Navedtra 14144 Chief Petty Officer Chapter 3

Front 1

Which, if any, of the following
levels of management contains chief petty officers?
1. Top
2. Middle
3. Operating
4. None of the above

Back 1

Operating

Front 2

In which of the following types of planning are chiefs normally
involved?
1. Single–use
2. Standing
3. Strategic
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 2

Single–use

Front 3

What type of planning involves
activities that will occur in 2 to 5 years?
1. Strategic
2. Standing
3. Procedures
4. Single-use

Back 3

Strategic

Front 4

Which of the following plans gives broad general statements of expected
behavior?
1. P o l i c i e s
2. Procedures
3. Rules and regulations
4. Organizational objectives

Back 4

P o l i c i e s

Front 5

Which of the following plans are detailed standing plans?
1.P o l i c i e s
2.Procedures
3.Rules and regulations
4.Organizational objectives

Back 5

Procedures

Front 6

What type of organizational document should you use to help avoid crisis management?
1. The command policies
2. The command procedures
3. The command organizational o b j e c t i v e s
4. The command’s rules and
regulations

Back 6

The command procedures

Front 7

Which of the following statements concerning rules and regulations is true?
1. They are standing plans
2. They state what you may or may not do in a given situation
3. Commands use them to ensure personnel comply with command p o l i c y
4. Each of the above

Back 7

Each of the above

Front 8

Which of the following types of
control is expressed in numerical terms, usually by category and a period of time?
1. Budget
2. Policy
3. Program
4. Project

Back 8

Budget

Front 9

Single-use plans are developed
which of the following plans?
1. Strategic
2. Programs
3. Projects
4. Budgets

Back 9

Strategic

Front 10

Which of the following statements defines management by objectives (MBO)?
1. MBO states a specific goal and gives the major steps, the
timing of the steps, and the
resources required
2. Supervisors set the goals and subordinates have no input to the planning process
3. Supervisors and subordinates set overall goals for the organization together
4. MBO states the amount of time, money, personnel, and other resources to be used

Back 10

Supervisors and subordinates set overall goals for the organization together

Front 11

The purpose of MBO is to set clearly defined goals everyone can understand.
1. True
2. False

Back 11

True

Front 12

What principle is MBO based on?
1. People are more willing to work toward a goal they are committed to
2. People will do everything
possible to meet the goals they s e t
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Supervisors should set all the goals because workers are
basically lazy

Back 12

Both 1 and 2 above

Front 13

Which of the following items is NOT a disadvantage of management by objectives ?
1. It may cause leaders to overlook objectives that cannot be measured
2. It forces leaders to focus on
important objectives
3. It requires more time to use
4. It increases paperwork

Back 13

It forces leaders to focus on
important objectives

Front 14

You will find the work requirements for your division in which of the following divisional documents?
1. Strategic plans
2 . Single-use plans
3. Rules and regulations
4. All of the above

Back 14

All of the above

Front 15

What is the first step in setting
goals for work requirements?
1. Identify the difference between the real and ideal situation
2. Develop a single–use plan to
implement the change
3. Recognize the real situation in your division
4. Make a commitment to change

Back 15

Recognize the real situation in your division

Front 16

Which of the following statements defines the goal setting criteria of being behavior specific?
1. Specifies the necessary action to take
2. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal
3. Specifies criteria or check
points for accomplishing the
goal
4. Tests your ability, but has at. least a 50 percent chance of being attained

Back 16

Specifies the necessary action to take

Front 17

The goal setting criteria of being measurable is defined by which of the following statements?
1. The goal tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
2 . The goal specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
3. The goal provides a time
schedule or deadline for
reaching the goal
4. The goal specifies the necessary action to take

Back 17

The goal specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal

Front 18

Which of the following statements defines realistic but challenging goal setting criteria?
1. Tests your ability, but has at
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained
2 . Specifies criteria or check
points for accomplishing the
goal
3. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal
4. Specifies the necessary action to take

Back 18

Tests your ability, but has at
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained

Front 19

Which of the following statements defines time-phased goal setting c r i t e r i a ?
1. Tests your ability, but has at
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained
2. Specifies criteria or check
points for accomplishing the
goal
3. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal
4. Specifies the necessary action to take

