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190 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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Which of the following statements best reflects the study of motivation according to Rene’ Descartes?
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A. Motivation is the approach of positive incentives and avoidance of negative incentives.
B. Motivation arises from the passions of the body and the reason of the mind. C. Motivation is the sum of all bodily needs. D. Motivation comes from discrepancies between what one wants to have and what one actually has. |
B
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Aristotle endorsed this tripartite model.
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A. Appetitive, Sensitive, Rational
B. Nutritive, Sensitive, Rational C. Appetitive, Competitive, Calculating D. Nutritive, Sensitive, Calculating |
B
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Plato's portrayal of how the mind generated motivation was remarkably similar to whose later portrayal of how the mind generated motivation?
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A. B. F. Skinner
B. Sigmund Freud C. Charles Darwin D. Clark Hull |
B
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McDougall, unlike James, believed that
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A. instincts could explain only specific phenomenon such as effort, self-control, and self-regulation.
B. the Will was the prime mover of behavior. C. all motivation owed its origin to instincts D. the drive construct could explain all human behavior |
C
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The motivational construct that arose to replace instinct as the grand explanatory construct was:
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A. arousal.
B. discrepancy. C. drive. D. emotion. |
C
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A grand theory of motivation is one that:
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A. is all-encompassing and seeks to explain the full range of all motivated action.
B. has the most empirical validation to support it. C. is recognized by leaders in the field for having been around longer that other theories. D. all of the above |
A
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The primary reason why the Will failed as a grand theory of motivation was because
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A. it could explain only specific phenomenon such as effort, self-control, and self-regulation.
B. It proved to be as mysterious and difficult to explain as was the motivation it supposedly generated. C. its underlying explanatory logic was exposed as circular. D. it focused only on explaining the direction of behavior, not the energization of behavior. |
B
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It may be more parsimonious to view Will (or will-power) as a(n)
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A. implementation intention
B. instinct C. drive D. none of the above |
A
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The advantage that instinct had over the will as a scientific motivational construct was that the instinct, unlike the will,
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A. arose from the study of philosophy.
B. could be shown to be highly similar to other motivational constructs. C. was very popular D. its origins could be identified and traced to a physical substance, one’s genetic endowment. |
D
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Which scientific event opened the intellectual door for psychologists to study the instinct as a potential grand theory of motivation?
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A. Darwin’s biological determinism
B. Descartes’ distinction between the mind and the body C. Freud’s theory of unconscious motivation D. Lewin’s theory of purpose |
A
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Which of the following proved to be an important criticism to refute instinct theory?
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A. Instinct energize behavior but they do not direct it toward any particular goal.
B. Instincts exist on an enormous scale in the animal kingdom. C. Instinct theory confuses naming with explaining. D. Two animals with identical instincts will show very similar motivations when they are raised in two very different environments. |
C
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The fundamental assumption(s) of drive theory was that:
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A) drive emerged from the disturbance of bodily needs.
B) drive had a general energizing effect on behavior. C) drive reduction was reinforcing and produced learning. D) All of the above |
D
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Which of the following historical figures actively promoted drive as a grand theory to explain motivation?
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A. Aristotle
B. Charles Darwin C. Knight Dunlap D. Sigmund Freud |
D
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Whose theory of motivation is being summarized: The purpose of behavior is to serve the satisfaction of bodily needs. If need-based energy accumulates unchecked over time, motivation arises as a sort of emergency warning system in the form of psychological anxiety that signals action needs to be taken. Once action is initiated, both bodily need and psychological anxiety are quieted.
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A. Descartes’ mind-body dualism
B. Freud’s drive theory C. James’ instinct theory D. McDougall’s instinct theory |
B
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What feature made Hull’s drive theory different from any other motivational theory before it?
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A. It focused on biological needs.
B. It stated that motivation could be predicted before it occurred. C. It combined the theories of will, instinct, and drive into one larger motivational theory. D. It stated that drive directed behavior. |
B
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Which of the following succinctly characterizes Hull’s drive theory?
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A. Drive, Cue, Response, Reward
B. Action, Environment, Person, Behavior C. Goal, Drive Reduction, Stimulus, Drive Induction D. Source, Object, Action, Satisfaction |
A
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Three historical events explain why motivation study left behind its grand theories in favor of embracing mini-theories. Which of the following is not one of those events?
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A. A growing interest in applied socially-relevant problems and applications.
B. The assumption that human beings are naturally active rather than naturally passive. C. The cognitive revolution. D. The fall in importance of the clinical approach to motivation study. |
D
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Which of the following motivational constructs arose after the decline of drive theory as a possible grand theory replacement?
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A. habit
B. hedonism C. incentive D. Instinct |
C
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In the expectancy based cognitive theories of Tolman and Lewin,
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A. Behavior is goal-directed and purposive
B. Cognitive events (expectancy, intentions) intervene between stimulus and response C. Tension reduction stamps in stimulus-response bonds D. Only A and B |
D
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What is the detectable difference between a current and optimal state of arousal
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A. Incentive
B. Discrepancy C. Suppression D. Instinct |
B
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What step in Kuhn’s typical development of scientific discipline includes researchers coming to a consensus about what constitutes the discipline?
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A. Pre-paradigmatic
B. Paradigmatic C. Crisis and Resolution D. New Paradigm |
B
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Unlike grand theories, mini-theories:
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A. Limit attention to specific motivational phenomenon
B. Try to explain every facet of motivation C. Are correct D. Can be tested |
A
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The textbook concludes that contemporary motivation study is in a new paradigm. What is so new about the new paradigm?
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A. A few critical motivation theories have emerged as most important to the field and worth most of the attention.
B. Motivational psychology no longer studies unconscious, psychological, biological, or evolutionary processes. C. The contemporary landscape is more like an intellectual democracy of ideas than it is like the kingship of the grand theories era. D. We should limit our contemporary study to the instigators of behavior. |
C
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In which of the following developmental stages of a scientific discipline does the following occur: An unexplained anomaly that cannot be explain emerges. A new way of thinking begins to emerge. Some participants resist the new way of thinking, while other participants begin to embrace the new-and-improved way of thinking.
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A. crisis and revolution
B. new paradigm C. paradigmatic D. pre-paradigmatic |
A
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In terms of the historical study of motivation, what was so important about the fact that motivational thinkers began to focus on applied, socially-relevant research?
