Navedtra 14028 At3 Chap 1

Front 1

1-1. What unit of measurement is common to
both the English system and to the
metric system?
1. Distance
2. Force
3. Mass
4. Time

Back 1

time

Front 2

1-2. What is the basis for metric units of
length?
1. The angstrom
2. The micron
3. The meter
4. The kilometer

Back 2

meter

Front 3

1-3. Refer to table 1-2 in your text. To
convert meters to millimeters, you
should move the decimal point to the
1. right, six places
2. left, nine places
3. right, three places
4. left, six places

Back 3

right, 3 places

Front 4

1-4. The mil is a measure of length equal
to one one-thousandth of a/an
1. centimeter
2. inch
3. foot
4. yard

Back 4

2. inch

Front 5

1-5. What term defines the quantity of
matter that a body contains?
1. Volume
2. Height
3. Mass
4. Density

Back 5

3. Mass

Front 6

1-6. A given object will weigh the most
under which of the following
conditions?
1. When compressed to a greater
density and a smaller volume
2. When expanded to a greater
volume and a lesser density
3. When located at one of the
earth’s poles
4. When located on the equator

Back 6

3. When located at one of the
earth’s poles

Front 7

1-7. Dynes and newtons are used in the
metric system as units of
1. work
2. force
3. pressure
4. mass

Back 7

force

Front 8

1-8. The knot is a derived unit that
combines the unit of distance with
the unit of
1. power
2. work
3. time
4. acceleration

Back 8

time

Front 9

1-9. Under which of the following
conditions may the term velocity be
used in place of speed?
1. Only if the unit of measurement
is distance per second for a
given length of time
2. Only if the unit of measurement
is distance per hour for a given
length of time
3. Only if the motion of the body is
in a circular path following a
given arc
4. Only if the motion of the body is
in a straight path in a given
direction

Back 9

4. Only if the motion of the body is
in a straight path in a given
direction

Front 10

1-10. To raise the temperature of 8 pounds
of water 5°F requires a heat energy
of
1. 40 calories
2. 4 Btu
3. 252 calories
4. 777.8 foot-pounds

Back 10

40 calories

Front 11

1-11. What is the mechanical equivalent of
10 BTU of heat energy?
1. 1,356 foot-pounds
2. 2,520 foot-pounds
3. 7,460 foot-pounds
4. 7,778 foot-pounds

Back 11

4. 7,778 foot-pounds

Front 12

1-12. All units of power involve which of
the following measurements?
1. Force, distance, and time
2. Mass, velocity, and time
3. Work and distance
4. Mass and distance

Back 12

1. Force, distance, and time

Front 13

1-13. The power unit watt is not
restricted to electricity. It may
be converted to horsepower for
mechanical purposes. Therefore, 746
watts is the equivalent of what
horsepower?
1. 1.0 hp
2. 2.0 hp
3. 0.5 hp
4. 2.5 hp

Back 13

1. 1.0 hp

Front 14

1-14. All matter, regardless of its form,
has mass and which of the following
characteristics?
1. It has a constant weight
2. It occupies space
3. It is measured in newtons
4. It weighs more at the equator
than at the North Pole

Back 14

2. It occupies space

Front 15

1–15. Matter exists in three natural
states. Of the following lists,
which one contains the states of
matter?
1. Physical, chemical, and nuclear
2. Electron, proton, and neutron
3. Solid, liquid, and gas
4. Fluid, porous, and vapor

Back 15

3. Solid, liquid, and gas

Front 16

1-16. Which of the following materials
possesses the property of porosity?
1. Liquids
2. Solids
3. Empty space
4. All of the above

Back 16

4. All of the above

Front 17

1-17. The reluctance of an object to
change its speed, direction, or
position of rest is known as
1. cohesion
2. density
3. inertia
4. weight

Back 17

3. inertia

Front 18

1-18. What term describes the quantitative
measure of inertia?
1. Acceleration
2. Density
3. Weight
4. Mass

