the following types of drugs?
1. Alcohol
2. Narcotics
3. Stimulants
4. Depressants

Back 144

3. Stimulants

Front 145

A person who has taken an overdose of cocaine may experience which of
the following reactions?
1. Death
2. Anxiety
3. Euphoria
4. Excitation

Back 145

1. Death

Front 146

Which of the following drugs can cause the heart or arteries to burst and cause a massive coronary?
1. Crack
2. Codeine
3. Amphetamines
4. Phencyclidine

Back 146

1. Crack

Front 147

Which of the following drugs is
abused on the pretense of weight control?
1. Marijuana
2. Methadone
3. Amphetamines
4. Phencyclidine

Back 147

3. Amphetamines

Front 148

Abuse of which of the following
types of drugs results in the
appearance of alcohol intoxication, but without the odor of alcohol on the breath?
1. Narcotics
2. Stimulants
3. Depressants
4. Hallucinogens

Back 148

3. Depressants

Front 149

Depressant overdoses, when taken with alcohol, may result in which of the following conditions?
1. Death
2. Articulate speech
3. Mellow disposition
4. Keen sense of humor

Back 149

1. Death

Front 150

Abuse of which of the following
types of drugs may result in
reoccurring effects months after the drug has been taken?
1. Hallucinogens
2. Depressants
3. Stimulants
4. Narcotics

Back 150

1. Hallucinogens

Front 151

Which of the following indicators is one of the dangers to the hallucinogen abuser?
1. A change in sleeping habits
2. A change in the mental
c o n d i t i o n
3. The physical dependence created by the drug
4. The unpredictability of the
effects of the drug

Back 151

4. The unpredictability of the
effects of the drug

Front 152

Which of the following conditions is an indicator of a marijuana abuser presently under the influence of the substance?
1. Loud and rapid talking
2. Great bursts of laughter
3. In a stupor or seems sleepy
4. All of the above

Back 152

4. All of the above

Front 153

The effects of marijuana on the
emotions and senses of the user depend on which of the following f a c t o r s ?
1. The amount and strength of the
substance
2. The social setting and expected
e f f e c t s
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. The DNA structure of the user

Back 153

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 154

Volatile chemical abuse is usually indicated by which of the following conditions?
1. Constricted pupils
2. Clear whites of the eyes
3. White substance around the
n o s t r i l s
4. Smell of the chemical on the
breath

Back 154

4. Smell of the chemical on the
breath

Front 155

Which of the following personnel are subject to participation in the
urinalysis testing program?
1. Officer personnel under the age of 25 only
2. Enlisted personnel in paygrades E-4 and below only
3. Enlisted personnel only,
regardless of rank or age
4. All enlisted and officer
personnel, regardless of the
rank or age

Back 155

4. All enlisted and officer
personnel, regardless of the
rank or age

Front 156

Which of the following persons must have prior knowledge of a drug detection dog inspection or search?
1. The dog handler
2. The commanding officer
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. All personnel involved in the
search

Back 156

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 157

Which of the following types of
behavior could be a positive clue that a person is abusing some form of drugs?
1. Wanting to sell a stereo system
and TV set at the same time
2. Repeatedly showing symptoms associated with drug abuse
3. Botching a job when it is known that the person is usually a top performer
4. Keeping tablets, capsules, or other forms of drugs in one’s
l o c k e r

Back 157

2. Repeatedly showing symptoms associated with drug abuse

Front 158

The number one drug problem in the United States is the abuse of which of the following substances?
1. Alcohol
2. C o c a i n e
3. Marijuana
4. Barbiturates

Back 158

1. Alcohol

Front 159

Alcohol is classified as what type of drug?
1. Hallucinogen
2. Depressant
3. Stimulant
4. Narcotic

Back 159

2. Depressant

Front 160

Which of the following
characteristics or symptoms
identifies a person suffering from alcoholism?
1. Physical dependence
2. Psychological dependence
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Infrequent consumption

