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273 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
"Quality is defined by the customer" is
a user-based definition of quality
major categories of costs associated with quality?
prevention costs
appraisal costs
internal failures
external failures
According to the manufacturing-based definition of quality
quality is the degree to which a specific product conforms to standards
All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
maintenance costs
Inspection, scrap, and repair are examples of
internal costs
ISO 9000 seeks standardization in terms of
procedures to manage quality
Which of the following is true about ISO 14000 certification?
it deals with environmental management
Total Quality Management emphasizes
a commitment to quality that goes beyond internal company issues to suppliers and customers
A successful TQM program incorporates all of the following except
centralized decision making authority
"Kaizen" is a Japanese term meaning
continuous improvement
Based on his 14 Points, Deming is a strong proponent of
training and knowledge
The philosophy of zero defects is
consistent with the commitment to continuous improvement
The process of identifying other organizations that are best at some facet of your operations and then modeling your organization after them is known as
benchmarking
Costs of dissatisfaction, repair costs, and warranty costs are elements of cost in the
Taguchi Loss Function
A quality loss function utilizes all of the following costs except
sales costs
Pareto charts are used to
organize errors, problems or defects
Among the tools of TQM, the tool ordinarily used to aid in understanding the sequence of events through
which a product travels is a
Flow chart
The process improvement technique that sorts the "vital few" from the "trivial many" is
Pareto analysis
A fishbone diagram is also known as a
cause-and-effect diagram
If a sample of parts is measured and the mean of the measurements is outside the control limits the process is
out of control and the process should be investigated for assignable variation
A quality circle holds a brainstorming session and attempts to identify the factors responsible for flaws in a product. Which tool do you suggest they use to organize their findings?
Ishikawa diagram
When a sample measurement falls inside the control limits, it means that
if there is no other pattern in the samples, the process is in control
Which of the following is true regarding control charts?
a. Values above the upper and lower control limits indicate points out of adjustment.
b. Control charts are built so that new data can be quickly compared to past performance data.
c. Control charts graphically present data.
d. Control charts plot data over time.
The goal of inspection is to
detect a bad process immediately
Which of the following is not a typical inspection point?
after a costly process
"Poka-yoke" is the Japanese term for
foolproof
A worker operates a shear press. She notices that the metal sheets she is cutting have curled edges. Who
should get the first "shot" at solving the problem?
the operator herself
A recent consumer survey conducted for a car dealership indicates that, when buying a car, customers are primarily concerned with the salesperson's ability to explain the car's features, the salesperson's friendliness, and the dealer's honesty. The dealership should be especially concerned with which dimensions of service
quality?
communication, courtesy, and credibility
Acceptance sampling
is used to determine whether to accept or reject a lot of material based on the evaluation of a sample
If a sample of items is measured and the mean of the sample is outside the control limits the process is
out of control and the cause should be established
Assignable causes
are causes of variation that can be identified and removed
Control charts for variables are based on data that comes from
averages of small samples
The purpose of an _x chart is to determine whether there has been a
change in the central tendency of the process output
Statistical Process Control charts
display upper and lower limits for process variables or attributes, and signal when a process is no longer in control
A sample of parts is measured. The mean of this sample is in the middle of the control limits, but some individual parts measure too low for design specifications and other parts measure too high. Which of the following is true?
The process is in control, but not capable of producing within the established control limits.
Up to three standard deviations above or below centerline is the amount of variation that statistical process control allows for
natural variation
The type of inspection that classifies items as being either good or defective is
attribute inspection
The x-bar chart tells us whether there has been a
change in the central tendency of the process output
Jars of pickles are sampled and weighed. Sample measures are plotted on control charts. The ideal weight
should be precisely 11 oz. Which type of chart(s) would you recommend?
x
and R-charts
If x = 23 ounces, σ = 0.4 ounces, and n = 16, the ±3σ (i.e. 3-standard deviation) control limits will be:
22.70 to 23.30 ounces
The usual purpose of an R-chart is to signal whether there has been a
gain or loss in dispersion
Plots of sample ranges indicate that the most recent value is below the lower control limit. What course of
action would you recommend?