Back 19

Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal

Front 20

If a task does not fit into the
priority of urgent, important, or
important/urgent, when should you do the task?
1. Whenever you find time
2. Before the urgent task
3. Before the important task
4. Before the urgent/important task

Back 20

Whenever you find time

Front 21

Why should you use strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis?
1. To determine where the division needs improvement
2. To determine opportunities
available to the division
3. To determine if there are any
obstacles the division must
overcome
4. All of the above

Back 21

All of the above

Front 22

What would an available school quota be classified as during a SWOT analysis?
1. Strength
2. Weakness
3. Opportunity
4. Threat

Back 22

Opportunity

Front 23

You must assign a person to a billet that requires completion of a personnel qualification standard. When, if ever, is the person considered qualified to fill the b i l l e t ?
1. When the assignment is made
2. When the person completes the personnel qualification standard
3. When the service record entry documenting completion of the personnel qualification standard is made
4. Never

Back 23

When the service record entry documenting completion of the personnel qualification standard is made

Front 24

Trying to anticipate problems and making corrections before problems occur requires which of the following types of control?
1. Quality
2 . Feedback
3. Concurrent
4. Feedforward

Back 24

Feedforward

Front 25

Which of the following types of
control involves making corrections after an event happens?
1. Feedforward
2. Concurrent
3. Feedback
4. Quality

Back 25

Feedback

Front 26

Which of the following types of
control involves making changes as an event occurs?
1. Quality
2. Feedback
3. Concurrent
4. Feed forward

Back 26

Concurrent

Front 27

An inspection of the raw input for defects is what type of quality control?
1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback

Back 27

Quality circle

Front 28

Which of the following types of
quality control is based on doing the job right the first time?
1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback

Back 28

Zero defects

Front 29

Which of the following types of
control is measurable?
1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt chart
4. Each of the above

Back 29

Each of the above

Front 30

Which of the following types of
control was developed by the Navy while constructing the Polaris missile?
1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt Chart
4. PERT

Back 30

PERT

Front 31

When constructing a PERT network, what is the fourth step?
1. Control the project
2. Find the critical path
3. Look for ways to improve the
p r o j e c t
4. Define the order needed to
complete the component task

Back 31

Find the critical path

Front 32

Which of the following statements identifies the basic difference between PERT and CPM?
1. CPM requires only one time
estimate
2. CPM includes a cost estimate as well as time estimates
3. CPM assumes you have some experience in performing each component task
4. Each of the above

Back 32

Each of the above

Front 33

As an element of effective control, your subordinates expect you to control their work by comparing it
to a set standard.
1. True
2. False

Back 33

True

Front 34

When you evaluate your control system to eliminate unnecessary costs, you are using which of the following elements of effective control?
1. Effectiveness
2. Acceptance
3. Timeliness
4. Accuracy

Back 34

Effectiveness

Front 35

A person who gives advice to the commanding officer would belong to which, if any, of the following types of organization?
1. Line
2. S t a f f
3. Functional
4. None of the above

Back 35

None of the above

Front 36

A major department responsible for accomplishing the mission of the command belongs to which of the following types of organization?
1. Line
2. S t a f f
3. Functional
4. Each of the above

Back 36

Line

Front 37

A functional organization is defined by which of the following statements?
1. Does not have authority over
line departments
2. Is responsible for accomplishing
the command mission
3. Has authority over all parts of the command in ensuring its
special function is met
4. Gives advice to line departments

Back 37

Has authority over all parts of the command in ensuring its
special function is met

Front 38

The division of work is explained by which of the following organizational concepts?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization

Back 38

Specialization

Front 39

The order of control within an
organization is defined by which of the following terms?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization

Back 39

Unity of command

Front 40

How many people can one person effectively supervise?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 12
4. 13

Back 40

5

Front 41

The order of authority within an
organization is explained by which of the following organizational
concepts?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization

Back 41

Chain of command

Front 42

Delegating your authority is an
outstanding way to train
subordinates for positions of
greater authority.
1. True
2. False

Back 42

True

Front 43

Which of the following statements concerning authority is correct?
1. Most authority in the Navy is
delegated
2. Subordinates usually accept
authority readily
3. Subordinates must recognize you have authority over them before your authority exist
4. Each of the above