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A. A focus on naturally-occurring instances of motivation outside the research laboratory.
B. An ideological shift away from studying human motivational constructs. C. The emergence of motivation study as the most important field in the study of psychology. D. The first usage of sophisticated brain imaging equipment such as the MRI and PET scan. |
A
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Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system?
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A. Hippocampus
B. Amygdala C. Medulla D. Hypothalamus |
C
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This part of the brain regulates heart rate and hormone secretion in response to certain environmental influences. It controls the autonomic nervous system.
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A. Hypothalamus
B. Prefrontal Cortex C. Reticular Formation D. Amygdala |
A
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The more you diet, the hungrier you get. The hunger-stimulating hormone circulated in the blood and detected and monitored by the brain is:
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A. dopamine
B. ghrelin C. k-peptide D. leptin |
B
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Which of the following brain structures is involved in generating pleasure or the subjective experience of reinforcement?
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A. amygdala
B. hippocampus C. medial forebrain bundle D. reticular formation |
C
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The ____ regulates the emotions involved in self-preservation, such as anger, anxiety, and fear.
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A. amygdala
B. hippocampus C. hypothalamus D. reticular formation |
A
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_____ are the biochemical agents in the body that work to stimulate the brain structures that give rise to experienced motivational states in everyday life.
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A. Circuits and formations
B. Enzymes and monoamines C. Glands and release-chemicals D. Neurotransmitters and hormones |
D
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According to the textbook, the current gold-standard for looking deeply inside the brain to monitor its activity during a motivational or emotional state is the:
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A. BRAIN, Balanced recording and imagining network
B. BOSS, Blood oxygenation sampling station C. EEIT, Electroencephalogram imaging technique D. fMRI, functional Magnetic resonance imaging |
D
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For hunger, which of the following best illustrates the brain principle of, “Day-to-day events stir biochemical agents into action.”
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A. Food deprivation (dieting) increases ghrelin.
B. Increased ghrelin stimulates the hypothalamus. C. Social pressures lead people to want to diet. D. The hypothalamus generates felt hunger. |
A
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Which of the following statements about the neural interventions between the frontal cortex and the amygdala is most true?
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A. The amygdala projects relatively many fibers upwards to the frontal cortex while the frontal cortex projects relatively few fibers down to the amygdala.
B. The amygdala projects relatively few fibers upwards to the frontal cortex while the frontal cortex projects relatively many fibers down to the amygdala. C. The number of nerve fibers projected upward to the frontal cortex from the amygdala is about the same as the number of fibers projected downward to the amygdala from the frontal cortex. D. Dense fibers flow both ways—many fibers project upward to the frontal cortex from the amygdala and many fibers project downward to the amygdala from the frontal cortex. |
A
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Active coping attempts with environmental stressors, when successful, generate the release of endorphins, which shuts down or quietens the brain’s:
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A. epinephrine-norepinephrine balance.
B. hypothalamus. C. reticular formation. D. septo-hippocampal circuit. |
D
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If a person score’s high on the BIS (Behavioral Inhibition System), s/he may have chronic right-side prefrontal asymmetry and may be more vulnerable to __________________.
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A. negative emotions and avoidance feelings
B. positive emotions and approach feelings C. release ghrelin D. anticipate both relaxation and anxiety |
A
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______________________ trigger(s) dopamine release and the generation of positive feelings.
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A. Sympathetic nervous system activation
B. Stimuli that foreshadow the imminent delivery of reward C. Time of day and eating schedules (breakfast, lunch, dinner) D. Stress hormone release |
B
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___ is the so-called stress hormone that is typically released from the adrenal gland to prepare the body for a social-evaluative threat, such as public speaking.
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A. A-peptide
B. Cortisol C. K-peptide D. Testosterone |
B
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A _____________________ is any condition within the person that is essential and necessary for life, growth, and well-being.
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A. drive
B. homeostasis C. need D. Regulation |
C
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Which of the following is the closest synonym to appetite?
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A. Homeostasis
B. Negative feedback signal C. Psychological drive D. Restraint-release |
C
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The smell of food, the appearance of food, the time of day, and the presence of other people who are eating all represent ___ that contribute to and regulate the rise and fall of hunger and eating.
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A. extra-organismic mechanisms.
B. homeostatic influences. C. multiple inputs. D. psychological drive. |
A
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The neural, hormonal, and physiological intraorganismic mechanisms regulate the homeostatic status of internal states that then activate __________ if conditions are too low and __________ if conditions are too high.
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A. extra-organismic mechanisms/multiple outputs
B. multiple outputs/extra-organismic mechanims C. negative feedback/physiological need and psychological drive D. physiological need and psychological drive/negative feedback |
D
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Of the following physiological needs, which one is relatively little regulated by intra-organismic mechanisms and relatively much regulated by extra-organismic ones?
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A. hunger
B. pain C. sex D. thirst |
C
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The major negative feedback system that regulates and lessens the experience of thirst and inhibits drinking is found in the body’s:
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A. cells.
B. mouth. C. stomach. D. all of the above |
D
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What is the most important environmental influence for drinking?
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A. taste
B. cultural beliefs C. color D. none of the above |
A
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Which of the following statements is not true about hunger and feeding behavior?
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A. Intravenous injection of glucose decreases activity in the lateral hypothalamus.
B. Hunger is the body’s means of defending its genetic set point of how much it should weigh. C. The body monitors its fat cells rather precisely. D. The glucostatic hypothesis explains the set-point theory of hunger and eating. |
D
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Given the importance of environmental influences on eating and obesity, an alternative hypothesis to homeostatic regulation suggests that _________________.
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A. physical activity alone can regulate a person’s set point
B. opponent processes of positively stimulating and negatively restraining signals create slowly changing settling points C. being alone causes a person to eat more than s/he needs. D. environmental stressors can explain obesity |
B
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What is the difference between the traditional sex response cycle and the alternative sex response cycle as outlined in the textbook.
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A. In the traditional cycle, sexual desire is triggered first in the presence physiological sexual arousal whereas in the alternative cycle, sexual desire is triggered later in response to emotional intimacy and relationship factors.