Back 18

4. Mass

Front 19

1-19. Acceleration does NOT occur in which
of the following circumstances?
1. A car traveling at 50 MPH turns a
curve
2. A car traveling at 50 MPH in one
direction for 2 minutes
3. A car starts from a stop and
reaches 60 MPH in 18 seconds
4. A car slows from 60 MPH to 45 MPH
in 12 seconds

Back 19

2. A car traveling at 50 MPH in one
direction for 2 minutes

Front 20

1-20. What name is given to the space
through which action-at-a-distance
forces are effective?
1. Weight
2. Gravity
3. Force field
4. Force space

Back 20

3. Force field

Front 21

1-21. A vector has which of the following
quantities?
1. Magnitude and direction only
2. Mass, magnitude, and direction
only
3. Magnitude, space, and direction
only
4. Mass, magnitude, space, and
direction

Back 21

1. Magnitude and direction only

Front 22

1-22. The attractive force exerted on a
body by the earth is known as
1. velocity
2. inertia
3. gravity
4. acceleration

Back 22

3. gravity

Front 23

1-23. The weight of a body is determined
by calculating the
1. sum of the body mass and
acceleration
2. gravitational pull on the body
minus the associated frictional
forces
3. gravitational pull between 1
cubic inch of the body and the
earth’s surface
4. force on the body exerted by
gravity

Back 23

4. force on the body exerted by
gravity

Front 24

1-24. What mathematical calculation should
you use to determine the specific
gravity of a substance?
1. Divide the volume of the
substance by its weight
2. Divide the weight of the
substance by the weight of an
equal volume of water
3. Divide the volume of the
substance by the volume of an
equal weight of water
4. Take the reciprocal of the
substance’s density

Back 24

2. Divide the weight of the
substance by the weight of an
equal volume of water

Front 25

1-25. Over a given surface under pressure,
what is the relationship between
force per unit area and pressure?
1. Force is constant regardless of
pressure changes
2. Force is directly proportional
to pressure
3. Force is equal to pressure
divided by unit area
4. Force is equal to unit area
divided by pressure

Back 25

1. Force is constant regardless of
pressure changes

Front 26

1-26. A mass in motion is stopped. What
happens to its kinetic energy?
1. It is converted to other forms of
energy
2. It is returned to the source that
produced it
3. It is increased by the amount
necessary to stop the mass
4. It is destroyed

Back 26

1. It is converted to other forms of
energy

Front 27

1-27. Which of the following statements
describes an ion?
1. An atom that does not have
protons in its nucleus
2. An atom that does not attract
other atoms
3. An atom with an overall neutral
electrical charge
4. An atom with an unequal number of
electrons and protons

Back 27

3. An atom with an overall neutral
electrical charge

Front 28

1-28. The mass, and consequently the
weight, of an atom is contained
almost entirely in the
1. nucleus
2. orbiting electrons
3. neutrons
4. electrons in the nucleus

Back 28

1. nucleus

Front 29

l-29. What is indicated by the atomic
number assigned to an element?
1. The number of protons in its
nucleus
2. The number of atoms that give the
element its distinguishing
characteristics
3. The total mass of one of its
atoms
4, The chronological order in which
the element was discovered

Back 29

1. The number of protons in its
nucleus

Front 30

1-30. By what means can you determine the
total number of protons and neutrons
in an atom?
1. By the number of electrons it
contains
2. By squaring its atomic number
3. By halving its atomic weight
4. By its atomic weight

Back 30

4. By its atomic weight

Front 31

1-31. Which of the following
characteristics indicates that an
element is inert?
1. The outer electron shell of each
atom is completely filled
2. The outer electron shell of each
atom is balanced with the
nucleus
3. It attracts free electrons
4. It repels free electrons

Back 31

1. The outer electron shell of each
atom is completely filled

Front 32

1-32. Valence bonds hold ions together and
form them into molecules. This
action results from interaction
between
1. protons
2. nuclei
3. inner-shell electrons
4. outer-shell electrons