Variation is not in control; investigate what created this condition.
To set _x-chart upper and lower control limits, one must know the process central line, which is the
average of the sample means
According to the text, the most common choice for limits for control charts is usually
±3 standard deviations
Which of the following is true of a p-chart?
The lower control limit may be at zero.
The normal application of a p-chart is in
process sampling by attributes
The statistical process chart used to control the number of defects per unit of output is the
c-chart
The c-chart signals whether there has been a
change in the number of defects per unit
The local newspaper receives several complaints per day about typographic errors. Over a seven-day
period, the publisher has received calls from readers reporting the following number of errors: 4, 3, 2, 6, 7, 3, and
9. Based on these data alone, what type of control chart(s) should the publisher use?
c-chart
A manufacturer uses statistical process control to control the quality of the firm's products. Samples of 50
of Product A are taken, and a defective/acceptable decision is made on each unit sampled. For Product B,
the number of flaws per unit is counted. What type(s) of control charts should be used?
p-chart for A, c-chart for B
A nationwide parcel delivery service keeps track of the number of late deliveries (more than 30 minutes past the time promised to clients) per day. They plan on using a control chart to plot their results. Which type of control chart(s) would you recommend?
c-charts
A run test is used
to examine points in a control chart to check for nonrandom variability
Which of the following is true regarding the process capability index Cpk?
The larger the Cpk the more units meet specifications
An acceptance sampling plan's ability to discriminate between low quality lots and high quality lots is described by
an Operating Characteristics curve
Acceptance sampling's primary purpose is to
decide if a lot meets predetermined standards
Which of the following statements on acceptance sampling is true?
(Just Read)
Acceptance sampling draws samples from a population of items, tests the sample, and accepts the
entire population if the sample is good enough, and rejects it if the sample is poor enough.
b. The sampling plan contains information about the sample size to be drawn and the critical acceptance
or rejection numbers for that sample size.
c. The steeper an operating characteristic curve, the better its ability to discriminate between good and
bad lots.
Acceptance sampling is usually used to control
incoming lots of purchased products
An Operating Characteristic (OC) curve describes
how well an acceptance sampling plan discriminates between good and bad lots
An operating characteristics curve shows
how the probability of accepting a lot varies with the population percent defective
Producer's risk is the probability of
rejecting a good lot
Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between AOQ and the true population percent defective?
AOQ is less than the true percent defective.
Average outgoing quality (AOQ) usually
improves with inspection
A Type I error occurs when
a good lot is rejected
A Type II error occurs when
a bad lot is accepted
In most acceptance sampling plans, when a lot is rejected, the entire lot is inspected and all defective items are replaced. When using this technique the AOQ
improves (AOQ becomes a smaller fraction)
An acceptance sampling plan is to be designed to meet the organization's targets for product quality and risk
levels. Which of the following is true?
AQL, LTPD, α and β collectively determine n and c.
Which of the following statements about acceptance sampling is true?
The steeper an OC curve, the better it discriminates between good and bad lots.
An organization's process strategy
will have long-run impact on efficiency and production
b. is the same as its transformation strategy
c. must meet various constraints, including cost
d. is concerned with how resources are transformed into goods and services
A job shop is an example of a(n)
intermittent process
Three types of process strategies are:
process focus, repetitive focus, and product focus
Which of the following industries is likely to have low equipment utilization?
television manufacturing
A product focused process is commonly used to produce
high-volume, low-variety products
Which one of the following products is most likely made in a job shop environment
custom furniture
Which of the following products is likely to be assembled on a repetitive process line?
automobiles
b. personal computers
c. dishwashers
d. television sets
An assembly line is an example of a
repetitive process
Which of the following transformations generally has the highest equipment utilization?
product focused process
Which of the following is false regarding repetitive processes?
They allow easy switching from one product to the other.