B. In the traditional sex response cycle, sex begins with intimacy needs whereas the alternative outlines four distinct stages of desire, arousal, orgasm, and resolution. C. The traditional sex response is true only for women. D. The alternative sex response is a very rare sexual response. |
A
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Consider mating strategies. Which of the following represents must-have “necessities” in determining one’s preference to select a mate?
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A. For both men and women, kindness is a necessity.
B. For both men and women, being the same age is a necessity. C. For men, physical attractiveness is a necessity in women; for women, social status is a necessity in men. D. For men, social status is a necessity in women; for women, physical attractiveness is a necessity in men. |
C
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People fail to self-regulate their bodily appetites for three primary reasons. Which one of the following is not one of those reasons?
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A. People fail to monitor what they are doing, as they become distracted or overwhelmed.
B. People can lack standards or have inconsistent, conflicting, unrealistic, or inappropriate standards of how to behave. C. People pay relatively too much attention to their long-term goals and relatively too little attention to their short-term goals. D. When not currently experiencing them, people underestimate how powerful biological urges can be. |
C
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The behavioral view of learning assumes that learning is essentially a change in behavior, and this view emphasizes the effects of_____ as the cause of that learning?
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A. behavioral anchors
B. environmental stimuli C. knowledge, schemas, and scripts D. psychological needs |
B
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Social needs are acquired through _________
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A. situational events that promote a psychological sense of tension, pressure, and urgency
B. experience, development, and socialization C. physiological determinants D. None of the above |
D
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The behavioral act of taking out the garbage in order to stop your roommate's persistent nagging to do so results in _____ for the act of taking out the garbage.
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A. extinction
B. negative reinforcement C. positive reinforcement D. punishment |
B
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Which of the following is a difference between a Controlling function and an Informational function?
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A. A Controlling Function decreases intrinsic motivation, while an Informational function increases intrinsic motivation.
B. A Controlling function undermines learning, while an Informational function enhances learning. C. A Controlling function decreases self-regulation, while an Informational function encourages self-regulation. D. All of the above. |
D
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If a musician who enjoys playing music “for fun” begins to receive money for playing music at weddings week-after-week, what is most likely to happen to his or her intrinsic and extrinsic motivations to play music in the future?
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A. intrinsic decreases, while extrinsic increases
B. intrinsic increases, while extrinsic decreases C. both decrease D. both increase |
A
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In the Lepper et al. study in which children received good player awards
for a drawing activity, children in which experimental condition showed the largest decrease in their later intrinsic motivation to draw? |
A. children in the no-reward condition
B. children in the expected reward condition C. children in the unexpected reward condition D. children who showed little or not intrinsic motivation at the start of the study. |
B
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Which of the following is a benefit of extrinsic rewards?
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A. Rewards can increase autonomous self-regulation.
B. Rewards can promote conceptual understanding of the information to be learned. C. Rewards can promote creativity. D. Rewards make an otherwise uninteresting task suddenly seem worth pursuing. |
D
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Which of the following is not an assumption of cognitive evaluation theory?
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A. all external events have a controlling aspect and an informational aspect.
B. all external events promote intrinsic motivation. C. all people possess psychological needs for competence and autonomy. D. highly controlling external events decrease intrinsic motivation. |
B
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According to Deci and Ryan's cognitive evaluation theory, all extrinsic events have two functional aspects: a controlling aspect and an informational aspect. To say that an external event is informational means that it:
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A. communicates either a job done well or a job done poorly.
B. is more likely to act as a positive reinforcer than a negative reinforcer. C. provides an incentive to increase motivation. D. signals that extrinsic motivation exceeds intrinsic motivation. |
A
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According to self-determination theory, what type of motivation explains the student's effort in school when the student says, "I try so hard so the teacher won’t yell at me."?
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A. external regulation
B. identified regulation C. intrinsic motivation D. introjected regulation |
A
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The reason an externally-provided rationale works as a motivational strategy during an uninteresting activity is because it can:
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A. calm and settle down the person’s anxiety and arousal.
B. increase desired behavior and decreases undesired behavior. C. increase internalization, valuing, and identified regulation. D. provide the person with an opportunity to perform high frequency, not just low frequency, behaviors. |
C
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Which of the following ways of delivering praise best supports the intrinsic motivation of the other person? Saying:
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A. Good job, you improved by 10%.
B. Good job, but you must try harder next time. C. Good job, please keep it up because you make me so proud. D. Good job, you did just what you were supposed to do. |
A
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According to self-determination theory, what type of motivation explains the student's effort in school when the student says, "I try so hard so I won’t feel guilty or ashamed of myself."?
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A. external regulation
B. identified regulation C. intrinsic motivation D. introjected regulation |
D
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With which of the following statements would an intrinsic motivation theorist most readily agree?
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A. People are inherently active.
B. People are inherently passive. C. People pursue pleasure, mostly through sensory experience. D. People seek rewards and avoid punishments. |
A
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Consider the motivation of an athlete. Which of the following relationships between a coach and an athlete reflects a person— environment dialectic?
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A. The athlete practices her sport with energy and purpose.
B. The coach instructs the athlete and provides detailed and timely feedback. C. The athlete shows interest, the coach recommends a game to play as practice, the athlete plays the game out of interest. D. The coach tells the athlete what to do during practice, and the athlete practices that way with skill and expertise. |
C
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_____ is the need to experience self-direction and personal endorsement in the initiation and regulation of one’s behavior, and it reflects the desire to have one's choices and preferences rather than environmental events determine one's actions.
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A. Autonomy
B. Competence C. Relatedness D. Self-actualization |
A
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Targets a prescribed outcome” and “applies pressures” are the two defining characteristics of what type of motivating style?
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A. autonomy-supportive
B. controlling C. mastery oriented D. success oriented |
B
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Which one of the following is an autonomy-supportive behavior?
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A. asks controlling questions
B. communicates with should and have-to statements C. listens carefully D. shows students what they have to do and then tells them the correct answers |
C
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The greater one's effectance motivation, the greater one's desire to seek out and approach situations that:
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A. allow the person to relate to others in a way that is warm and meaningful.
B. are ambiguous, or at least are creativity-enhancing. C. challenge existing skills and competencies. D. promise positive feedback. |
C
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_____ constitutes the environmental event that involves the need for competence; _____ constitutes the environmental event that satisfies the need for competence.