Back 43

Each of the above

Front 44

When you tell a junior enlisted
person in another division or work center to get a haircut, you are exercising which, if any, of the following types of authority?
1. Line
2 . S t a f f
3. Functional
4. None of the above

Back 44

Line

Front 45

The use of threats or negative
rewards is the use of which of the following types of power?
1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational

Back 45

Coercive

Front 46

When you influence others through the use of your specialized knowledge, you are exercising which of the following types of power?
1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational

Back 46

Expert

Front 47

Which of the following types of
power do you have simply because people identify with you being a c h i e f ?
1. Expert
2 . Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational

Back 47

Referent

Front 48

Which of the following statements concerning leadership is true?
1. It is the motivating force that
leads to coordinated action and unity of effort
2. Leaders must encourage, inspire, teach, stimulate, and motivate all individuals of the
organization
3. You should never let a
subordinate be criticized or
penalized by anyone but yourself
4. Each of the above

Back 48

Each of the above

Front 49

A leader who believes people must be coerced, controlled, directed, or threatened is using which of the following leadership theories?
1. W
2. X
3. Y
4. Z

Back 49

X

Front 50

Immediate compliance to orders, tight job control, and numerous detailed reports on jobs are characteristics of which of the following leadership styles?
1. Coach
2. Coercer
3. Affiliatior
4. Pacesetter

Back 50

Coercer

Front 51

Which of the following definitions identifies the authoritarian style
of leadership?
1. Negative feedback is given and name calling is frequent
2 . Motivation is generated through threats of discipline or
punishment
3. Rewards are given for personal characteristics and punishment is rare
4. Clear direction is given with no doubt about who makes the final decisions

Back 51

Clear direction is given with no doubt about who makes the final decisions

Front 52

Leaders who would rather do the job themselves, set high standards, expect self–direction, and have
trouble delegating authority,
exercise which of the following
leadership styles?
1. A f f i l i a t o r
2. Pacesetter
3. Democratic
4. Coach

Back 52

Pacesetter

Front 53

A democratic leadership style would be particularly harmful in a drill or battle condition for which of the following reasons?
1. It requires time for meetings
2. The leader lacks control of the group
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. It takes authority away from
subordinates

Back 53

Both 1 and 2 above

Front 54

What leadership style is well suited to a counselor but would have a negative effect on a work center operating on a tight schedule?
1. Authoritarian
2. A f f i l i a t o r
3. Democratic
4. Coach

Back 54

Democratic

Front 55

When you prepare your work center for inspection by incorporating preparation for inspection into the daily routine, you are demonstrating which of the following management s k i l l s ?
1. Concern for standards
2 . Concern for efficiency
3. Planning and organizing
4. Supervising for effective
performance

Back 55

Planning and organizing

Front 56

You would exhibit the leadership skill commitment to the command's mission by taking which of the
following actions?
1. Seeing yourself as a leader
2. Making yourself available to
answer questions
3. Using threats or your authority to influence others
4. Acting with the best interest of the command in mind

Back 56

Acting with the best interest of the command in mind

Front 57

Which of the following statements describes the action you should take in developing others?
1. Use the proper setting and
timing for optimum impact
2. See yourself as someone who makes things happen
3. Provide constructive feedback to subordinates
4. See yourself as a leader

Back 57

See yourself as a leader

Front 58

Which of the following personal
characteristics is defined as
confronting issues directly and
insisting others recognize your
place in the chain of command?
1. Concern for achievement
2 . Analytical problem solving
3. Persistence
4. Assertiveness

Back 58

Assertiveness

Front 59

Which of the following personal
characteristics is defined as being a self–starter, seeing problems, and taking action to correct the problems without being told?
1. Interpersonal awareness
2. Assertiveness
3. Persistence
4. I n i t i a t i v e

Back 59

I n i t i a t i v e

Front 60

Which of the following is a benefit of Total Quality Management?
1. Increased pride of workmanship among individual workers
2 . Improved sustainability caused by extended time between equipment failures
3. Streamlined maintenance and production processes
4. Each of the above

Back 60

Each of the above