Mass customization, when done correctly
increases pressure on supply-chain performance
b. helps eliminate the guesswork that comes with sales forecasting
c. drives down inventories
d. increases pressure on scheduling
Which of the following characteristics best describes process focus
low volume, high variety
b. finished goods are usually made to order
c. processes are designed to perform a wide variety of activities
Service blueprinting
focuses on the provider's interaction with the customer
Which of the following characteristics best describes repetitive focus?
uses modules
b. falls between product and process focus
c. widely used for the assembly of automobiles
A drawing of the movement of material, or people is a
flow diagram
Strategies for improving productivity in services are
separation, self-service, automation, and scheduling
In mass service and service factory quadrants of the service process matrix, the operations manager could focus on all of the following except
customization
Which of the following is true regarding vision systems?
a. They are consistently accurate.
b. They are modest in cost.
c. They do not become bored.
Which of the following are typical of process control systems
They have sensors.
b. The digitized data are analyzed by computer, which generates feedback.
c. Their sensors take measurements on a periodic basis.
The use of information technology to monitor and control a physical process is known as
process control
Which of the following statements regarding automated guided vehicles is false?
They are used to move workers from one side of the plant to the other.
Automatic placement and withdrawal of parts and products into and from designated places in a warehouse describes
ASRS
Computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM) includes manufacturing systems that have
computer-aided design, a flexible manufacturing system, inventory control, warehousing and shipping integrated
Which one of the following technologies is used only for material handling, not actual production or assembly?
AGVs
A system using an automated work cell controlled by electronic signals from a common centralized computer facility is called a(n)
flexible manufacturing system (FMS)
"Operators simply load new programs, as necessary, to produce different products" describes
flexible manufacturing systems (FMS)
Examples of the impact of technology on services include
a. debit cards
b. supermarket scanners
c. electronic hotel key/lock systems
Process reengineering
a. is the fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes
b. tries to bring about dramatic improvements in performance
c. focuses on activities that cross functional lines
Making environmentally sound products through efficient processes
can still be profitable
Which of the following is true regarding the concept of flexibility?
a. It is the ability to change production rates with little penalty in time, cost, or customer value.
b. It can be accomplished with sophisticated electronic equipment.
c. It may involve modular, movable, even cheap equipment.
Flexibility can be achieved with
a. moveable equipment
b. inexpensive equipment
c. sophisticated electronic equipment
d. modular equipment
Effective capacity is the
the capacity a firm expects to achieve given the current operating constraints
Design capacity is the
maximum output of a system in a given period
The Academic Computing Center has five trainers available in its computer labs to provide training sessions to students. Assume that the capacity of the system is 1,900 students and the utilization is 90%. If the number of students who actually got their orientation session is 1,500, what is the efficiency of the system?
87.7%
Organizations have four approaches for capacity expansion. Which of the following is not one of them?
lag demand with one-step expansion
Which of the following is false regarding capacity expansion?
Capacity may only be added in large chunks
Basic break-even analysis typically assumes that
variable costs and revenues increase in direct proportion to the volume of production
Break-even is the number of units at which
total revenue equals total cost
Fabricators, Inc. wants to increase capacity by adding a new machine. The fixed costs for Machine A are
$90,000, and its variable cost is $15 per unit. The revenue is $21 per unit. The break-even point for
Machine A is
15,000 units
Which of the following costs would be incurred even if no units are produced?
building rental costs
A fabrication company wants to increase capacity by adding a new machine. The firm is considering
proposals from vendor A and vendor B. The fixed costs for machine A are $90,000 and for machine B,
$75,000. The variable cost for A is $15.00 per unit and for B, $18.00. The revenue generated by the units
processed on these machines is $21 per unit. If the estimated output is 5,000 units, which machine should be
purchased?
no purchase because neither machine yields a profit at that volume
Fred's Fabrication, Inc. wants to increase capacity by adding a new machine. The firm is considering
proposals from vendor A and vendor B. The fixed costs for machine A are $90,000 and for machine B,
$70,000. The variable cost for A is $9.00 per unit and for B, $14.00. The revenue generated by the units
processed on these machines is $20 per unit. The crossover between machine A and machine B is
4,000 units, with B more profitable at low volumes
A shop wants to increase capacity by adding a new machine. The firm is considering proposals from vendor A and vendor B. The fixed costs for machine A are $90,000 and for machine B, $75,000. The variable cost for A is $15.00 per unit and for B, $18.00. The revenue generated by the units processed on these machines is $22 per unit. If the estimated output is 9,000 units, which machine should be purchased?
no purchase because neither machine yields a profit at that volume
Which of the following is not a strategic consideration for strategic-driven investments?