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A. challenge; positive feedback
B. difficult tasks; doing better than others C. easy success; doing better than others D. positive feedback; easy success |
A
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In his research with chess masters, rock climbers, dancers, and surgeons, Csikszentmihalyi found that the fundamental antecedent to "flow" is that the activity must provide its participants with:
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A. an optimal challenge.
B. extrinsic rewards. C. rich collative properties. D. the presence and reassurance of friends or confidants. |
A
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Which of the following is not considered to be evidence that people have a psychological need for relatedness?
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A. Once formed, people are reluctant to break social bonds, or relationships.
B. So many people from so many different cultures eventually get married. C. Social bonds between people seem to form so easily. D. We go out of our way to create a relationship when given the opportunity to interact with others in face-to-face interactions |
B
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___ provides the social context in which internalization occurs.
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A. Authoritarian parenting
B. Relatedness to others C. Relationship reciprocity D. Social exchange |
B
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Structure enhances engagement because it involves and satisfies the need for:
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A. being appreciated.
B. competence. C. relatedness. D. autonomy. |
B
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When people have days that allow them to feel self-determined, competent, and interpersonally related, they are more likely to agree with which of the following statements:
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A. “I feel energized.”
B. “I feel like casting off my cares and playing hooky today.” C. “I need to rest.” D. “I deserve a reward, like a prize—a really good prize.” |
A
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Which type of need is described here: Ephemeral, situationally-induced wants that create tense energy to engage in that behavior which
is capable of reducing the built-up tension. |
A. achievement needs
B. physiological needs C. psychological needs D. quasi-needs |
D
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Social needs are acquired through _________
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A. situational events that promote a psychological sense of tension, pressure, and urgency
B. experience, development, and socialization C. physiological determinants D. None of the above |
B
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The environmental incentive that activates the emotional and behavioral potential of the social need for achievement is:
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A. doing something well to show personal competence.
B. having impact on others. C. opportunity to please others and gain their approval. D. warm, secure relationship. |
A
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The environmental incentive that activates the emotional and behavioral potential of the social need for affiliation is:
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A. doing something well to show personal competence.
B. having impact on others. C. opportunity to please others and gain their approval. D. warm, secure relationship. |
C
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The environmental incentive that activates the emotional and behavioral potential of the social need for intimacy is:
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A. doing something well to show personal competence.
B. having impact on others. C. opportunity to please others and gain their approval. D. warm, secure relationship. |
D
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The environmental incentive that activates the emotional and behavioral potential of the social need for power is:
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A. doing something well to show personal competence.
B. having impact on others. C. opportunity to please others and gain their approval. D. warm, secure relationship. |
B
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The impetus (desire) to do well relative to a standard of excellence for an achievement-oriented individual involves:
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A. performing better than others, as in winning a competition.
B. performing a specific task well, as in solving a crossword puzzle. C. performing better than one has performed in the past, as in swimming faster than ever before. D. all of the above |
D
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According to the dynamics-of-action model, achievement behavior eventually ends because:
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A. external social pressures mount, often increasing the fear of failure.
B. failure is frustrating, and it thus eventually stimulates a cessation in behavior. C. the fear of failure typically overwhelms the motive to succeed. D. once achievement behavior begins, it tends to consume itself. |
D
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Due to the deficiency-based nature of the need for affiliation, what emotion will the person feel with the need is satisfied?
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A. relief
B. happiness C. joy D. Worry |
A
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If a classroom teacher defines success as showing improvement and places a high value on learning and effort, then her students are
likely to adopt which type of achievement goal during learning activities? |
A. mastery goal.
B. performance goal. C. performance-approach goal only. D. performance-avoidance goal only. |
A
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For an entity theorist, the meaning of effort is:
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A. “it is a tool, the means by which I can turn on and capitalize on my skills.”
B. “the harder you try, the dumber you therefore must be.” C. “the more you try and the more you learn, the better you get.” D. “like rain in the garden, it is effort that allows skills and talents to grow.” |
B
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From your reading to the text, you should expect that as an interpersonal relationship develops over time, people high in the need for _____ experience increased satisfaction in that relationship whereas people low in that need experience mostly a sense of entrapment.
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A. achievement
B. affiliation C. intimacy D. power |
C
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People high in the need for power desire to have high levels of all of the following, except:
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A. control
B. impact C. influence D. friends |
D
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According to goal setting theory, difficult and specific goals enhance performance by _________ and __________ an individual to a
course of action. |
A. energizing; directing
B. energizing; pressuring C. directing; deactivating D. pressuring; energizing |
A
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The construct that functions as a motivational spring to action when the person’s present state of how life is going falls short of the
person’s hoped-for ideal state is referred to as a(n): |
A. attribution
B. discrepancy C. displacement D. mental simulation |
B
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Discrepancy reduction is _____; discrepancy creation is ______.
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A. Approach-based, avoidance-based
B. avoidance-based, approach-based C. goal-based, plan-based D. reactive, proactive |
D
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Specific, difficult, and challenging goals enhance performance, but an additional variable that is crucial to allow goals to translate into effective performance is:
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A. concrete intentions.
B. extrinsic motivation. C. feedback. D. internal attributions for success. |
C
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If the following four people were performing sit-ups, goal-setting theory predicts the person who would perform the most sit-ups would be the person with ___ goal.
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A. no
B. an easy C. a moderately difficult D. a very difficult |
C
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People with specific goals outperform people with vague goals. This is so because people with specific goals show greater:
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A. effort and persistence.
B. goal acceptance. C. mental simulations of successful outcomes. D. on-task attention and strategic planning. |
D
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Many people with long-term goals such as “become a doctor” eventually abandon their long-term goal pursuit. The essential motivational problem with long-term goals is that they:
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A. are incompatible with implementation intentions, which are crucial for goal attainment over a long period of time.
B. focus the performer on what to do rather than on when to do it. C. ignore the importance of key factors of performance such as coaching and training. D. provide insufficient opportunity for performance feedback and positive reinforcement. |
D
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Implementation intentions are effective in goal-setting pursuits because they:
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A. buffer performers against falling prey to volitional problems.
B. create energy and direction for behavior that plans and goals cannot generate. C. promote performance-approach goals and minimize performance-avoidance goals. D. all of the above |
A
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Which of the following statements best reflects an effective implementation intention?