Back 32

4. outer-shell electrons

Front 33

1-33. What is the result of elements
physically combining without
undergoing a chemical change?
1. A compound
2. A mixture
3. A valence bind
4. A loss of their chemical
identities

Back 33

2. A mixture

Front 34

1-34. Molecules are constantly in motion
in which of the following
substances?
1. Gases only
2. Solids and liquids only
3. Liquids only
4. Gases, solids, and liquids

Back 34

4. Gases, solids, and liquids

Front 35

1-35. Which of the following metals has the
highest property of elasticity?
1. Lead
2. Bronze
3. Tin
4. Aluminum

Back 35

2. Bronze

Front 36

1-36. Which of the following substances
possesses the property of elasticity
of compression?
1. Liquids
2. Solids
3. Gases
4. All of the above

Back 36

4. All of the above

Front 37

1-37. Which of the following statements is
correct concerning the mechanical
nature of liquids?
1. Hydraulic machinery permits
liquids to be used to maintain
input forces, which limits the
advantages gained in mechanics
2, Uniform action is obtained
without vibration, making the
operation of the system largely
affected only by vibrations in
loads
3. Liquids can transmit energy
around bends by using gears and
levers, making remote location of
system components possible
4. Energy can be transmitted through
liquids instantaneously and
equally in all directions

Back 37

1. Hydraulic machinery permits
liquids to be used to maintain
input forces, which limits the
advantages gained in mechanics

Front 38

1-38. The accepted theory of gases assumes
that gas molecules possess which of
the following properties?
1. High cohesion
2. High elasticity
3. In an unpressurized enclosed
container, they exert pressure on
the bottom and sides only
4. They exert equal pressure at all
points on enclosing surfaces

Back 38

4. They exert equal pressure at all
points on enclosing surfaces

Front 39

1-39. According to the kinetic theory,
which of the following statements is
correct concerning gases when
absolute zero temperature is
reached?
1. It is the temperature at which
no heat remains in the gas, but
not the lowest temperature
obtainable
2. It has been obtained only once,
at which time the absolute zero
point of -273.16°C was
determined
3. It is the temperature at which
all molecular activity stops
4. It is the temperature to which
liquids, solids, and gases can
be reduced and at which most
molecular activity ceases

Back 39

3. It is the temperature at which
all molecular activity stops

Front 40

1-40. In an experiment, it was observed
that the pressure of the gas in a
sealed container could be increased.
What other assumption could be made?
1. The temperature of the gas could
be increased
2. The temperature of the gas could
be decreased
3. The kinetic energy of the gas
could be decreased
4. The molecules of the gas gained
energy from each other

Back 40

4. The molecules of the gas gained
energy from each other

Front 41

1-41. Under some conditions, it is
possible for the center of gravity
to revolve around the center of
1. rotation
2. a tangent
3. revolution
4. levity

Back 41

1. rotation

Front 42

1 -42. In the study of masses in motion,
which of the following is a
description of the term acceleration?
1. An act or process of changing
place or position
2. A change in the body’s speed or
direction of travel
3. A natural tendency of a body in
motion to continue moving in a
straight line
4. An opposition of a body to having
its state of motion change

Back 42

2. A change in the body’s speed or
direction of travel

Front 43

1-43. The equations F = ma and a = F÷m
given in the text are mathematical
forms of Newton’s second law of
motion. What do they indicate?
1. A force acting on a body is
dependent upon the mass of that
body
2. An acceleration of a body is
dependent upon the force acting
on that body
3. The mass of a body is dependent
upon the force acting on it
4. The mass of a body is dependent
upon the acceleration it is giv

Back 43

4. The mass of a body is dependent
upon the acceleration it is give

Front 44

1-44. An automobile of a given mass
traveling 60 MPH has the same
momentum as one having twice that
mass and traveling at what velocity?
1. 10 MPH
2. 20 MPH
3. 30 MPH
4. 40 MPH

