Mouse Blue Book Vol I - Chp 11

Front 1

Which of the following is not considered to be an advantage of Artificial Insemination?
a. Control over the timing of fertilization
b. Improve fertilization rates of non-viable sperm
c. Enhance/extend the fertility of the mouse
d. Overcome physical deficiencies of the male mouse that would preclude copulation

Back 1

B

Front 2

The nonsurgical, transvaginal / cervical technique of artificial insemination in mice requires induction of pseudopregnancy prior to the procedure. True or False?

Back 2

F

Front 3

For in-vitro fertilization, fertilization of the oocytes normally is confirmed by observing the number of zygotes that undergo the first mitotic cleavage at ___hrs of culture.

Back 3

24hrs

Front 4

Cryopreserved sperm requires incubation for approximately one hour prior to use in IVF to allow for capacitation to occur. True or False?

Back 4

F

Front 5

Which of the following is not an acceptable method to allow for improved sperm penetrance of the oocyte in in-vitro fertilization?
a. Complete Dezonation
b. Partial Zona Dissection
c. Zona "Nicking"
d. Chemical Zona Melting

Back 5

A

Front 6

Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection does not require the sperm be motile or capacitated to successfully effect fertilization of an oocyte. True or False?

Back 6

T

Front 7

True or False. Parthogenetic embryos can be used in the production of embryonic stem cells.

Back 7

T

Front 8

In creating transgenic animals through pronuclear microinjection, the transgenic construct integrates into the genome before the first mitotic cell division with what frequency?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 80%
d. 100%

Back 8

C

Front 9

If the transgenic construct is integrated into the genome after the first cell division, the resulting embryo is considered a __________.

Back 9

Mosaic

Front 10

In order to gain access to the oocyte cytoplasm and pronucleus for microinjection the ___________ and __________ layers must be pierced.

Back 10

Zona pellucida and oolemma

Front 11

The initial transgenic mouse created and shown by molecular methods to carry and express the injected transgene is called a _________.

Back 11

Founder

Front 12

A "loss-of-function dominant-negative" genotype refers to a transgene that:
a. Encodes a transcript of antisense mRNA that forms dsRNA
b. Overexpresses an endogenous or foreign protein
c. Expresses an altered form of a native protein that interferes with the function of an endogenous protein
d. Is inserted on a locus that alters normal transcription of the native genome in that locus

Back 12

C

Front 13

True or False. Transgenic mice have not yet been successfully created through sperm-mediated transgenesis.

Back 13

F

Front 14

The class of retrovirus that is particularly useful as a gene delivery vehicle into the genomes of both dividing and nondividing cells is named _____________.

Back 14

Lentiviruses

Front 15

True or False. Lentivirus based vectors can be simply coincubated with one-cell embryos after chemical dissolution of the zona to produce transgenic embryos.

Back 15

T

Front 16

Which of the following is not considered a disadvantage of using Virus Delivery-Based Transgenesis:
a. Lentiviruses cannot be inactivated
b. Efficiency is limited by the size of the transgene
c. Multiple chromosomal insertion sites can complicated breeding strategies

Back 16

A

Front 17

A mouse that is created from injection of genetically altered embryonic stem cells into a 3.5 day blastocyst embryo is considered a ___________, due to multiple origins of cell differentiation.

Back 17

Chimera

Front 18

True or False. Cryopreservation is the only preservation technique that has been successfully applied to cause the suspended animation of embryos.

Back 18

T

Front 19

True or False. The genetic background of a strain of mice is not a predictive factor in determining the success of cryopreservation of its embryos.

Back 19

F

Front 20

True or False. Ice crystal formation and damage is a greater problem with equilibrium versus non-equilibrium cryopreservation techniques.

Back 20

T

Front 21

True or False. Non-equilibrium cryopreservation exposes embryos to greater concentrations of toxic cryoprotectant.

Back 21

T

Front 22

True or False. During equilibrium cryopreservation, cooling rates must be strictly controlled using programmable freezing techniques.

Back 22

T

Front 23

Which of following is not considered an acceptable cryoprotectant of murine embryos
a. DMSO
b. Glycerol
c. DMA
d. Ethylene Glycol
e. Ficoll

Back 23

C

Front 24

True or False. Sperm from C57BL/6 mice recover poorly from cryopreservation methods.

Back 24

T

Front 25

True or False. The chromosomal spindle of metaphase II oocytes is very strong lending itself to a decreased sensitivity of these cells to the damaging effects of cryopreservation.

Back 25

F

Front 26

Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of cryopreservation of whole mouse ovaries:
a. Ovaries cannot be frozen by vitrification
b. The ovary cannot be transferred into a host for in vivo function
c. Cryopreservation of whole ovaries results in fewer numbers of oocytes than can be obtained from superovulated females
d. Modified culture conditions for oocytes at varying stages of immaturity are required

Back 26

D

Front 27

True or False. One-cell stage embryos are the most widely preferred for rederivation.

Back 27

T

Front 28

Pregnant Mare Serum Gonadotropin has homologous activity what hormone in the mouse?

Back 28

mFSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)

Front 29

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin has homologous activity to what hormone in the mouse?

Back 29

Leutenizing Hormone (LH)

Front 30

Aside from genetic background of the embryo, the key conditions that impact in-vitro culture of embryos are __________, ____________, ____________, and _____________.

Back 30

Temperature, pH, CO2 concentration, media componenents

Front 31

A recipient female cannot be made pseudopregnant for longer than ____day to receive 0.5 day post-coitus embryos that will be surgically transferred to the __________.

Back 31

0.5, oviduct

Front 32

A recipient female cannot be more than ___days pseudopregnant to receive embryos that are 3.5 dpc that will be surgically transferred to the ____________.

Back 32

2.5, uterine horn

Front 33

True or False. In cloning techniques to date, approximately 10% of injected embryos results in a live pup.

Back 33

F (less than 1%)

Front 34

In regards to somatic cell nuclear transfer (cloning) the recipient enucleated oocyte is known as a _____________.

Back 34

Cytoplast

Front 35

True or False. Cytochalasin B is added to the culture medium during enucleation of recipient oocytes for SCNT to remove remaining cumulus cells.

Back 35

F (Hyaluronidase will remove culumus cells)

Front 36

After the nucleus has been inserted into the cytoplast, the reconstructed embryo is activated in a medium that must be free of ___________.

Back 36

Calcium

Front 37

Cesarian section at day 19.5 of gestation is recommended for cloned pregnancies because:
a. Cloned fetuses may suffer from large offspring syndrome
b. Cloned fetuses cannot signal parturition from the dam
c. Remnant viral particles from the SCNT process may produce latent disease
d. Malposition of the fetus is a common problem in cloned pregnancies

Back 37

A

Front 38

True or False. Electrofusion of the karyoplast and cytoplast is more appropriately used when transferring large nuclei from large cells to avoid damage caused by a large injection pipette.

Back 38

T