Navair 80T-114 Natops Manual

Front 1

Delegation of approach control authority maybe temporary Suspended by a representative of the --- or the --- if such action is deemed necessary and the interest of flight safety

Back 1

FAA area manager or ATREP

Front 2

A formal report will be forwarded by the reporting type commander to the evaluated facility within --- working days after the conclusion of the NATOPS evaluation

Back 2

15

Front 3

For shore evaluations, --- shall be used during a NATOPS evaluation

Back 3

Appendix B

Front 4

The FAA has been authorized to assign am --- at ATC facilities where approach control authority has been delegated to the navy and Marine Corps

Back 4

Air traffic representative (ATREP)

Front 5

No NOTAM action is required for radar systems (PAR, ASR, etc.) that are a part of the national airspace system if the time periods do not exceed

Back 5

30 min

Front 6

No NOTAM action is required for NAVAIDs (TACAN, VOR, etc.) that are a part of the national airspace system if the time period does not exceed

Back 6

1hr

Front 7

No NOTAM action is required for all radars and NAVAIDs that are not part of the national airspace system if the time periods but do not exceed

Back 7

4 hrs

Front 8

Coordinate and submit NOTAM information within --- minutes of discovery of malfunction of radar systems, landing systems, and NAVAIDs

Back 8

15min

Front 9

No NOTAM action is required when scheduled routine preventative maintenance is performed, if the weather is at least --- at an airfield with 2 or more approach aids

Back 9

3000ft/5sm

Front 10

No NOTAM action is required when a scheduled routine preventative maintenance is performed if the weather is at least --- at an airfield with a single approach aid

Back 10

Sky condition scattered visibility 5sm

Front 11

During an unscheduled outage on radar systems, landing systems, and NAVAIDs that are not part of the national airspace system NOTAMs may be delayed for up to 2 hours if

Back 11

Daylight hours

Ceiling at least 3000'

Visibility at least 5sm

Front 12

Normally, Authority for monitoring navigational aids is delegated to approach control, or at locations not possessing Approach control authority, to the ---

Back 12

Control tower

Front 13

Monitors not providing automatic visual and/or aural alarms shall be checked ---- and the results logged

Back 13

At least hourly

Front 14

Nominations for ATC of the year awards shall be submitted to the reviewing cognizant command by --

Back 14

31 Jan

Front 15

Consult --- for procedures relating to shipboard TACAN Certification/ flight inspections

Back 15

NAVAIR AE-TACAN-GYD-000

Front 16

Commanding officers having cognizance of a navigational aid that is either commissioned or decommissioned shall transmit a routine message to FAA/AJW within --- hours

Back 16

24hrs

Front 17

The decommissioning notification message removes the navigational aid from active status places the flight inspection reports into a --- year retention file and delete future periodic flight inspection due dates

Back 17

5yr

Front 18

Requirements for airport rotating Beacon, obstruction lighting and marking, runway lighting, taxaway lighting, parking and service area lighting, approach lighting, and other lighting are set forth in

Back 18

NAVAIR 51-50AAA-2

Front 19

The air operations manual shall be reviewed

Back 19

Annually

Front 20

An electronic copy of new or revised manuals shall be forwarded to the ATC community website at

Back 20

[e-mail]

Front 21

Who is responsible for acquiring all air facilities data, maintaining and evaluated database, and providing analysis support services to all DOD elements

Back 21

NGA

Front 22

NGA --- sends each USN/USMC air facility a print out of currently held AAFIF data with a request to update the information

Back 22

Annually

Front 23

A --- facility is not ASR equipped (manual approach control)

Back 23

Class IVA

Front 24

Which facilities provide only flight planning services

Back 24

Class I

Front 25

This facility provides airport traffic control service. unless modified by letter of agreement, ATC clearance authority is limited to VFR although IFR and special VFR clearances originated by authorized facilities may be relayed. flight planning services may also be provided

Back 25

Class II Control rower facility

Front 26

In which class facility is A low approach and landing service limited to control on the final approach course

Back 26

Class IIIA

Front 27

This facility includes full pattern control in addition to control on the final approach course

Back 27

Class IIIB

Front 28

These facilities are ASR equipped (radar approach control)

Back 28

Class IVB

Front 29

This facility is a combined ATC and ROC/FACSFAC that may provide airport traffic control, low approach and landing, terminal area control, and special use airspace control services