Choose investments that minimize cost
Which of the following is a strategic consideration for strategic-driven investments?
a. Select investments as part of a coordinated strategic plan.
b. Choose investments that yield competitive advantage.
c. Choose investments that consider product life cycles.
d. Test investments in the light of several revenue projections.
Net present value
is the discounted value of a series of future cash receipts
Net present value will be greater
for a 4% discount rate than for a 6% discount rate
The basic break-even model can be modified to handle more than one product. This extension of the basic
model requires
price and cost for each product, as well as the percent of total sales that each product represents
Industrial location analysis typically attempts to
reduce costs
A location decision for an appliance manufacturer would tend to have a(an)
cost focus
A location decision for a traditional department store (Macy's) would tend to have a(n)
revenue focus
In location planning, environmental regulations, cost and availability of utilities, and taxes are
regional/community factors
Which of the following is usually not one of the top considerations in choosing a country for a facility location?
zoning regulations
When making a location decision at the country level, which of these would be considered?
location of markets
Which of these factors would be considered when making a location decision at the
region/community level?
proximity to raw materials and customers
When making a location decision at the region/community level, which of these would be
considered?
cost and availability of utilities
Which of these factors would be considered when making a location decision at the site level?
zoning regulations
Tangible costs include which of the following?
taxes
Intangible costs include which of the following?
a. quality of prospective employees
b. quality of education
c. availability of public transportation
Community attitudes, zoning restrictions, and quality of labor force are likely to be considered in
which of the following location decision methods?
factor rating method
Which of the following methods best considers intangible costs related to a location decision?
factor rating analysis
Evaluating location alternatives by comparing their composite (weighted-average) scores involves
factor rating analysis
An approach to location analysis that includes both qualitative and quantitative considerations is
factor rating
The crossover chart for location break-even analysis shows where
total costs are equal for alternative locations
The center of gravity method does not take into consideration
the value of the goods shipped
The center-of-gravity method is used primarily to determine what type of locations?
distribution center locations
A regional bookstore chain is about to build a distribution center that is centrally located for its
eight retail outlets. It will most likely employ which of the following tools of analysis?
center-of-gravity model
Production and/or shipping costs are always considered in which of the following location decision
methods?
transportation method
The transportation method, when applied to location analysis
minimizes total production and transportation costs
Which of the following are not among the eight components of revenue and volume for the service
firm?
shipment cost of finished goods
Which of the following are among the eight components of revenue and volume for the service
firm?
a. uniqueness of the firm's and the competitor's locations
b. quality of the competition
c. quality of management
d. purchasing power of the customer-drawing area
Traffic counts and purchasing power analysis of drawing area are techniques associated with
a retail or professional service location decision
LaQuinta Motor Inns has a competitive edge over its rivals because it
uses regression analysis to determine which variables most influence profitability
Traffic counts and demographic analysis of drawing areas are associated with
service location decisions
Which one of the following factors does not affect the volume and revenue for a service firm?
environmental regulations
Location analysis techniques typically employed by service organizations include
a. factor rating method
b. center of gravity method
c. purchasing power analysis of area
d. traffic counts
Which of the following is most likely to affect the location decision of a service firm rather than a
manufacturing firm?
parking and access
Which of the following is a location analysis technique typically employed by a service
organization?
purchasing power analysis
A jewelry store is more likely than a jewelry manufacturer to consider __________ in making a
location decision.
parking and access
Location analysis techniques typically employed by manufacturing organizations include
transportation method
Which of these assumptions is not associated with strategies for goods-producing location
decisions?
high customer contact issues are critical
Which of the following is most likely to affect the location strategy of a manufacturing firm?
utility costs
Geographic Information Systems can assist the location decision by
combining geography with demographic analysis
The layout strategy that deals with low-volume, high-variety production is
a. fixed-position layout
b. retail layout
c. warehouse layout
d. office layout
A good layout requires determining
a. material handling requirements
b. capacity and space requirements
c. environment and aesthetics
d. cost of moving between various work areas
The fixed-position layout would be most appropriate in which of the following cases?