Back 44

3. 30 MPH

Front 45

1-45. Which of the following statements is
correct concerning work done by a
person who lifts a 50-pound weight 6
feet and holds it there for 1
minute?
1. Work is done both in lifting the
weight and holding it steady
2. Work is done in lifting the
weight but not in holding it
steady
3. No work is done because the
person does not move
4. No work is done because there is
no translational force present

Back 45

1. Work is done both in lifting the
weight and holding it steady

Front 46

1-46. For a body to possess kinetic
energy, it must be in which of the
following conditions?
1. Elevated from a position to
which it can return
2. Compressed or stretched from its
natural condition
3. At rest after working against a
restoring force
4. In motion

Back 46

4. In motion

Front 47

1-47. An automobile weighs 3,200 pounds
and is traveling 30 mph. A truck
weighs 6,400 pounds and is traveling
15 mph. How much kinetic energy
does each vehicle have?
Automobile Truck
1. 96,800 ft-lb 48,400 ft-lb
2. 48,400 ft-lb 96,800 ft-lb
3. 96,800 ft-lb 96,800 ft-lb
4. 48,400 ft-lb 48,400 ft-lb

Back 47

4. 48,400 ft-lb 48,400 ft-lb

Front 48

1-48. Which of the following is an
illustration of friction?
1. The contact of an airborne
aircraft with the air
2. The use of brakes on a landing
aircraft
3. The action of skates against ice
4. Each of the above

Back 48

4. Each of the above

Front 49

1-49. Increasing the mechanical advantage
of force in a system affects the
applied force by
1. increasing it by the same ratio
as the mechanical advantage
2. acting over a greater distance to
do the same work
3. requiring less total energy to do
the same work
4. causing the load to move a
greater distance

Back 49

3. requiring less total energy to do
the same work

Front 50

1-50. Relative to the center of revolution,
the direction of (a) centrifugal
force and (b) centripetal force is in
what direction?
1. (a) Away from (b) toward
2. (a) Toward (b) away from
3. (a) Away from (b) away from
4. (a} Toward (b) toward

Back 50

2. (a) Toward (b) away from

Front 51

1-51. Refer to the force formula given in
your textbook on rotational motion.
Which of the following statements is
correct concerning centripetal and
centrifugal forces as shown by this
formula?
1. The forces involved are inversely
proportional to mass and
velocity, and are directly
proportional to radius
2. The forces involved are directly
proportional to mass and
independent of radius
3. The smaller the radius or the
greater the mass, the smaller the
forces involved
4. The smaller the radius or the
greater the mass, the larger the
forces involved

Back 51

4. The smaller the radius or the
greater the mass, the larger the
forces involved

Front 52

1-52. The velocity of a wave depends on
which of the following factors?
1. Frequency of the wave
2. Amplitude of the disturbance
within the wave
3. The distance between the crests
of two adjacent waves
4. The type of wave and the medium
through which it travels

Back 52

4. The type of wave and the medium
through which it travels

Front 53

1-53. A single disturbance induced into a
medium is known as a
1. pulse train
2. wave pulse
3. wave train
4. wave

Back 53

2. wave pulse

Front 54

1-54. Which of the following terms defines
a wave as having the disturbance
take place at right angles to the
direction of wave travel?
1. Periodic
2. Compressional
3. Transverse
4. Longitudinal

Back 54

3. Transverse

Front 55

1-55. Which of the following is an example
of waves that are both transverse
and longitudinal?
1. Water waves
2. Sound waves
3. Light waves
4. Electromagnetic waves

Back 55

1. Water waves

Front 56

1-56. When a wave strikes a flat reflecting
surface, the angle of incidence is
the angle between the path of the
arriving wave and
1. an imaginary line perpendicular
to the reflecting surface at the
point of impact
2. an imaginary line perpendicular
to the path of the reflected wave
3. the reflecting surface at the
point of impact
4. the path of the reflected wa

Back 56

1. an imaginary line perpendicular
to the reflecting surface at the
point of impact