Back 29

Class 5A/Class 5B Joint control facility

Front 30

This facility is a radar air traffic control facility certified to provide full range of special use airspace control service. real time scheduling of military operating areas may also be provided. enroute control service may be provided

Back 30

Class VI Fleet area control and surveillance facility

Front 31

This facility is an air traffic control facility which combines the functions of an ARTCC and a radar approach control facility

Back 31

Class VII Combined center radar approach control (CERAP)

Front 32

Each facility shall have a facility watch supervisor (FWS) designated by --- and on duty at the facility at all times during hours of operation

Back 32

The commanding officer

Front 33

Facility manuals shall be reviewed on a continuous basis and facility directives/ interim changes incorporated ---

Back 33

Annually

Front 34

Commanding officers shall ensure LOA's are reviewed --- to ensure accuracy and conformance with current policy

Back 34

Annually

Front 35

Each branch of an ATC facility shall maintain a daily operations log also known as

Back 35

FAA Form 7230-4

Front 36

A position log also known as --- shall be maintained for each operating position in the facility

Back 36

FAA Form 7230-10

Front 37

A permanent record of air traffic controller qualifications and ratings shall be entered on page --- of the service record

Back 37

Page 4

Front 38

Trainees shall not be assigned to final control positions (Precision, Surveillance, or PALS) when prevailing weather conditions are below ---

Back 38

1000ft/3mi

Front 39

The waiver granting authority for navy air traffic controllers is

Back 39

BUPERS (PERS-404F)

Front 40

Air traffic controllers shall not use --- or --- within a 24 hour period Before assuming duty

Back 40

Sedatives or tranquilizers

Front 41

ATC personnel shall not consume alcoholic beverages within --- hours of scheduled ATC duty

Back 41

12hrs

Front 42

ATC personnel who have donated blood shall not perform ATC functions or directly supervise personnel performing these functions unless --- hours have elapsed since the blood was donated

Back 42

24hrs

Front 43

Normal scheduled ATC watch should be --- hours and not exceed --- hours

Back 43

8/10hrs

Front 44

A scheduled crew rest period of at least --- to --- hours should occur between ATC watches

Back 44

8/12hrs

Front 45

Accept an emergency a certified air shop control tower operator must be relieved of all duties for at least --- consecutive hours at least once during each --- consecutive day

Back 45

24hr/7day

Front 46

Request for field closure during a holiday. Must be forwarded in at least --- days in advance to the appropriate personnel

Back 46

7 days

Front 47

Closed field operations shall be conducted in accordance with guidance contained in ---

Back 47

OPNAVINST 3710.7

Front 48

Approach control facilities clocks are set to agree with those of the --- facility responsible for the terminal facility

Back 48

Enroute

Front 49

At least --- minutes before severe weather is anticipated, facilities shall shift to auxiliary power unless reliable Automatic Transfer Equipment is installed

Back 49

30min

Front 50

Emergency and distress frequencies -- and ---MHz will be used only to provide a communications channel to and from airborne and ground stations or surface craft involved in an actual emergency or distress

Back 50

243.0/121.5

Front 51

SAR communications are to be conducted on the frequency --- MHz or other appropriate frequency as directed

Back 51

282.8

Front 52

Voice recordings shall be retained for at least days except for mishaps involving Navy ATCF or DON aircraft

Back 52

15???

Front 53

Misshap recordings shall be retained until

Back 53

-Claim/complaint has been adjudicated

-2 years statute of limitations has expired

-Released or directed by higher authority

Front 54

Electronics maintenance personnel shall conduct the approved recorder performance check daily --- to ensure such recorder is operating and recording normally

Back 54

Not to exceed 26 hours

Front 55

A re recording of an incident should include all communications data pertinent to the accident and the time track, when available, from a period of --- before the initial contact to --- after the last contact

Back 55

5min/5min

Front 56

In the case of an accident resulting in serious injuries or fatalities or a mid air collision involving any type of civil aircraft, --- copies of the recording shall we made

Back 56

2

Front 57

How many certified rerecordings of the original recordings shall be made

Back 57

2

Front 58

Where the recording is unintelligible the word "---" shall be inserted in Parenthesis in the proper location

Back 58

Unintelligible

Front 59

What shall be entered at the end of the Voice transcript

Back 59

End of transcript

Front 60

ATIS messages shall be retained for a period of --- days

Back 60

15

Front 61

Guidance concerning investigations and reporting aircraft accidents and incidents, including NMAC incidents, is contained in

Back 61

OPNAVINST 3750.6

Front 62

The reporting of air traffic control hazards is an element of the naval aviation safety program, reporting requirements and format are contained in

Back 62

????