Back 160

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 161

All Navy supervisors should be
familiar with the Navy’s policy
regarding alcoholism as outlined in the OPNAVINST on alcohol and drug abuse prevention and control. What is the purpose of this instruction with regard to alcohol abuse?
1. To discourage the use of
alcohol
2. To acknowledge the Navy’s
responsibility for counseling
and to aid alcoholics in
recovery
3. To publish the disciplinary
action that may be taken
against a known alcoholic
4. To set limits on the amount of alcohol that may be consumed before a person is considered a problem drinker

Back 161

2. To acknowledge the Navy’s
responsibility for counseling
and to aid alcoholics in
recovery

Front 162

When, if ever, would the promotion prospects of a recovered alcoholic be affected?
1. If the recovered alcoholic
attended a rehabilitation
program
2. If misconduct or poor
performance resulted from
alcoholism
3. If the recovered alcoholic is
still attending AA meetings
4. Never

Back 162

2. If misconduct or poor
performance resulted from
alcoholism

Front 163

For which of the following reasons does alcohol quickly affect the central nervous system?
1. It is rapidly absorbed by the
kidneys
2. It remains in the digestive
tract for long periods
3. It is immediately absorbed into the bloodstream
4. It is metabolized at a faster
rate as more is consumed

Back 163

3. It is immediately absorbed into the bloodstream

Front 164

What indicator is used by most states to determine whether or nota person is intoxicated?
1. Slurred speech
2. Blood-alcohol level
3. Poor motor coordination
4. Number of drinks consumed

Back 164

2. Blood-alcohol level

Front 165

In the chronic stages of
alcoholism, tolerance decreases markedly until the victim may become drunk on relatively small amounts of alcohol.
1. True
2. False

Back 165

1. True

Front 166

In which of the following ways does alcohol, when taken in combination with other drugs, affect the body?
1. The other drug is metabolized quicker than the alcohol and has no effect
2. The other drug is metabolized slower than the alcohol and remains active for longer
periods
3. The alcohol counteracts the
other drug, causing little, if
any, effect on the body
4. Both work as a stimulant and cause severe hyperactivity

Back 166

2. The other drug is metabolized slower than the alcohol and remains active for longer periods

Front 167

Which of the following long-term effects can be expected by a person who is a heavy drinker for a prolonged period of time?
1. Lowered resistance to
infectious diseases
2. Damage to the major organs of the body
3. Deterioration of memory and
judgement
4. All of the above

Back 167

4. All of the above

Front 168

Many definitions are used to
describe problem drinking or
alcoholism. Which of the following statements describes an alcoholic?
1. A person who depends on alcohol to help him or her function in everyday life
2. A person who depends on friends
to purchase alcohol
3. A person who frequents bars for the purpose of getting drunk
4. A person who thinks that he or she must drink to be accepted

Back 168

1. A person who depends on alcohol to help him or her function in everyday life

Front 169

Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosing of alcoholism?
1. It is often slow to be
recognized
2. It is an easily identifiable
disease
3. It is usually diagnosed in the
early stage
4. It is a simple procedure if
caught in the early stages of
problem drinking

Back 169

1. It is often slow to be
recognized

Front 170

What treatment technique does the Navy use in returning an alcoholic to a useful and productive life?
1. A treatment that is developed by the command
2. A treatment that must be
developed by the individual
3. One that matches the needs of the person to the appropriate therapy
4. One that provides treatment and appropriate disciplinary action for each case

Back 170

3. One that matches the needs of the person to the appropriate therapy

Front 171

Which of the following social
stigmas is usually attached to an a l c o h o l i c ?
1. Alcoholism only affects the
poor and uneducated
2. Alcoholism is a moral weakness rather than an illness
3. Alcoholism is a treatable
disease only in its earlier
stages
4. Alcoholism only affects people who are social outcasts

Back 171

2. Alcoholism is a moral weakness rather than an illness

Front 172

Alcohol abuse prevention is the
responsibility of which of the
following persons?
1. The individual
2. The commanding officer
3. The Chief of Naval Education
and Training
4. The master chief petty officer of the Navy