constructing a Boeing 777
For which of the following operations would a fixed-position layout be most appropriate?
construction of a ship
Because the fixed-position layout problem is so difficult to solve on-site, operations managers
often complete as much of the project as possible off-site
One factor impacting the fixed-position layout strategy is
the movement of material to the limited storage areas around the site
One of the major advantages of process-oriented layouts is
flexibility in equipment and labor assignment
The main issue in designing process-oriented layout concerns the relative positioning of _____ to minimize
cost of material handling.
departments
A process layout would be most appropriate in which of the following cases?
a gourmet restaurant
The major problem addressed by the process-oriented layout strategy is
minimizing difficulties caused by material flow varying with each product
The most common tactic followed in process-layout planning is to arrange departments or work centers so
they
minimize the costs of material handling
A process-oriented layout is best suited for
low-volume, high-variety production
Which of the following is true for process layouts, but false for product layouts?
flexibility in equipment and labor assignments
A big advantage of a process-oriented layout is
its flexibility for variety
The typical goal used when developing a process-oriented layout strategy is to
minimize the material handling costs
Which of the following is true of a focused factory?
They may be focused in ways other than by product line or layout
In the use of relationship charts for office layouts, the code "U" means the closeness between two
departments is
(U)nimportant
Which rating reflects the highest importance for two departments' closeness to each other?
A
According to the text book, an office layout
groups workers, their equipment, and spaces/offices to provide for movement of information
Which of the following constitutes a major trend influencing office layouts?
virtual companies
Which of the following does not support the retail layout objective of maximizing customer exposure to
products?
maximize exposure to expensive items
Balancing low-cost storage with low-cost material handling is important in a(n)
warehouse layout
Which of the following is strongly associated with "cross-docking"?
processing items as soon as they are received into a distribution center
The major problem addressed by the warehouse layout strategy is
addressing trade-offs between space and material handling
Which one of the following is not common to product-oriented layouts?
ability to adjust to changes in demand
Which of the following layouts generally has the best machine utilization?
product-oriented layout
Which type of layout is used to achieve a smooth and rapid flow of large volumes of output?
product-oriented
A product layout would be most appropriate in which of the following cases?
a fast food restaurant
The assumption of stability of demand is important for justifying which of the following layout types?
product-oriented layout
An adequate volume for high equipment utilization is an assumption for which of the following layout
types?
product-oriented layout
A product-oriented layout would be most appropriate for which one of the following businesses?
steel-making
The assumptions necessary for a successful product layout include all of the following except
volatile product demand
Which of these layouts is most suitable for processing sugar from sugar beets or sugar cane?
product-oriented layout
Which of the following is true regarding fabrication lines?
Balancing their assembly line is more technological than worker oriented
In product-oriented layout, line balancing is usually undertaken to
minimizing the imbalance in the work loads among workstations
The disadvantages of product-oriented layout include
a. there is a lack of flexibility in handling a variety of products or production rates
b. high volume is required because of the large investment needed to set up the process
c. work stoppage at any one point ties up the whole operation
The main advantage of a product-oriented layout is typically
low variable cost per unit
In a product layout the process of deciding how to assign tasks to work stations is referred to as
line balancing
In assembly line balancing, the minimum number of workstations is
the ratio of the sum of all task times to cycle time
In assembly line balancing, cycle time (the ratio of production time to demand), is the
maximum time that a product is available at each work station
A production line is to be designed to make 500 El-More dolls per day. Each doll requires 11 activities
totaling 16 minutes of work. The factory operates 750 minutes per day. The desired cycle time for this
assembly line is
one and one-half minutes
A production line is to be designed for a job with 4 tasks. The task times are 2.4 minutes, 1.4 minutes, 0.9
minutes, and 1.7 minutes. The maximum cycle time is ______ and the minimum cycle time is ______ minutes.
6.4; 2.4
Cycle time is computed as
daily operating time divided by the desired output
Daily capacity of a product layout is determined by
operating time divided by cycle time
Four hundred and eighty minutes of production time are available per day. The demand for the product is
120 units per day. What is the cycle time?