Front 57

1-57. Which of the following is a
requirement for total reflection to
take place?
1. A zero angle of incidence
2 The angle of incidence is smaller
than the critical angle
3. The angle of incidence is equal
to the critical angle
4. The angle of incidence is larger
than the critical angle

Back 57

4. The angle of incidence is larger
than the critical angle

Front 58

1-58. The most diffraction will occur when
sound is at which of the following
frequencies?
1. 100 Hz
2. 1000 Hz
3. 4444 Hz
4, 8888 Hz

Back 58

1. 100 Hz

Front 59

1-59. Doppler is the effect on waves
produced by
1. Loss of energy within the wave
due to absorption by the medium
2. successive media having different
velocities of propagation
3. relative motion between the wave
source and the detector
4. interaction between two waves at
the same frequency traveling in
opposite directions in the same
medium

Back 59

3. relative motion between the wave
source and the detector

Front 60

1-60. The theory of radiation of energy
treats radio, radar, and heat waves
as belonging to the same general
form of energy. What is the
principle difference between these
waves?
1. Phase
2. Polarity
3. Frequency
4. Magnitude

Back 60

3. Frequency

Front 61

1-61. Which of the following is a
description of the transfer of heat
by convection?
1. Electromagnetic wave travel
2 Heating a substance that flows
when heated
3. Molecular action whereby
molecules transfer heat to
adjacent molecules by collision

Back 61

2 Heating a substance that flows
when heated

Front 62

1-62. Consideration of the heat transfer
principle of radiation reveals that
radiant heat has which of the
following characteristics?
1. It moves at the speed of light
2. It always travels in a straight
line
3. It may pass through a medium
without heating it
4. Each of the above

Back 62

4. Each of the above

Front 63

1-63. At what temperature does the
Fahrenheit and Celsius scales
coincide?
1. Boiling
2. Freezing
3. Zero
4. 40° below zero

Back 63

4. 40° below zero

Front 64

1-64. What two temperature scales have
their zero points corresponding to
absolute zero?
1. Kelvin and Rankine
2. Celsius and Kelvin
3. Fahrenheit and Rankine
4. Celsius and Fahrenheit

Back 64

1. Kelvin and Rankine

Front 65

1-65. Copper wires are not used for
conductors through the glass
envelopes of electron tubes for which
of the following reasons?
1. Copper and glass have the same
expansion rate
2. Copper and glass do not have the
same expansion rate
3. Copper has a positive coefficient
of expansion while glass has a
negative coefficient
4. Copper has a negative coefficient
of expansion while glass has a
positive coefficient

Back 65

2. Copper and glass do not have the
same expansion rate

Front 66

1-66. The total increase in size of an
object when heated depends on the
amount of temperature change and
which of the following factors?
1. Its original size
2. Its coefficient of expansion
3. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Its average weight

Back 66

2. Its coefficient of expansion

Front 67

1-67. A steel plate 1 foot square has a
inch diameter hole through its
center. What, if anything, happens
to the area of the hole as the plate
is heated?
1. It decreases at approximately
same rate as the expanding steel
2. It decreases slightly, but the
amount is not predictable
3. It Increases at approximately
same rate as the expanding steel
4. Nothing; it remains the same
since it cannot be heated

Back 67

3. It Increases at approximately the
same rate as the expanding steel

Front 68

1-68. For some uses, solid thermometers
are more suitable than liquid-filled
thermometers for which of the
following reasons?
1. Liquid thermometers have a
limited temperature range
2. The vapor pressure of liquid is
not sufficient at high
temperatures
3. Atmospheric pressure changes
affect the reading of liquid
thermometers
4. The freezing point of most
liquids is too low

Back 68

1. Liquid thermometers have a
limited temperature range

Front 69

1-69. For each Btu of heat added to 1
pound of water, the temperature will
increase by what number of degrees?
1. 0.252°F
2. 1°F
3. 1°C
4. 252°C