Front 63

The function of the --- is to issue clearances and information to aircraft and vehicular traffic operating on runways, taxiways, and other designated areas of the airfield and to aircraft operating in assigned air space areas

Back 63

Control tower

Front 64

This person shall possess a CTO rating for the control tower assigned and shall be designated as the tower NATOPS instructor in writing by the commanding officer

Back 64

Tower chief

Front 65

The --- records and maintains data to facilitate preparation of the annual air activity report as well as development of air station noise contours during AICUZ study updates

Back 65

Air traffic activity analyzer (ATAA)

Front 66

All --- & --- Installed tower radar displays are certified a tower radar displays

Back 66

SPAWRSYSCEN/FAA

Front 67

As a prerequisite to activation of a duty runway, unidirectional arresting gear shall be derigged and cables removed prior to runway use when engagement direction is --- the runway of intended use

Back 67

Opposite

Front 68

Who is the sole approving authority for aeronautical information and TERPS issues with CNO N980ANAATSEA

Back 68

NAVFIG

Front 69

Who develops, reviews, and validates TERPS at Navy and Marine Corps air stations worldwide, as well as at host nation airports, including validation of commercial terminal procedures, as required by exercises and "real world" operations

Back 69

NAVFIG

Front 70

Who researches, evaluates, and compiles aeronautical information concerning all Navy and Marine Corps air stations for publications/revisions in Department of Defense (DOD) and Department of Transportation (DOT) flight information publications (FLIP)

Back 70

NAVFIG

Front 71

Who issues, revises, and cancels notice to airmen (NOTAM) to augment theFLIP

Back 71

NAVFIG

Front 72

Who formulates, reviews, and validates minimum vectoring altitude charts (MVAC) for all navy and Marine Corps ATCFs

Back 72

NAVFIG

Front 73

Who maintains data on landing systems and navigational aids (NAVAIDs), obstacles, and runways for Navy and Marine Corps airfields and certain host nation airports

Back 73

NAVFIG

Front 74

Who conducts evaluations of obstacles proposed for construction near Navy and Marine Corps airfields and certain host nation airports

Back 74

NAVFIG

Front 75

Criteria governing terminal instrument procedures are published in FAAO --- and applicable FAAO's regarding terminal instrument procedure design

Back 75

FAAO 8260.3

Front 76

What form is US Navy standard instrument departure procedure

Back 76

NAVFIG form 3722/2

Front 77

What form is US Navy minimum vectoring altitude chart

Back 77

NAVFIG Form 3722/3

Front 78

The TERPS opstical summary is provided by NAVFIG --- days prior to the triennial review and validated by the ATCF to ensure the identification of all obstacles within the specified radius

Back 78

90 days

Front 79

A copy of the validated TERPS obstacle summary shall be returned to NAVFIG --- days prior to the triennual review for verification

Back 79

30 days

Front 80

What form is the terminal instrument procedures standards waiver

Back 80

NAVFIG Form 3722/4

Front 81

TERPS waiver forms 3722/4 specifies the reason for the waiver and the equivalent level of safety that is provided, waivers that cannot achieve an equivalent level of safety shall include a note that states the hazard and annotated ---

Back 81

"Not for civil use"

Front 82

TERPS waiver form 3722/4 is located in which appendix

Back 82

Appendix S and available on the Navy Marine Corps ATC website

Front 83

What is the flight inspection report number

Back 83

FAA form 8240 series

Front 84

Which form contains detailed information for each NAVAID (TACAN, VOR, ILS, ASR, PAR) owned by the Department of the Navy

Back 84

FAA form 8240-22

Front 85

Who shall establish terminal instrument procedures to provide approach and departure capabilities for local and transient flight operations

Back 85

Commanding officers of naval aviation shore installations supporting flight operations

Front 86

New or revised procedures shall be submitted to NAVFIG on the appropriate form not normally less than --- days

Back 86

60 days

Front 87

Requests for approval of terminal instrument procedures associated with new and/or relocated navigational aids shall be in accordance with