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A. “If I focus clearly on my goal, I will be able to attain it.”
B. “If I believe in my goal and rehearse it coming true, I will be able to attain it.” C. “When I create choices among my goals, I will have the flexibility to succeed.” D. “When I encounter situation X, I will do behavior Y.” |
D
|
|
|
Empirical research on the relationship between goal-setting and intrinsic motivation suggests that _____ is the key variable that determines whether short-term or long-term goals increase intrinsic motivation.
|
A. goal commitment
B. goal difficulty C. opportunities for challenge D. the performer's initial level of interest towards the activity |
D
|
|
|
According to Taylor’s findings, if you want to attain a specified goal, you should _____.
|
A. visualize success
B. focus on the content of the goal C. focus on how the processes needed to accomplish the goal D. All of the above |
C
|
|
|
All goal-setting programs begin with the question:
|
A. Do you have access to proper training, coaching, and resources?
B. What, when, where, and how long? C. What do you want to accomplish? D. What have you done successfully in the past? |
C
|
|
|
An _____ expectation is a person's estimate of how likely it is that he or she can act in a particular way; whereas an _____ expectation is
a person's estimate of how likely certain outcomes will follow once the person carries out that behavior. |
A. antecedent, effort
B. efficacy, outcome C. effort, antecedent D. outcome, efficacy |
B
|
|
|
According to the text, the opposite of self-efficacy is:
|
A. apathy.
B. doubt. C. helplessness. D. low self-esteem. |
B
|
|
|
Self-efficacy is not the same as ability. In what way does self-efficacy predict coping and performance above and beyond how one’s
ability predicts coping and performance? |
A. Self-efficacy is important in circumstances that are stressful, ambiguous and unpredictable.
B. Emotions are always ambiguous and unpredictable and hence require suppressing. C. Self-efficacy is a more important predictor of task performance that is ability. D. Self-efficacy predicts actual performance, ability predicts only potential performance. |
A
|
|
|
When one student who doubts his computer skills watches another student cope very well with the demands of a computer, the first
student’s efficacy expectation rises. The student’s increased efficacy expectation was due to the influence of: |
A. outcome feedback.
B. personal behavior history. C. verbal persuasion. D. vicarious experience. |
D
|
|
|
Self-efficacy beliefs produce persistent coping efforts because it ____________.
|
A. silences doubt following failure and rejection
B. leads to a quick recovery of self-assurance following setbacks C. increases anxiety which can be highly motivating D. causes attention to shift to one’s self-defiencies |
B
|
|
|
What is (are) the main difference(s) between mastery and helplessness?
|
A. Mastery is associated with task persistence and focus while helplessness is associated with giving up.
B. Mastery is associated with being energized by setbacks while helplessness is associated with shying away from challenges. C. Failure encourages mastery-oriented individuals to increase effort while helpless-oriented individuals decrease efforts in the face of failure D. All of the above |
D
|
|
|
You might hear a person who is experiencing learned helplessness saying each of the following quotes, except:
|
A. “I just don’t feel like doing anything. I just feel really tired.”
B. “I failed, but it wasn’t my fault.” C. “No matter why I tried, nothing seemed to work.” D. “Why try? I quit” |
B
|
|
|
A ___ is the personal tendency to explain why bad events happen to the self by using attributions that are unstable and controllable.
|
A. helpless explanatory style
B. optimistic explanatory style C. pessimistic explanatory style D. personality-based explanatory style |
B
|
|
|
According to Dweck and Repucci (1973), helpless-oriented children tend to quit in the face of failure because they tend to make _____ attributions to explain their failures.
|
A. high ability
B. low ability C. high effort D. low effort |
B
|
|
|
From an attributional perspective, both learned helplessness and depression have the same common cause, which is:
|
A. pessimistic explanatory style.
B. psychological reactance. C. self-serving bias. D. the illusion of control. |
A
|
|
|
The integration of self-efficacy and perceived control beliefs that one can attain desired goals leads to the psychological experience of:
|
A. intrinsic motivation.
B. explanatory style. C. hope. D. reactance. |
C
|
|
|
Which way of coping takes action to change the problem versus taking action to change oneself
|
A. Alloplastic versus Autoplastic
B. Direct versus Indirect C. Proactive versus Reactive D. Offensive versus Defensive |
A
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a person with a mastery motivation orientation as discussed in Chapter 9?
|
A. Seizes challenges
B. Flexible enough to change strategies in the face of obstacles C. Fixates on his or her lack of ability D. Failure is not an indictment of one’s lack of one’s ability |
C
|
|
|
The problem with placing too much emphasis on self-esteem in a motivational analysis of behavior is that:
|
A. no programs yet exist to show how self-esteem can be increased.
B. self-esteem is too difficult to measure to be treated as a scientific construct. C. self-esteem changes and varies too much with situational events. D. there are almost no findings that self-esteem causes anything at all. |
D
|
|
|
The book argues that the self has four fundamental motivational tasks to pursue and solve. Which of the following is not one of those
tasks? |
A. define and create the self (self-concept)
B. discover and develop the self’s potential (agency) C. increase and maintain self-esteem (self-esteem) D. relate the self to society (identity) |
C
|
|
|
Self-regulation is a cyclical process that involves _____________.
|
A. Reflection, acceptance, monitoring
B. Forethought, action, reflection C. Action, integration, drive D. Larry, Moe, and Curly |
B
|
|
|
Relating the self to society shows how ___ energizes and directs behavior.
