Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
220 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
|
Which structure is located within the mediastinum?
|
Heart
|
A. Heart
B. Lung C. Stomach D. Larynx |
|
|
Regulation of movement into and out of a cell is accomplished by the:
|
Cytoplasmic Membrane
|
A. Cytoplasmic membrane
B. Protoplasm C. Organelles D. Endoplasmic reticulum |
|
|
Along with the medulla, this part of the brain helps to control breathing:
|
Pons
|
A. Cerebellum
B. Pons C. Thalamus D. Cerebrum |
|
|
The tissue that is responsible for conducting electrical signals is the:
|
Nervous Tissue
|
A. Connective tissue
B. Muscle tissue C. Epithelial tissue D. Nervous tissue |
|
|
Which blood component is made up of water, electrolytes, and proteins such as albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen?
|
Plasma
|
A. Plasma
B. Platelets C. Leukocytes D. Erythrocytes |
|
|
A paramedic inserting an intraosseous needle into the tibia of a child accidentally injures the epiphyseal plate. The result of this injury, if left untreated, will be:
|
Impaired Bone Growth
|
A. Infection
B. Impaired bone growth C. Loss of ability to create new blood cells D. Failure of blood clotting mechanisms |
|
|
The atrioventricular valves of the heart are the:
|
Mitral And Tricuspid
|
A. Mitral and aortic
B. Aortic and pulmonic C. Mitral and tricuspid D. Tricuspid and pulmonic |
|
|
A paramedic feels the sternum and locates the angle of Louis. Lateral to the angle of Louis is the:
|
Second Rib
|
A. Second rib
B. Costal margin C. Anterior axillary line D. Point of maximum impulse |
|
|
The only complete ring in the larynx or trachea is the:
|
Cricoid Cartilage
|
A. Thyroid cartilage
B. Cricoid cartilage C. Hyoid bone D. Arytenoid cartilage |
|
|
A patient with a neurological disease that damages the motor neurons is unable to:
|
Contract his or her Muscles
|
A. Contract his or her muscles
B. Feel his or her extremities C. Perform fine motor functions, but has gross motor functions D. Repair tissues distal to this damage |
|
|
Relative constancy in the internal body environment is known as:
|
Homeostasis
|
A. Homeostasis
B. Hemostasis C. Hermonstasis D. Hematostasis |
|
|
Isotonic solutions cause intracellular water to:
A. Rapidly cross membranes and exit the cell B. Slowly leak from the cell C. Rapidly rush into the cell D. Isotonic solutions cause no net movement of water |
Isotonic Solutions Cause no net Movement Of water
|
A. Rapidly cross membranes and exit the cell
B. Slowly leak from the cell C. Rapidly rush into the cell D. Isotonic solutions cause no net movement of water |
|
|
Which of the following is true of viruses?
|
Viruses can reproduce only by infecting living cells
|
A. Viruses are responsible for relatively few diseases in humans
B. Viruses can reproduce only by infecting living cells C. Viruses function in a manner similar to that of bacteria D. Viruses have a high metabolism, making them easy to kill |
|
|
Edema is:
|
A Problem of Fluid Distribution
|
A. Caused by excess fluids
B. A problem of fluid distribution C. Caused by water leaving the interstitial spaces D. A problem caused by excessive fluid administration |
|
|
Chemoreceptors are primarily involved in the regulation of:
|
Respiration
|
A. Heart rate
B. Blood pressure C. Respiration D. Arterial constriction |
|
|
Your patient has been taking an excessive amount of antacids. Which electrolyte imbalance should you expect?
|
Magnesium
|
A. Calcium
B. Sodium C. Magnesium D. Potassium |
|
|
Which blood type is referred to as the universal recipient?
|
AB
|
A. A
B. B C. AB D. O |
|
|
When hydrogen ions increase, there is an increase in:
|
Acidity
|
A. Alkalinity
B. Basicity C. pH D. Acidity |
|
|
The primary role of alpha 1 receptors is:
|
Smooth muscle contraction
|
A. Smooth muscle contraction
B. Smooth muscle dilation C. Bronchial constriction D. Bronchial dilation |
|
|
Hyperventilation produces respiratory alkalosis by decreasing:
|
Carbon Dioxide
|
A. Oxygen
B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Carbon dioxide |
|
|
Unintentional injury is the leading cause of death for:
|
Persons 1 to 34 Years of Age
|
A. Patients over 75 years of age
B. Children under the age of 1 C. Persons 1 to 34 years of age D. Adults between the ages of 30 and 50 |
|
|
A hospital that offers a burn center would be classified as a:
|
Specialized care facility
|
A. Level 1
B. Level 2 C. Level 3 D. Specialized care facility |
|
|
Miscellaneous blast injuries result from:
|
Being Propelled through space
|
A. Pressure waves
B. Projectiles C. Being propelled through space D. Inhalation of toxic dust |
|
|
Your patient has been involved in a motor vehicle collision with rotational impact. Predictable injuries would be the same as those found in:
|
head-on and Lateral impact
|
A. Head-on impact
B. Head-on and lateral impact C. Head-on and rear impact D. Lateral impact |
|
|
80 % of falls involve patients:
|
Older than 65 yrs of age
|
A. Less than 2 years of age
B. Between 4 and 6 years of age C. Between 14 and 16 years of age D. Older than 65 years of age |
|
|
When being transported in an emergency vehicle, a 5-year-old child being transported for an upper respiratory tract infection should be restrained in:
|
An Appropriately sized car seat secured to the stretcher
|
A. The airway seat, rear facing
B. An appropriately sized car seat secured to the stretcher C. The arms of the parents, both secured to the stretcher D. The arms of the parents, both sitting on the bench seat |
|
|
Cavitation is:
|
A force that pushes body tissue away from the path of a projectile
|
A. A force that pushes body tissue away from the path of a projectile
B. Wind resistance experienced by a projectile C. The breaking apart of a projectile as it passes through the body D. The end-over-end motion of a projectile |
|
|
If a hollow organ is injured due to compression of the abdominal cavity, you should suspect:
|
Organ Perforation
|
A. Hemorrhage
B. Organ rupture C. Organ fracture D. Organ perforation |
|
|
Paramedic documentation of entrance and exit wounds resulting from gunshot trauma should include:
|
A description of the wounds
|
A. The location of the entrance wound
B. The location of the exit wound C. The suspected path of the projectile D. A description of the wounds |
|
|
The typical third impact in an auto-pedestrian collision is the:
|
Pedestrian Striking the ground
|
A. Vehicle hitting the body
B. Pedestrian striking the hood of the vehicle C. Pedestrian striking the ground D. Vehicle hitting a stationary object |
|
|
If mechanisms of hemostasis fail, the result is:
|
D. Hypotension
|
A. Apnea
B. Chest pain C. Increased intracranial pressure D. Hypotension |
|
|
The Fick Principle is used to estimate:
|
A. Perfusion to an organ or the body
|
A. Perfusion to an organ or the body
B. Arterial oxygen content C. Venous oxygen content D. Blood loss |
|
|
A serious systemic bacterial infection most commonly causes what type of shock?