Back 87

US standard flight inspection manual NAVAIR 16-1-520

Front 88

A sidestep maneuver is a -- alignment maneuver required by a pilot executing an approach to one runway but intending to land on the parallel runway

Back 88

Visual

Front 89

T/F a sidestep maneuver shall not be authorized for precision approaches

Back 89

True

Front 90

Straight-in minimums may be authorized for a sidestep maneuver to a parallel runway under the following conditions:

1. Runway center lines are separated by --- feet or less

2. --- Final approach course is published

3. Course guidance is provided on or within --- of the primary runway central line

Back 90

1200ft/ 1FAC /3°

Hint 90

Note*** If descent gradient is exceeded the sidestep maneuver shall not be authorized

Front 91

NAVFIG shall notify the commanding officer --- days prior to the triennial review that the review is going to be conducted

Back 91

90 days

Front 92

The commanding officer shall send an acknowledgment Too NAVFIG at least--- days prior to the triennial review

Back 92

30 days

Front 93

which amphibious operation involves the swift incursion into, or temporary Occupation of an objective followed by a planned withdraw

Back 93

Amphibious raid

Front 94

Which amphibious operation may be conducted to temporarily seize an area to secure information, to confuse the adversary or enemy, capture personnel or equipment, or destroy a capability

Back 94

Amphibious raid

Front 95

Which amphibious operation is conducted for the purpose of deceiving the enemy by a show of force with the exception of deluding the enemy into following and unfavorable course of action (COA)

Back 95

Amphibious demonstration

Front 96

Which amphibious operation is launched from the sea by An AF (amphibious force), embarked in ships or crafts to land the LF (landing force) and establish it on a hostile or potentially hostile shore

Back 96

Amphibious assault

Front 97

Which amphibious operation Includes the rapid buildup of combat power ashore to full coordinative striking power

Back 97

Amphibious assault

Front 98

Which Amphibious operation is the extraction of forces by sea in ships or crafts and may cause the temporary debarkation or crossdecking of embarked LF elements

Back 98

Amphibious withdrawal

Front 99

What are the 5 phases of an amphibious operation

Back 99

Planning

Embarkation

Rehearsal

Movement

Action

Hint 99

PERMA

Front 100

Which phase of amphibious operations is the period extending from the issuance of an initiating directive and ends with the embarkation of landing forces

Back 100

Planning

Front 101

Which phase of the amphibious operations is the period in which the landing force with its equipment and supplies, embark and assigned shipping

Back 101

Embarkation

Front 102

Which phase of the amphibious operations utilizes the landing plan and the scheme of maneuver to influence which staffs and units are embarked on which ship

Back 102

Embarkation

Front 103

Which phase of the amphibious operations tests the adequacy of plans, timing of detailed operations, and combat readiness of participating forces

Back 103

Rehearsal

Front 104

Which phase of amphibious operations consists of an actual landing or may be conducted as a command post exercise

Back 104

Rehearsal

Front 105

Which phase of amphibious operations is the period during which various elements of the amphibious force move from points of embarkation or from a Forward deployed position to the operational area

Back 105

Movement

Front 106

This phase of amphibious operations is completed when the various elements of the amphibious force arrive at their assigned positions in the operational area

Back 106

Movement

Front 107

This phase of the amphibious operation is the period from the arrival of the amphibious force in the operational area through the accomplishment of the mission and the termination of the amphibious operation

Back 107

Action

Front 108

Who is Charged with absolute responsibility for the safety wellbeing efficiency of the ship and crew until properly relieved by competent authority

Back 108

Commanding officer

Front 109

Who is responsible for the organization, performance of duty, training, maintenance, and good order and discipline of the entire command

Back 109

Executive officer

Front 110

Who is responsible for the control of airborne aircraft except when control is assigned to other authority

Back 110

Ships operations office

Front 111

Who is responsible for the coordination of all matters pertaining to flight operation

Back 111

Air operations officer

Front 112

Who is responsible to the air operations officer for the execution of the air plan and the proper functioning and Manning of AATCC

Back 112

AATCC officer/Current ops

Front 113

Who is responsible for the visual control of all aircraft operating in the control zone

Back 113

Air officer

Front 114

Who may exercise control outside the control zone for special operations such as bombing a Sled or air demonstrations

Back 114

Air officer