|
A. agency
B. identity C. self-concept D. self-regulation |
B
|
|
|
_____ are cognitive generalizations about the self that are domain specific and learned from past experience.
|
A. Ego identity statuses
B. Fundamental sentiments C. Possible selves D. Self-schemas |
D
|
|
|
_____ selves, which motivate goal-directed behavior, are the imagined selves a person would eventually like to become.
|
A. Actual
B. Consistent C. Possible D. Schematic |
C
|
|
|
______ and ______ are two processes inherent within agency that guide on-going motivation and development with the first process
expanding the complexity of the self and the second process synthesizing that complexity into a coherent sense of self. |
A. Differentiation; integration
B. Dissonance, self-verification C. Self-concept, self-schema D. Self-schema, self-concept |
A
|
|
|
Intrinsic motivation and the psychological needs of autonomy and competence are inseparably associated with the self's:
|
A. agency.
B. domain-specific self-schemas. C. identity. D. self-concept. |
A
|
|
|
The experience of cognitive dissonance is psychologically aversive. To reduce dissonance, one thing people often do is:
|
A. add a dissonant belief
B. add a new consonant belief C. decrease the importance of a consonant belief D. increase the importance of a dissonant belief |
B
|
|
|
According to the self-concordant model, when people attain a self-concordant goal, they experience high:
|
A. need satisfaction.
B. relationship involvement. C. self-consistency. D. self-verification. |
A
|
|
|
Analyses of people’s goals and personal strivings suggests that subjective well-being is:
|
A. about adopting an equal ratio of performance-approach and performance-avoidance goals.
B. more about what one accomplishes in life rather than what one actually strives after. C. what one consciously and intentionally tries to do rather than what is unconscious. D. what one is striving for than about what one actually attains. |
D
|
|
|
The textbook uses the ancient Chinese phrase, “Start with your master, finish with yourself”, to illustrate how people develop
competence with which motivational struggle of the self? |
A. Defining or creating the self
B. Discovering and developing personal potential C. Increasing self-esteem D. Managing or regulating the self |
D
|
|
|
When sad, a person is motivated to take the action necessary to overcome or reverse the sense of failure or separation just experienced. This motivational aspect of the sadness emotion illustrates which component of the sadness emotional experience?
|
A. bodily arousal
B. feelings C. sense of purpose D. social-expressive |
C
|
|
|
In the debate over whether emotions are caused primarily by biology or primarily by cognitions, some argue that the debate is a chicken-
and-egg quandary, which means that: |
A. biology is the cause of emotion, while cognition is the after-effect.
B. cognition is the cause of emotion, while biology is the after-effect. C. emotion is a complex interactive chain of events. D. emotion intensifies over time to the point that the original cause of the emotion is not important to knowing the emotion’s eventual end-state. |
C
|
|
|
In considering how motivation and emotion relate to one another, which of the following statements is most accurate?
|
A. emotions function as one type of motive.
B. emotions and motivation are so similar that it makes sense to treat them as synonyms. C. motivation is more sensitive to changes in the environment, while emotion is more sensitive to changes in the person D. motivational states act as an on-going readout about the person’s emotional experience. |
A
|
|
|
Which of the following is not taken as evidence that emotions are biologically-generated events?
|
A. emotions so often arise from social interaction opportunities
B. emotions sometimes occur automatically and involuntarily C. very rapid onset D. we sometimes act emotionally even before we are aware of our emotional experience |
A
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
|
A. Contemporary emotion research largely discounts the biological and cognitive approaches and instead focuses on a social-
cultural approach. B. The biological approach provides a better, more accurate, perspective on understanding emotion than does the cognitive approach. C. The cognitive approach provides a better, more accurate, perspective on understanding emotion than does the biological approach. D. Together, the cognitive and biological approaches provide a comprehensive picture of the emotion process. |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a criteria researchers use to identify an emotion as a basic emotion?
|
A. It arises from the same circumstances for all people.
B. Distinctive physiological patterned responses and facial expressions. C. It is expressed more frequently by adults than by infants and children. D. It is innate, rather than acquired through experience. |
C
|
|
|
Which of the following emotions arise from restraint, as in the case of having one’s plans and goals interfered with by some outside force
|
A. anger
B. disgust C. distress (sadness) D. fear |
A
|
|
|
____ is the most prevalent emotion in day-to-day functioning.
|
A. anger
B. disgust C. distress (sadness) D. interest |
D
|
|
|
When a beneficial event related to our needs and well-being is anticipated, we feel ____.
|
A. achievement
B. anxiety C. interest D. the two contrasting emotions of pride and fear |
C
|
|
|
According to the text, _____ is the most negative, aversive emotion.
|
A. anger
B. disgust C. distress or sadness D. fear |
C
|
|
|
The _____ emotion arises primarily from experiences of separation and failure.
|
A. anger
B. disgust C. distress or sadness D. fear |
C
|
|
|
Which of the following is the best explanation of why positive affect generates so many positive outcomes, like creativity, helping, and sociability?
|
A. Being in a good mood influences biology, like serotonergic brain pathways.
B. Being in a good mood influences cognition, like memory and judgment. C. Being in a good mood suppresses negative affect that would otherwise generate negative outcomes. D. Being in a good mood suppresses negative emotions like fear from rising to a threshold of awareness. |
B
|
|
|
According to Isen, which of the following statements is most true?
|
A. Negative affect is independent—rather than the opposite—of positive affect and thus it is possible to feel positive and negative
affect at the same time. B. Negative affect is more complex than is positive affect. C. Positive affect increases helping behavior whereas negative affect does not. D. All of the above |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following sequence of events best reflects the James-Lange theory of emotion?
|
A. I see a bear, I appraise the situation as harmful, I feel fear, my heart races.
B. I see a bear, I feel fear, relief replaces fear, relief fades away. C. I see a bear, I feel fear, my heart races. D. I see a bear, my heart raced, I feel fear. |
D
|
|
|
The purpose of the cross-cultural investigations that tested whether human beings display similar facial expressions of emotion regardless of cultural/national differences was to demonstrate:
|
A. facial behavior has an innate, unlearned component.
B. facial behavior has a learned, voluntary component. C. some cultures express positive emotions clearly but negative emotions only vaguely. D. some cultures are more emotionally expressive than are other cultures. |
A
|
|
|
According to the facial feedback hypothesis, facial feedback does one thing, which is:
|
A. emotion activation.
B. emotion balancing. C. emotion filtering. D. emotion patterning. |
A
|
|
|
According to Tomkins, which of the following emotions is activated by a decreased rate of neural firing?
|
A. disgust
B. distress C. embarrassment D. joy |
D
|
|
|
All cognitive emotion theorists endorse the position that:
|
A. emotion activation arises from a felt tendency to approach or avoid the stimulus event.
B. emotion activation arises from the combination of cognitive and biological events. C. the appraisal, not the stimulus event itself, causes emotion. D. the stimulus event, not the appraisal, causes emotion. |
C
|
|
|
Which one of the following best represents Lazarus’ concept of primary appraisal?