Back 172

1. The individual

Front 173

Which of the following actions can commands take to help eliminate practices and customs that encourage personnel to drink?
1. Emphasize moderation
2. Provide educational programs
3. Ensure adequate quantities of nonalcoholic beverages
4. Each of the above

Back 173

4. Each of the above

Front 174

What is the maximum time a person may be assigned to a Level II counseling program?
1. 6 months
2. 2 months
3. 6 weeks
4. 4 weeks

Back 174

4. 4 weeks

Front 175

Navy personnel who have a drinking problem can receive which of the following types of care from a Navy hospital?
1. Evaluation
2. Detoxification
3. Primary rehabilitation
4. All of the above

Back 175

4. All of the above

Front 176

Who is responsible to the
commanding officer for carrying out the policies of the Navy Drug and Alcohol Abuse Program (NADAP)?
1. DAPA
2. CAAC
3. ARD
4. NAVALREHCEN

Back 176

1. DAPA

Front 177

The Navy operates how many alcohol rehabilitation centers
(NAVALREHCEN)?
1. 5
2. 6
3. 3
4. 4

Back 177

4. 4

Front 178

As a supervisor faced with a drug or alcohol problem caused by one of
your division personnel, which of the following helping resources can you turn to for advice and assistance?
1. The chaplain
2. The command master chief
3. The senior personnel around you
4. Each of the above

Back 178

4. Each of the above

Front 179

The authority which is granted to all officers and petty officers to fulfill their duties and
responsibilities is known as what type of authority?
1. General
2. Unlimited
3. Meritorious
4. Organizational

Back 179

1. General

Front 180

The authority that an individual
may hold by virtue of assignment to a specific billet within an organizational unit of the Navy is known as what type of authority?
1. General
2. Unlimited
3. Meritorious
4. Organizational

Back 180

4. Organizational

Front 181

General responsibilities and duties of all officers and petty officers within the Navy.
1. Article 1020
2. Article 1023
3. Article 1037
4. Article 1132

Back 181

3. Article 1037

Front 182

The right to exercise authority
over all subordinate personnel.
1. Article 1020
2. Article 1023
3. Article 1037
4. Article 1132

Back 182

1. Article 1020

Front 183

As a petty officer you have the
authority to issue orders.
Subordinates are required to follow your orders only if your orders are
1. lawful
2. given in harsh language
3. contain the reason why the
order should be carried out
4. given with no opportunity for
the subordinate to ask
questions

Back 183

1. lawful

Front 184

What article of the UCMJ allows nonjudicial punishment to be awarded?
1. Article 7
2. Article 15
3. Article 29
4. Article 134

Back 184

2. Article 15

Front 185

Which of the following personnel has the authority to administer nonjudicial punishment?
1. Chief petty officer
2. Petty officer who is E-6 and
above
3. Executive officer
4. Commanding officer

Back 185

4. Commanding officer

Front 186

Which of the following actions may be taken to correct military deficiencies in junior personnel?
1. Withhold privileges
2. Assign extra military
instruction (EMI)
3 . B o t h 1 a n d 2 a b o v e
4. Extend normal working hours

Back 186

3 . Both 1 and 2 above

Front 187

Which of the following actions to
correct a military or professional deficiency can be awarded only through nonjudicial punishment?
1. Assign extra duty
2. Withhold privileges
3. Assign extra military
instruction (EMI)
4. Extend normal working hours

Back 187

1. Assign extra duty

Front 188

When EMI is assigned to correct a military deficiency, which of the following limitations normally is
observed?
1 . E M I i s a s s i g n e d i n f a v o r o f awarding extra duty
2. EMI is assigned in periods not to exceed 2 hours daily
3. EMI is assigned only during
normal working hours
4. EMI is assigned, where
possible, as a substitute for
punitive measures covered under the UCMJ