4 minutes
A production line is to be designed for a product whose completion requires 21 minutes of work. The
factory works 400 minutes per day. Can an assembly line with five workstations make 100 units per day?
no, it will fall short even with a perfectly balanced line
Four hundred and eighty minutes of production time are available per day. The demand for the product is 60
units per day. What is the cycle time?
8 minutes
Four hundred and eighty minutes of production time are available per day. The demand for the product is 80
units per day. Each unit of the product requires 30 minutes of work. What is the theoretical minimum
number of workstations?
5
Which of the following is not a heuristic rule for assigning tasks to work stations in a product layout?
median tasks first
If a layout problem is solved by use of "heuristics," this means that
a "satisfactory" solution is acceptable
Which of the following is a common heuristic for assembly line balancing?
ranked positional weight
Demand for a given item is said to be dependent if
there is a clearly identifiable parent
Dependent demand and independent demand items differ in that
a. for any product, all components are dependent-demand items
b. the need for independent-demand items is forecasted
c. the need for dependent-demand items is calculated
A master production schedule specifies
what product is to be made, and when
The ______ is(are) the MRP input detailing which end items are to be produced, when they are
needed, and in what quantities.
master production schedule
A master production schedule contains information about
quantities and required delivery dates of final products
In continuous (make-to-stock) operations, the master production schedule is usually expressed in
terms of
end-items
In job shop (make-to-order) operations, the master production schedule is usually expressed in
terms of
customer orders
The ______ is the input to Materials Requirements Planning which lists the assemblies,
subassemblies, parts and raw materials needed to produce one unit of finished product.
bill of materials
A bill of materials lists the
components, ingredients, and materials required to produce an item
One way to facilitate production scheduling and production in firms making a large number of
different final products is to use
modular bills
The bill of materials contains information necessary to
convert (explode) net requirements at one level into gross requirements at the next level
Which of the following statements best compares modular bills and phantom bills?
Modular bills represent subassemblies that actually exist and are inventoried, while phantom
bills represent subassemblies that exist only temporarily and are not inventoried
"Exploding" the bill of materials means
converting the bill of materials into components and raw material requirements
The minimum record accuracy required for successful MRP is approximately
99%
Low level coding means that
a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure
Each X requires 2 of component Y; each Y requires 4 of part Z. The lead time for assembly of X is
1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of Y is 1 week. The lead time for the procurement of Z
is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for X is _____ weeks.
8
Each R requires 4 of component S; each S requires 3 of part T. The lead time for assembly of R is
1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of S is 2 weeks. The lead time for the procurement of T is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for R is ______ weeks.
9
The MPS calls for 110 units of Product M. There are currently 30 of Product M on hand. Each M
requires 4 of Component N. There are 20 units of N on hand. The gross requirements for N are
300
The MPS calls for 50 units of Product A and 60 of B. There are currently 25 of Product B on hand.
Each A requires 2 of Part C; each B requires 5 of C. There are 160 units of C available. The net
requirements for C are
115
The MPS calls for 110 units of Product A, there are currently 60 of Product A on hand. Each A
requires 4 of Part B, there are 20 units of B available. The net requirements for B are
180
In MRP record calculations, the appearance of a negative value for the gross requirements of an
end item in a specific time bucket
is impossible
A material requirements plan contains information with regard to all of the following except
the capacity needed to provide the projected output rate
The number of units projected to be available at the end of each time period refers to
the amount projected to be on hand
Linking a part requirement with the parent component that caused the requirement is referred to as
pegging
In MRP, system nervousness is caused by
management's attempt to continually respond to minor changes in production requirements
One of the tools that is particularly useful in reducing the system nervousness in the MRP system
is (are)
time fences
A major strength of MRP is its capability
for timely and accurate replanning
Material requirements plan specify
the quantity and timing of planned order releases
Which of the following statements is true about the MRP plan when using lot-for-lot ordering?
The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is equal to the quantity of net requirements
for its parent(s) multiplied by the number of child items used in the parent assembly.
Which of the following lot-sizing-techniques results in the lowest holding costs?
lot-for-lot
What lot sizing technique is generally preferred when inventory holding costs are extremely high?
lot-for-lot
For the lot-for-lot lot-sizing technique to be appropriate
setup cost should be relatively small
MRP II is accurately described as
MRP augmented by other resource variables
Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is
an advanced MRP II system that ties-in customers and suppliers
The extension of MRP which extends to resources such as labor hours and machine hours, as well
as to order entry, purchasing, and direct interface with customers and suppliers is
Enterprise Resource Planning
Distribution Resource Planning (DRP) is
a time-phased stock replenishment plan for all levels of a distribution network
In what way are Distribution Resource Planning (DRP) and Material Requirements Planning
(MRP) similar?
Both employ similar logic and procedures
Enterprise resource planning (ERP)-1
automates and integrates the majority of business processes
Enterprise resource planning (ERP)-2
has been made possible because of advances in hardware and software
uses client/server networks
creates commonality of databases
Which of the following is false concerning enterprise resource planning (ERP)?
It is inexpensive to implement
All of the following are advantages of enterprise resource planning (ERP) except it
requires major changes in the company and its processes to implement
Which of the following is true regarding forward scheduling? Forward scheduling is the scheduling of
jobs as soon as the requirements are known
Which of the following best describes how short-term schedules are prepared? Short-term schedules are
prepared
from master schedules which are derived from aggregate plans
Which scheduling technique should be employed when due dates are important for a job order?
backward scheduling
Which of the following is not an effectiveness criterion for scheduling?
maximizing flow time
Forward scheduling
assumes that procurement of material and operations start as soon as requirements are known
Which file contains important information regarding an item's flow through the shop?
routing file
Which of these is not part of the planning files of a production planning and control system?
a progress file
Which of the following files tracks work order progress?
control files
The production database containing information about each of the components that a firm produces or
purchases is the
item master file
The short-term scheduling activity called loading
assigns jobs to work centers
The assignment method is
a form of linear programming for optimally assigning tasks or jobs to resources
A scheduling technique used to achieve optimum, one-to-one matching of tasks and resources is
the assignment method
Which of the following is an aid used to monitor jobs in process?
a Gantt schedule chart
If an assignment problem consists of 6 workers and 7 projects,
one project will not get a worker assigned
Orders are processed in the sequence in which they arrive if (the) ______ rule sequences the jobs
first come, first serve
Which of the following dispatching rules ordinarily gives the best results when the criterion is lowest time
for completion of the full sequence of jobs?
shortest processing time (SPT)
Sequencing (or dispatching)
specifies the order in which jobs should be done at each center
Flow time represents the time
to complete an order, including time spent in processing and in waiting
Which of the following dispatching rules tends to minimize job flow time?
SPT: shortest processing time
Average completion time for a schedule sequence at a work center is total
flow time divided by the number of jobs
Which of the following dispatching rules allows easy updates?
CR: critical ratio
The priority rule which processes jobs according to the smallest ratio of due date to processing time is:
critical ratio
Which of the following is an advantage of the FCFS dispatching rule when used in services?
FCFS seems fair to customers
The most appropriate sequencing rule to use if the goal is to dynamically track the progress of jobs and
establish relative priority on a common basis is
critical ratio
Use of the sequencing rule Shortest Processing Time generally results in
minimum average flow time
When a set of jobs must pass through two workstations whose sequence is fixed, ______ is the rule most
commonly applied
Johnson's Rule
A recent advance in short-term scheduling that makes use of expert systems and simulation in solving
dynamic scheduling problems is
finite scheduling
Which of the following techniques does not contribute to increasing throughput at a bottleneck?
schedule throughput to match capacity of the bottleneck
An appliance manufacturer assembles icemakers in large batches. The operations manager would like to
significantly reduce the batch size. What would you suggest?
develop level material use schedules
Factory X is trying to use level use scheduling. If their first target were to cut the current lot size in half, by
what proportion must setup cost change?
Setup cost must be cut to one-fourth its current value
Which of the following is true regarding services scheduling?
The emphasis is on staffing levels, not materials