|
A. Can I cope with this situation?
B. Is this event a personal threat? C. What was the outcome—a success or a failure? D. What will happen next? |
B
|
|
|
rding to Lazarus, a _____ appraisal, which occurs after some reflection, involves an estimate of whether one can do anything to cope with a potential stressor.
|
A. primary
B. secondary C. tertiary D. outcome-driven |
B
|
|
|
What is the most important contribution that Weiner's attributional analysis makes to the study of emotion?
|
A. Cognitive appraisals play at least as important a role as does physiological reaction.
B. Emotion is a motivational phenomenon. C. People can experience different emotions to the same outcome. D. The physiological and cognitive systems interact to produce emotion. |
C
|
|
|
Which of the following is true in considering the basic emotions of people in China?
|
A. Anger is a positive emotion
B. Fear in a positive emotion C. Happiness is a negative emotion D. Love is a negative emotion |
D
|
|
|
For people in China ____ is a basic emotion.
|
A. agony
B. isolation C. sentimentality D. shame |
D
|
|
|
When a person automatically mimics another’s emotional expression and begins to synchronize his or her own emotion with the other’s in terms of expression, vocalization, postures, and movements, what emotional phenomena has occurred?
|
A. Emotional contagion
B. Emotional contact C. Emotional reversal D. Socially shared cognition |
A
|
|
|
The most frequent source of a person’s day-to-day emotion is:
|
A. external sources of information that conflict with one’s prior beliefs.
B. other people C. success-failure outcomes D. unconscious memories |
B
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is true?
|
(a) Introverts are at least as happy as extraverts, if not more so.
(b) Most people are happy, and this is true almost irrespective of life circumstances. (c) People in social occupations are happier than are people in nonsocial occupations. (d) The more money (wealth) people have, the happier they are, generally speaking. |
B
|
|
|
Why are extraverts generally happier than are introverts? It is because extraverts are:
|
(a) less sensitive to negative feelings and to signals of punishment.
(b) more sensitive to positive feelings and to signals of reward. (c) more likely to gain control over life situations that would otherwise be stressful. (d) psychologically stronger and hardier than introverts. |
B
|
|
|
The happiness set point can be explained by individual differences in:
|
(a) Extraversion.
(b) Intelligence. (c) Neuroticism. (d) Perceived control. |
A
|
|
|
The unhappiness set point can be explained by individual differences in:
|
(a) Extraversion.
(b) Introversion. (c) Neuroticism. (d) Perceived control. |
C
|
|
|
The motivational function of the Behavioral Activating System (BAS) is to energize:
|
(a) acetylcholine in the neocortex.
(b) an attention-getting stress response. (c) approach-oriented, goal-directed behavior. (d) avoidance-oriented, goal-directed behavior. |
C
|
|
|
The motivational function of the Behavioral Inhibition System (BIS) is to energize:
|
(a) acetylcholine in the neocortex.
(b) an attention-getting stress response. (c) approach-oriented, goal-directed behavior. (d) avoidance-oriented, goal-directed behavior. |
D
|
|
|
The study with students taking vocabulary tests under conditions of (1) pressure vs. no pressure and (2) caffeine vs. no caffeine supports the credibility of the inverted-U hypothesis because it shows:
|
(a) how arousal effects performance.
(b) that the inverted-U curve applies to everyday arousing events. (c) the means by which situationally-induced arousal decreases performance. (d) the means by which situationally-induced arousal increases performance. |
B
|
|
|
Which reason(s) best explains why sensation seekers might be attracted to drug usage?
|
(a) Drugs can provide a means of escape from boredom.
(b) Drugs can provide a new experience, such as a hallucination. (c) Drugs can release the person from inhibitions against risky behavior. (d) all of the above |
D
|
|
|
Psychopharmacological studies have shown that sensation seekers have significantly lower levels of _____ than do sensation-avoiders.
|
(a) brain lateralization hormones
(b) catecholamines (c) endorphins (d) MAO inhibitors |
D
|
|
|
Compared to affect stable individuals, affect intense individuals react:
|
(a) overly negative to both good and bad events.
(b) overly positive to both good and bad events. (c) overly positive to good events and overly negative to bad events. (d) overly positive to good events but essentially the same to bad events. |
C
|
|
|
___ is(are) a necessary forerunner for constructing beliefs about one’s competence, efficacy, and ability.
|
(a) Desire for cognition
(b) Empathy (c) Introversion (d) Perceived control beliefs |
D
|
|
|
People are generally motivated to pursue events such as good grades, promotions at work, and successful relationships. When some
barrier like high task difficulty separates the person from such attractive outcomes, individual differences in ___ intervene to explain when and why people put forth the effort necessary to control their fate. |
(a) causality orientation
(b) desire for control (c) personal orientations (d) self-concept certainty |
B
|
|
|
A person’s habitual, learned manner of defense against anxiety is called:
|
(a) aggression.
(b) identification. (c) object relations. (d) personality. |
D
|
|
|
The subject matter of psychoanalysis is:
|
(a) how relatively weak needs are replaced by relatively strong needs.
(b) identifying and understanding social realities rather than social facades. (c) the promotion and actualization of mental health. (d) the unconscious. |
D
|
|
|
The ___ runs on automatic pilot as it carries out countless computations and innumerable adjustments during acts such as driving a car
and playing the piano. |
(a) adaptive unconscious
(b) Freudian unconscious (c) implicit motivation (d) the primary process |
A
|
|
|
___ describes motivational processes that are difficult to articulate or measure, linked to emotional experiences, and orient people to
attend automatically to environmental events that have emotional associations. |
(a) Adaptive unconscious
(b) Freudian unconscious (c) Implicit motivation (d) The primary process |
C
|
|
|
Motivational and emotional processes frequently operate in parallel with one another such that people commonly want and fear the
same thing at the same time. This statement describes: |
(a) ego developmental trajectories.
(b) objects relations theory. (c) psychodynamics. (d) the preconscious mental life. |
C
|
|
|
The brain structure that corresponds best to id functions and processes is the:
|
(a) limbic system.