Back 188

2. EMI is assigned in periods not to exceed 2 hours daily

Front 189

The temporary withholding of
privileges is an effective tool in
correcting a minor infraction of a military regulation. Which of the following privileges CANNOT be withheld as part of this
nonpunitive measure?
1. Exchange of duty
2. Normal liberty
3. Base parking
4. Special pay

Back 189

2. Normal liberty

Front 190

Which of the following persons has the final authority to withhold a p r i v i l e g e ?
1. Division chief petty officer
2. Work center supervisor
3. Commanding officer
4. Each of the above

Back 190

3. Commanding officer

Front 191

For which of the following reasons would it NOT be appropriate for a supervisor to extend an individual’s normal working hours?
1. To complete additional
essential work
2. To complete a work assignment that should have been completed during working hours
3. To perform work to maintain a required level of operational
readiness
4. To perform work as punishment for substandard performance of d u t y

Back 191

4. To perform work as punishment for substandard performance of d u t y

Front 192

In which of the following
publications will you find the
description of the duties,
responsibilities, and authority of a division officer?
1. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy
2. Tactical Action Officer’s
Handbook
3. Watch Officer’s Guide
4. Navy Regulations

Back 192

1. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy

Front 193

When making duty assignments such
as general quarters stations or a cleaning station, who should be assigned responsibility for that duty?
1. A specific work center
2. A specific person
3. The department
4. The division

Back 193

2. A specific person

Front 194

As the LPO you are assigning a work center supervisor to coordinate the painting of a compartment. The job is assigned poorly if which of the following persons has (a) the responsibility for the task and (b) the authority to accomplish the task?
1. (a) Supervisor
( b ) y o u
2. (a) Supervisor
(b) supervisor
3. ( a ) Y o u
(b) supervisor
4. ( a ) Y o u
( b ) y o u

Back 194

4. ( a ) Y o u
( b ) y o u

Front 195

An action or task required by one’s position that is expected or required by moral or legal obligation is a duty. Duties fall into which of the following categories?
1. M i l i t a r y o n l y
2. Moral and military
3. Administrative only
4. Military and administrative

Back 195

4. Military and administrative

Front 196

The ship’s watch organization is second in importance only to the organization for battle. Which of the following personnel is/are
responsible for understanding the watch organization?
1. Nonrated personnel only
2. Petty officers only
3. Officers only
4. All hands

Back 196

4. All hands

Front 197

The watch, quarter, and station
bill contains which of the
following assignments?
1. Messing assignments
2. Liberty boat assignments
3. Collision station assignments
4. Each of the above

Back 197

4. Each of the above

Front 198

Who should approve changes to the division’s watch, quarter, and station bill?
1. Executive officer
2. Commanding officer
3. Officer of the deck
4. Command duty officer

Back 198

1. Executive officer

Front 199

Billet numbers on the watch,
quarter, and station bill consist
of either four numerals or a letter and three numerals. What do the last two numerals indicate?
1. Section seniority
2. Division assigned
3. Watch precedence
4. Recall priority

Back 199

1. Section seniority

Front 200

Responsibility for ensuring
division members are aware of their watch, quarter, and station bill assignments is delegated to which
of the following persons?
1. Division chief
2. Division officer
3. Division leading petty officer
4. Division training petty officer
overboard

Back 200

2. Division officer

Front 201

The watch, quarter, and station
bill should be updated at
approximately what minimum
frequency?
1. Continually
2. Quarterly
3. Monthly
4. Weekly

Back 201

1. Continually

Front 202

Which of the following management tools should be used by the division officer to maintain a current watch, quarter, and station
b i l l ?
1. Battle bill
2. S h i p ’ s b i l l
3. Division notebook
4. Division officer’s guide

Back 202

3. Division notebook

Front 203

Which of the following explanations is a purpose of the general emergency bill?
1. To provide detailed procedures for every emergency that can
occur
2. To establish a plan for
salvaging captured enemy
vessels
3. To organize the crew to handle the effects of a major
emergency
4. Each of the above

Back 203

4. Each of the above

Front 204

Which of the following actions
should you immediately take if you see one of your shipmates fall overboard?
1. Notify the OOD
2. Call out, “Man overboard, port (or starboard) side”
3. Provide lifesaving equipment to the person if possible
4. All of the above

Back 204

4. All of the above

Front 205

Which of the following officers is responsible for the administration
of the CBR defense bill?
1. Safety officer
2. Division officer
3. CBR defense officer
4. Damage control assistant

Back 205

4. Damage control assistant

Front 206

Which of the following commands must have an emergency destruction
b i l l ?
1. A deployable command
2. A command located outside the United States
3. A command having COMSEC m a t e r i a l
4. All of the above

Back 206

4. All of the above

Front 207

Based on the emergency destruction plan, you would destroy classified material for which of the following reasons?
1. If the material was obsolete
and of no further value to the
command
2. If the material was subject to compromise by unauthorized personnel
3. If the material was subject to capture by an enemy
4. Each of the above

Back 207

4. Each of the above

Front 208

During the emergency destruction of classified material, which of the
following material should be
destroyed first?
1. Secret COMSEC material
2. Top secret special access
material
3. Secret special access material
4. Confidential COMSEC material

Back 208

2. Top secret special access
material

Front 209

PQS does not apply to which of the following systems?
1. Surface to air systems
2. Torpedo firing systems
3. Nuclear propulsion systems
4. Coast Guard weapons systems

Back 209

3. Nuclear propulsion systems

Front 210

Each personnel qualification
standard is divided into which of the following subdivision(s)?
1. Systems
2. Fundamentals
3. Watchstations/Maintenance
actions
4. All of the above

Back 210

4. All of the above

Front 211

Serves as a self-study aid for the trainee.
1. 100
2. 200
3. 300

Back 211

1. 100

Front 212

Tests the trainee’s readiness to perform a designated task.
1. 100
2. 200
3. 300

Back 212

3. 300

Front 213

Breaks the subject equipment into smaller, more easily understood s e c t i o n s .
1. 100
2. 200
3. 300

Back 213

2. 200

Front 214

Addresses specific or unique safety
precautions.
1. 100
2. 200
3. 300

Back 214

2. 200

Front 215

PQS should be considered as a separate program with its own distinct managerial system.
1. True
2. False

Back 215

1. True

Front 216

Sign-off authority for final PQS
qualification may be delegated to what minimum level of authority?
1. Division CPO
2. Department head
3. Division officer
4. Work center supervisor

Back 216

2. Department head

Front 217

Recommends interim qualification of watch standers.
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head

Back 217

4. Department head

Front 218

Designates in writing those
individuals authorized to act as
q u a l i f i e r s .
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head

Back 218

1. Commanding officer

Front 219

Acts as an overall training
supervisor.
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head

Back 219

2. Executive officer

Front 220

Responsible for ordering all
departmental PQS material.
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head

Back 220

3. PQS coordinator

Front 221

Responsible for maintaining PQS
software.
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head

Back 221

3. PQS coordinator

Front 222

Recommends final qualification to the commanding officer.
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head

Back 222

4. Department head

Front 223

The enlisted service record
contains both official and
unofficial papers.
1. True
2. False

Back 223

1. True

Front 224

The actual service record is
contained on which of the following side(s) of the enlisted service record?
1. L e f t
2. R i g h t
3. Both 1 and 2 above

Back 224

2. R i g h t

Front 225

Navywide advancement exams are based on which of the following standards?
1. PQS standards
2. PMS standards
3. Naval standards
4. Occupational standards

Back 225

4. Occupational standards

Front 226

Which of the following
commissioning programs provides the Navy with officers who are technical specialists in their f i e l d s ?
1. Limited Duty Officer Program
2. Chief Warrant Officer Program
3. Enlisted Commissioning Program
4. Officer Candidate School
Program

Back 226

2. Chief Warrant Officer Program

Front 227

What maximum number of years active service can a master chief petty officer serve and still be eligible to apply for the Chief Warrant Officer Program?
1. 24 years
2. 20 years
3. 16 years
4. 12 years

Back 227

1. 24 years

Front 228

Which of the following officer
programs does/do not require a
college education?
1. Officer Candidate School
Program
2. Chief Warrant Officer Program
3. Limited Duty Officer Program
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 228

4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 229

Which of the following personnel may apply for the Chief Warrant Officer Program?
1. E-6, regular Navy, with 18
years of active service
2. E-7, Naval Reserve, with 10
years of Reserve service
3. E-8, Regular Navy, with 26
years of active service
4. E-9, Training and
Administration of Reserves
(TAR), with 22 years of service

Back 229

4. E-9, Training and
Administration of Reserves
(TAR), with 22 years of service

Front 230

Personnel who apply for the CWO Physician’s Assistant Program must be graduates of only the Basic Hospital Corps School.
1. True
2. False

Back 230

1. True

Front 231

Which of the following personnel may NOT apply for the Limited Duty Officer Program?
1. E-7 with 8 years of active
s e r v i c e
2. E-8 with 14 years of active
s e r v i c e
3. E-9 with 15 years of active
s e r v i c e
4. E-6 with 10 years of active
service and 2 years time in
r a t e

Back 231

3. E-9 with 15 years of active
s e r v i c e

Front 232

If you are a PO1 applicant for LDO and have met all requirements of CPO/SCPO applicants, which of the
following additional requirements must you meet?
1. Have a final multiple score
(FMS) equal to or greater than
the lowest FMS for PASS
SELECTION BOARD ELIGIBLE
2. Have Personnel Advancement Requirements for E-8 signed off
3. Have been awarded the Navy Commendation Medal
4. All of the above

Back 232

1. Have a final multiple score
(FMS) equal to or greater than
the lowest FMS for PASS
SELECTION BOARD ELIGIBLE

Front 233

What minimum active service
obligation must ECP selectees have before detaching from their present
command?
1. 6 years
2. 2 years
3. 3 years
4. 4 years

Back 233

1. 6 years

Front 234

Navy Regulations requires the
clothing of all nonrated personnel to be inspected at what interval?
1. Annually
2. Semiannually
3. At regular intervals
4. At irregular intervals

Back 234

3. At regular intervals

Front 235

Quarters for muster and inspection are held each work day just before
1. 0600
2. 0700
3. 0800
4. 0900

Back 235

3. 0800

Front 236

Which of the following
commissioning programs requires that you have at least a baccalaureate degree?
1. Enlisted Commissioning Program
2. Limited Duty Officer Program
3. Officer Candidate School
Program
4. Chief Warrant Officer Program

Back 236

3. Officer Candidate School
Program

Front 237

Which of the following courses
is/are recommended for an
individual preparing for LDO
s e l e c t i o n ?
1. Navy Regulations
2. Human Behavior
3. Watch Officer
4. Each of the above

Back 237

4. Each of the above

Front 238

Where is the Second Fleet located?

Back 238

Atlantic ocean
CINCLANTFLT

Front 239

Where is the Sixth Fleet located?

Back 239

Mediterranean Sea
CINCUSNAVEUR

Front 240

Where is the Third Fleet?

Back 240

West coast of the United States CINCPACFLT

Front 241

Where is the Seventh Fleet?

Back 241

Western Pacific and Indian Ocean CINCPACFLT

Front 242

Where is the Fifth Fleet?

Back 242

Middle East CENTCOM

Front 243

What was the first Trident submarine launched?

Back 243

Ohio SSBN-726

Front 244

What is Amphibious warfare?

Back 244

Attacks launched from the sea onto an enemy shore.

Front 245

What is Mine warfare?

Back 245

The use of mines and mine countermeasures to control sea or harbor areas.

Front 246

What is Special warfare?

Back 246

Nonconventional in nature and usualy conducted in secrecy.

Front 247

What is Ocean Surveilance?

Back 247

Ocean surveillance is the observation of ocean areas to detect, locate, and classify selected air, surface,
and subsurface targets.

Front 248

What is Electronic warfare?

Back 248

Electronic warfare ensures the effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum by friendly forces while determining, reducing, or preventing its use by an enemy.

Front 249

What is Logistics?

Back 249

The resupply of combat consumables to combatant forces during operations.

Front 250

What is the shipboard integrated AAW combat weapons system?

Back 250

AEGIS

Front 251

How many targets can the AEGIS system track at once?

Back 251

Over 100

Front 252

What is the Navy's medium-range, rocket boosted, turbo-sustained cruise missile?

Back 252

Harpoon

Front 253

What is the Navy's first all-weather, automatic-controlled gunsystem designed to provide defense against close in, seaskimming cruise missiles?

Back 253

The Phalanx

Front 254

What air to air missile was introduced to the fleet with the F-14 aircraft in 1974?

Back 254

Phoenix

Front 255

What is the Navy's all weather, submarine or suface launched, longrange subsonic cruise missile?

Back 255

Tomahawk

Front 256

What is the ability to deploy and employ without unacceptable delays?

Back 256

Readiness

Front 257

What instruction do ships base all drills and basic bills from?

Back 257

SORN
Standard Organization and Regulations of the Navy
OPNAVINST 3120.32

Front 258

What is OPNAVINST 3120.32?

Back 258

SORN

Front 259

What type of ships is the Ticonderoga class?

Back 259

CG

Front 260

What type of ship is the Oliver Hazard Perry?

Back 260

FFG

Front 261

What type of ship is the Arliegh Burke?

Back 261

DDG

Front 262

What type of ship is the Ohio?

Back 262

SSBN

Front 263

What type of aircraft is the Tomcat?

Back 263

F-14

Front 264

What type of aircraft is the Hornet?

Back 264

F-18

Front 265

The RIM-66 is what type of missile?

Back 265

Standard surface to air

Front 266

The Rim-67 is what type of missle?

Back 266

Extended range standard missile

Front 267

The RGM-84 is what type of missile?

Back 267

Harpoon antiship missile

Front 268

What is an AIM-54?

Back 268

Phoenix air to air missile

Front 269

What is a MK-48?

Back 269

Torpedo

Front 270

What is a BGM-109?

Back 270

Tomahawk Cruise missile

Front 271

What type of training is designed to turn a materially ready and manned ship into a ship that is fully capable of performing its assigned mission.

Back 271

Refresher training

Front 272

Which inspections ensure ships follow correct record setup and administrative procedures?
These inspections give the greatest attention to the ship’s planned maintenance system (PMS).

Back 272

Administrative inspections

Front 273

MOST EFFECTIVE WAY TO INFORM PERSONNEL OF THEIR STANDING IN THE DIVISION.

Back 273

COUNSELING

Front 274

3 METHODS OF COUNSELING YOUR DIVISION CAN USE.

Back 274

LETTTER OF INSTRUCTION/COUNSELING SHEET
PAGE 13
ENLISTED EVALUATION REPORT

Front 275

NOTES A DISCREPANCY, RECOMMENDS A SOLUTION TO THAT PROBLEM, AND PROVIDES A FOLLOW-UP DATE FOR REEVALUATION.

Back 275

COUNSELING SHEETS

Front 276

ADMIMISTRATIVE REMARKS PAGE OF THE ENLISRED SERVICE RECORD USED TO PROVIDE A CHRONOLOGICAL RECORD OF SIGNIFICANT MISCELLANEOUS ENTRIES NOT PROVIDED ON THE OTHER PAGES OF THE RECORD.

Back 276

PAGE 13

Front 277

WHAT 2 CATEGORIES IS LEADERSHIP DIVIDED INTO?

Back 277

COUNSLEING AND DIRECTING

Front 278

EXPLAINS AN INDIVIDUAL RIGHTS WHEN IT COMES TO EVALUATIONS.

Back 278

ARTICLE 1122 NAVY REGULATIONS

Front 279

FORM NUMBER FOR THE ENLISTED PERFORMANCE EVALUATION REPORT-INDIVIDUAL INPUT

Back 279

NAVPERS 1616/21