Back 69

2. 1°F

Front 70

1-70. Refer to table l-6 in your text.
When equal amounts of heat are
applied to equal masses of the
following materials, which of them
will have the greatest increase in
temperature?
1. Copper
2. Glass
3. Silver
4. Water

Back 70

4. Water

Front 71

1-71. The heat required to change a solid
into a liquid with no change in
temperature is known as the heat of
1. fusion
2. combustion
3. condensation
4. vaporization

Back 71

1. fusion

Front 72

1-73 Some substances characteristically transmit almost all the light striking them,others transmit only part of it,and still others transmit none. Substances that exhibit these characteristics are known, respectiviely, as being

Back 72

1. gaseous, fluid, solid
2. absorbent, passive, clear
3. transparent, translucent, opaque
4. luminous, reflective, cloudy

Front 73

IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-1 THROUGH 2-3,
SELECT FROM COLUMN B THE MEASUREMENT WHICH
MAY BE EXPRESSED BY EACH OF THE UNITS LISTED
IN COLUMN A. ALL ANSWERS ARE NOT USED.
2-1. Candlepower

Back 73

2. Luminous
intensity

Front 74

2-2. Footcandle,
lux, phot

Back 74

4. Illumination

Front 75

2-3. Lambert, footlambert

Back 75

1. Luminance

Front 76

2-4. Of several transparent substances,
which one has the largest index of
refraction?
1. The one with the greatest
thickness
2. The one with the most curvature
of its surface
3. The one in which light travels
the slowest
4. The one that the light strikes
nearest the perpendicular to its
surface

Back 76

1. The one with the greatest
thickness

Front 77

2-5. A simple lens that is thicker in the
center than at the edges is known as
a
1. positive or convergent lens
2. positive or divergent lens
3. negative or convergent lens
4. negative or divergent lens

Back 77

1. positive or convergent lens

Front 78

2-6. In a given medium, the color of a
light wave is determined by which of
the following factors?
1. The wavelength only
2. The frequency only
3. The speed of travel and the
frequency
4. The speed of travel and the
wavelength

Back 78

2. The frequency only

Front 79

2-7. Of the several factors affecting
sound velocity in any medium, which
ones have the greatest effect?
1. Pressure and temperature of the
medium
2. Density and elasticity of the
medium
3. Frequency and amplitude of the
sound waves
4. Intensity and pitch of the sound
wave

Back 79

2. Density and elasticity of the
medium

Front 80

2-8. What is the minimum change in the
sound level that the human ear can
detect?
1. 0.1 dB
2. 1.0 dB
3. 1.0 bel
4. 10.0 bels

Back 80

2. 1.0 dB

Front 81

2-9. When using the following formula:
dB = 10 X log (P2 ÷ P1), your result
is a negative decibel value. What
does the negative value indicate?
1. The values used for P2 and P1
were transposed
2. P1 is less than P2
3. A loss in power
4. A gain in power

Back 81

3. A loss in power

Front 82

2-10. The audio power output from a speaker
would double if the sound intensity
were increased by what amount?
1. 1 dB
2. 10 dB
3. 3 dB
4. 30 dB

Back 82

3. 3 dB

Front 83

2-11. What does a vu meter indicate?
1. The number of decibels above or
below the input reference volume
level
2. The amount of deviation in
decibels from 1 milliwatt of
power
3. The amount of power dissipated in
a load resistance of 660 ohms
4. The multiple of 0.7746 X 600
variation above or below 1
milliwatt

Back 83

1. The number of decibels above or
below the input reference volume
level

Front 84

2-12 Sound waves striking a highly reflective surface

Back 84

2. Echo

Front 85

2-13. Multiple
reflections
of sound waves
between several
reflective surfaces

Back 85

4. Reverberation

Front 86

2-14. Two sound waves of slightly
different frequency moving in the
same direction

Back 86

1. Beat note

Front 87

2-15. A vibrating force applied to an
object at the object’s natural
vibrating frequency

Back 87

3. Resonance