|
B. Septic shock
|
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Septic shock C. Hypovolemic shock D. Psychogenic shock |
|
|
The pressure differential between systemic systolic and diastolic readings is called:
|
A. Pulse pressure
|
A. Pulse pressure
B. Vascular resistance C. Mean arterial pressure D. Hemostasis |
|
|
Hypovolemic shock due to any cause is treated primarily with:
|
A. Crystalloid fluid volume replacement
|
A. Crystalloid fluid volume replacement
B. Vasopressor agents to aid in peripheral vascular resistance C. Colloid plasma expander agents D. Vasodilatory agents to aid preload |
|
|
The abnormal narrowing of an artery is called:
|
D. Stenosis
|
A. Emboli
B. Adhesions C. Angina D. Stenosis |
|
|
Which of these IV solutions can help to combat systemic acidity in the body's tissues?
|
B. Lactated Ringer (LR)
|
A. 0.9% sodium chloride (NS)
B. Lactated Ringer (LR) C. 5% dextrose in water (D5W) D. D5½NS |
|
|
During stage 2 shock, arterial hypotension and opening of AV shunts cause:
|
C. Stagnation of blood flow in the capillaries
|
A. Increased blood flow through the arterioles
B. Decreased blood contained in the capillaries C. Stagnation of blood flow in the capillaries D. Systemic hypertension |
|
|
The treatment of choice for an acute anaphylactic reaction is to administer:
|
D. Epinephrine
|
A. Dopamine
B. Solu-Medrol C. Benadryl D. Epinephrine |
|
|
A severe allergic reaction due to histamine release from exposure to an antigen is called:
|
D. Anaphylactic shock
|
A. Psychogenic shock
B. Antihistamine shock C. Septic shock D. Anaphylactic shock |
|
|
Which layer of the skin acts as a protective barrier against bacterial infection and helps to maintain fluid balance?
|
A. Dermis
|
A. Dermis
B. Epidermis C. Stratum corneum D. Stratum granulosum |
|
|
One difference between a hematoma and a contusion is that a hematoma:
|
C. Is a more severe injury and may result in greater blood loss than a contusion
|
A. Results in bruising but contusions do not
B. Is an open injury; a contusion is a closed injury C. Is a more severe injury and may result in greater blood loss than a contusion D. Occurs when organs are damaged; a contusion occurs when muscle tissue is damaged |
|
|
After an injury, blood flow to the injured area:
|
C. Increases to meet the increased metabolic demands of injured tissue
|
A. Decreases to promote hemostasis
B. Increases, causing further damage to already injured tissue C. Increases to meet the increased metabolic demands of injured tissue D. Decreases, causing hypoxic damage to the injured tissue |
|
|
Abrasions are typically:
|
B. Painful, with a high risk for infection
|
A. Minor injuries with a low risk for infection
B. Painful, with a high risk for infection C. Closed with sutures and have a high risk for infection D. Sealed with an occlusive dressing and have a low risk for infection |
|
|
A mnemonic device used to recall the signs and symptoms of a major crush injury is:
|
A. The 5 Ps
|
A. The 5 Ps
B. OPQRST C. AEIOU-TIPS D. DCAP-BLS |
|
|
The body's response to surface trauma includes vasoconstriction, coagulation, and the growth of tissue to close and seal the wound. The broad term for this initial response is:
|
A. Hemostasis
|
A. Hemostasis
B. Coagulopathy C. Epithelialization D. Neovascularization |
|
|
Which of the following is a typical finding in a patient with compartment syndrome?
|
A. Pain seemingly out of proportion to the injury
|
A. Pain seemingly out of proportion to the injury
B. Spasticity of the involved muscle groups C. No pain associated with passive stretching D. Lack of tenderness to palpation |
|
|
Vasoconstriction secondary to injury is a (an):
|
B. Rapid but temporary response to trauma
|
A. Slow but effective long-term response to trauma
B. Rapid but temporary response to trauma C. