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108 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What program ensures that commands do not wait for discriminatory incidents to occur before taking corrective action?
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(Command Managed Equal Opportunity)
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What Naval units are required to have a CMEO Program?
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(All units)
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Whose responsibility is it to ensure a positive equal opportunity program exists within the command?
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(The CO)
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At what level is the CMEO program managed?
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(At the command level)
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What makes equal opportunity a reality within the command?
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(Command-level control)
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At what level should EO issues be handled?
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(At the lowest level possible)
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From what two perspectives can equal opportunity be viewed?
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(Administrative and Personnel)
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What is the purpose of the Command Assessment Team (CAT)?
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(To assess EO within the command)
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What is the purpose of the Command Training Team (CTT)?
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(To provide instruction on service member’s rights such as EEO and Navy Rights and Responsibility Workshops)
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What tool is an efficient way to collect data?
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(Surveys)
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What tool provides information that is not available in records?
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(Interviews)
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This tool provides a means of determining what people actually or how they behave and interact?
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(Observation)
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What are the three methods that commands may use to enforce equal opportunity?
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(Warnings; NJP; and Separation)
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Punishment for an offense must be imposed within after the offense?
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(Two years)
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What is the NAVPERS 1626/7 otherwise known as?
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(Report and Disposition of Offenses)
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What article of the UCMJ explains one’s rights?
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(Article 31)
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How shall multiple offenses under the UCMJ be documented on the NAVPERS 1626/7?
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(By the use of Arabic numerals)
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What manual gives advice on pre-mast restraint?
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(The JAG Manual)
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When may an individual request a court martial in lieu of mast?
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(When the accused is not attached to or embarked on a vessel)
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What is the role of the PIO in an investigation?
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(To gather facts about the case and the background of the accused)
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What section of the NAVPERS 1626/6 does the PIO complete?
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(E)
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When is the XO authorized to administer punishment to an offender?
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(Never)
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What is the only requirement the accused must meet in requesting a court martial rather than Captain’s Mast?
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(It must be made before punishment is imposed)
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How many different type of punishment may be awarded at mast?
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(9)
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What is the least severe form of denying liberty?
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(Restriction)
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What article of Navy Regulations prohibits persons under arrest in quarters from exercising authority over subordinates?
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(Article 1020)
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Correctional custody may be awarded to whom?
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(Unrated personnel only)
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Confinement on bread and water may only be awarded to what service members?
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(Non-rated on vessels)
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What is the maximum length of time that an individual may be awarded confinement on bread and water?
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(Three days)
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How many grades may an individual be reduced at a single appearance at mast?
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(One)
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What is considered the most severe form of NJP?
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(Reduction in grade)
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Service members may not be awarded extra duty on but may be awarded extra duty on holidays?
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(Sundays)
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Detention of Pay cannot last longer than______________?
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(One year)
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How long can commanders defer confinement on bread and water or correctional custody?
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(15 days)
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How long does and individual have to appeal a decision of NJP?
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(5 days)
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What is the navy’s most effective detection and deterrent to the use of drugs?
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(Urinalysis)
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Recruits are tested within how many hours of reporting to boot camp?
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(48)
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In 1986 approximately how many urine samples were tested throughout the navy?
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(2 million)
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What is the navy’s policy on drug use?
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(Zero tolerance)
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Some commonly used drug paraphernalia would be what?
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(Cotton balls; bent spoons and syringes)
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Heroin is manufactured from what drug?
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(Morphine and is 10 times stronger than morphine)
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What is the number one abused drug in the United States?
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(Alcohol)
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Why does alcohol quickly affect the central nervous system?
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(Because it is directly absorbed into the blood stream)
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What indicator do most states use to determine if someone is intoxicated or not?
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(Blood Alcohol Level)
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How does alcohol affect the taking of prescription drugs?
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(It causes the drug to be metabolized slower causing the drug to last longer in the system)
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How does the navy define alcoholism?
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(Depending on alcohol psychologically and or physiologically)
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What technique does the navy use to treat alcoholism?
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(The method that matches the needs of the person to the appropriate therapy)
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What stigma is usually attached to alcoholism?
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(It is a moral weakness rather than a disease)
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What is the maximum amount of time that a person can be assigned to a Level II counseling program?
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(4 weeks)
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How many alcohol rehabilitation centers does the navy operate?
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(4)
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Who are the only individuals that need to know of a drug dog inspection?
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(The handler and the CO)
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Level III is residential therapy that last normally lasts for how many weeks?
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(6)
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A second Level III stay may be recommended by the Co but shall not last for longer than _______________?
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(Three weeks)
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How long is the navy’s aftercare program?
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(180 days)
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Navy Drug and Alcohol Counselors must complete an internship lasting for how long?
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(One year)
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What is the objective of the safety program?
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(To enhance readiness by reducing the number of deaths to personnel and damage to equipment)
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are unplanned events?
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(Mishaps)
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What is one of the primary jobs of the Safety Petty Officer?
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(To train personnel in one’s division to notice safety violations)
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What is the title of the OPNAVINST 5100.23B?
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(NAVOSH Program Manual)
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What serves as an evaluation of the training provided on a continuing basis by supervisory personnel?
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(Monitoring)
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What are the three types of safety observations?
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(Incidental; deliberate; and Planned)
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This is a safety observation that occurs when you notice safety hazards without deliberately taking time to look for them?
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(Incidental)
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This is a safety observation performed when you pause in whatever you are doing to see if a person does some part of a job safely?
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(Deliberate)
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This is a safety observation when you deliberately schedule time to watch for safety measures being implemented?
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(Planned)
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The purpose of a ________________ is to identify possible hazards or potential mishaps and to develop solutions to eliminate; nullify; or prevent them?
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(Job Safety Analysis (JSA))
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What is the form number for the Workplace Monitoring Plan?
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(OPNAV 5400/14)
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Where are the recommendations of the Enlisted Safety Committee forwarded to?
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(The safety council)
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How often should the safety committee meet?
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(Monthly)
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What are the two principles of mishap prevention?
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(To eliminate potential mishap causes and prevent mishaps and to spot and eliminate potential mishap causes)
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Who assists the safety officer in keeping the safety program visible to all hands?
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(The MAA/Safety Force)
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Persons with circulatory diseases shall not operate what type of tools?
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(Vibrating tools)
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What OPNAV instruction requires supervisors to ensure that their personnel are aware of safety precautions; the work cite is safe; and personnel are outfitted with protective clothing?
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(5100.19B)
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What type of material is prohibited from use or storage aboard ship?
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(Methyl Bromide)
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Who must approve the removal of asbestos aboard ship?
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(The CO)
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Rip-out asbestos teams will be composed of what minimum number of persons?
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(3)
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Who conducts respirator fit-testing?
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(The Gas Free Engineer)
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What type of equipment should only be used for breathing air in emergency situations?
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(OBA)
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What is the respirator cartridge color to be used with organic vapors?
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(Black)
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What is the respirator cartridge color to be used with radioactive materials?
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(Purple)
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What is the respirator cartridge color to be used with acid gasses?
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(White)
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Working in areas which average 84db requires what?
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(Personnel be entered into a hearing conservation program)
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Who is responsible for identifying eye hazard areas?
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(The safety officer)
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A heat stress survey should be conducted whenever the dry-bulb reading is above what temperature?
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(100 degrees)
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Who identifies the number of tag out logs that each type of ship is to maintain?
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(The Squadron Commander)
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How many sections does a tag-out-log have?
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(4)
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A tag out log inspection is performed on non-nuclear ships how often?
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(Every two weeks)
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What does your signature on a tag out log indicate?
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(The log is verified and is up-to-date)
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What manual(s) give the senior person the authority to be in charge in a survival situation?
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(Code of Conduct and Navy Regulations)
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All persons placed in a survival situation will experience what emotion?
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(Fear)
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Enemy observers can spot you in the woods up to how far away?
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(100 yards)
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What are you directed to do as soon as you are captured by the enemy?
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(Begin planning for an escape)
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Model POW camps with adequate food and medical attention are ____________?
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(The exception)
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When are you allowed to inform on a fellow POW?
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(Never)
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What acronym illustrates the elements of survival?
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(SURVIVAL)
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What does the “S” in SURVIVAL stand for?
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(Size up the situation)
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What does the “U: in SURVIVAL stand for?
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(Undue haste makes waste)
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What does the “R” in SURVIVAL stand for?
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(Remember where you are)
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What does the “V” in SURVIVAL stand for?
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(Vanquish fear and panic)
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What does the “I” in SURVIVAL stand for?
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(Improvise)
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What does the second “V” in SURVIVAL stand for?
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(Value living)
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What does the “A” in SURVIVAL stand for?
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(Act like the natives)
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What does the “L” in SURVIVAL stand for?
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(Learn basic skills)
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Impatience and carelessness will lead to what?
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(The taking of unnecessary risks)
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What will lead to improving your situation in a survival situation??
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(Improvising)
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The group with the best chance of survival is the group that _________________?
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(Works together)
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In a survival situation tasks should be assigned based on what?
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(The personal qualifications of each person)
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What is the military’s policy on injury to personnel in a survival situation?
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(Wounded and injured personnel will not be left behind)
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What can greatly reduce the chances of survival of the group in a survival situation?
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(The health and strength of your group)
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