(b) neocortex. (c) reticular activating system. (d) sensory cortex. |
A
|
|
|
__________ refers to the process of forgetting information or an experience by ways that are unconscious, unintentional, and automatic whereas __________ refers to the process of forgetting information or an experience by ways that are conscious, intentional, and deliberate
|
(a) Suppression; repression
(b) Repression; suppression (c) Transference; wish fulfillment (d) Wish fulfillment; transference |
B
|
|
|
According to the study of psychodynamics, continued suppression of a thought will build up a potent counter-force that drives the
unwanted thought toward becoming a(n): |
(a) defense mechanism.
(b) obsession. (c) ritualization. (d) traumatic stress on the preconscious mind. |
B
|
|
|
An individual's perceived competence in dealing with environmental challenges, demands, and opportunities is _____. The greater this
sense of competence is, the stronger the person’s desire to seek out new and challenging interactions with the environment. |
(a) ego differentiation
(b) ego effectance (c) self-actualization (d) sublimation |
B
|
|
|
According to contemporary psychodynamic researchers, the sources of motivation most worthy of empirical investigation and analysis
include each of the following, except: |
(a) ego-based effective motives.
(b) environmentally-based reinforcement contingencies. (c) id-based unconscious wishes. (d) relationship-based psychological needs for relatedness. |
B
|
|
|
Research on objects relations theory revolves around understanding the motivational significance of people’s:
|
(a) conscious wish for social status and upward social mobility.
(b) physiological need to keep anxiety at bay. (c) psychological need for relatedness with others. (d) unconscious wish for sexual sublimation. |
C
|
|
|
Which of the following experiences is central to objects relations theory?
|
(a) goal pursuit
(b) the non-Freudian unconscious (c) parental abuse and neglect (d) self-definition of the ego |
C
|
|
|
Which of the following represents a criticism or recognized shortcoming of the psychoanalytic study of unconscious motivation?
|
a) Bad is stronger than good.
(b) It is difficult to know what the unconscious really wants. (c) It is a wonderful interpretive device for events that occurred in the past, but is woeful as a predictive device. (d) Unconscious motivation predicts people’s emotions and behavior better than does conscious motivation. |
C
|
|
|
According to humanistic psychology, the everyday choice to follow one’s inner nature versus follow cultural priorities is not a neutral
choice. People generally follow social preferences and priorities because: |
(a) following social messages predicts adjustment, while following inner guides predicts maladjustment.
(b) following social messages corresponds with high interpersonal competence, while following inner guides corresponds with low interpersonal competence. (c) social messages are strong, while inner guides are subtle. (d) social messages are reliable and valid, while inner guides are unreliable and invalid. |
C
|
|
|
Humanistic psychology is mostly about:
|
(a) discovering human potential and encouraging its development.
(b) love. (c) resolving psychological conflicts and overcoming psychological addictions. (d) the healthy aspects of the psychological unconscious mind. |
A
|
|
|
Positive psychology investigates:
|
(a) amotivation.
(b) overt measurable behaviors, not subjective experiences. (c) positive subjective experiences, such as creativity. (d) the on-going intrapsychic clashing of mental forces. |
C
|
|
|
Compared to people who pursue inner guides like self-actualization, people who devote their lives to the pursuit of the American dream
(money, fame, popularity): |
(a) come from small families (few number of children in the household).
(b) have a greater capacity to experience flow. (c) show gains in psychological well being. (d) suffer more psychological distress. |
D
|
|
|
___ is an inherent developmental striving. It is a process of leaving behind defenses and moving toward autonomous self-regulation.
|
(a) Identity
(b) Internalization (c) Self-actualization (d) Self-esteem |
C
|
|
|
Which of the following is not one of the themes proposed by Maslow’s need hierarchy?
|
(a) Needs arrange themselves in the hierarchy according to potency, or strength.
(b) Needs vary in how innate they are, as some are innate and others are learned. (c) Needs in the hierarchy are fulfilled sequentially, from lowest to highest. (d) The lower the need in the hierarchy, the sooner it appears in development. |
B
|
|
|
The study of motivation referred to as _____ asserts that a human being is best understood as an integrated, organized whole, rather than as a series of differential parts.
|
(a) behaviorism
(b) holism (c) integrationism (d) objectivism |
B
|
|
|
As an individual learns from parents and peers what behaviors and characteristics are "good and bad" and "right and wrong," he or she learns _____.
|
(a) characteristics necessary for the emergence of the self
(b) conditions for self-actualization (c) conditions of the fully functioning individual (d) conditions of worth |
D
|
|
|
Internalization of parental conditions of worth:
|
(a) moves the person away from basic needs such as love and belongingness.
(b) moves the person away from the organismic valuation process. (c) moves the person toward becoming a fully functioning individual. (d) produces congruence between the actualizing tendency and the self-actualizing tendency. |
B
|
|
|
The following statement describes _____: The individual perceives himself as having characteristics a, b, and c and feelings u, v, and w, but that same person publicly expresses characteristics d, e, and f and feelings x, y, an z.
|
(a) congruence
(b) incongruence (c) self-actualization (d) socialization |
B
|
|
|
Validation-seeking individuals strive to:
|
(a) create opportunities for personal growth, learning, and self-improvement.
(b) prove their self-worth, competence, and likeability. (c) reject controlling conditions of worth imposed upon them by parents and society. (d) reject stereotypical identities impose upon them by society. |
B
|
|
|
A relative insensitivity to inner guides and a preference to pay closer attention to behavioral incentives, cues, and pressures
that exist in the environment is referred to as a(n)__________. |
(a) autonomy causality orientation
(b) congruent orientation (c) control causality orientation (d) Incongruent orientation |
C
|
|
|
The motivation for a person with an autonomy causality orientation revolves around:
|
(a) intrinsic motivation and identified regulation.
(b) introjected regulation and identified regulation. (c) extrinsic motivation and intrinsic motivation. (d) extrinsic motivation and introjected regulation. |
A
|
|
|
According to the textbook, creating meaning:
|
(a) is a futile (delusional) process.
(b) is a socially-transmitted process. (c) is an active, interpretive process. (d) is an inborn, genetic, and largely unconscious process. |
C
|
|
|
The fundamental assertion of positive psychology therapy can be summarized as:
|
(a) early childhood trauma blocks the person’s capacity, even willingness, for personal growth.
(b) good mental health requires more than the absence of mental illness. (c) to thrive, people need to seek pleasure and the absence of problems (i.e., hedonic well-being). (d) to thrive, people often need to put on rose-colored glasses and see only the good side of life. |
B
|
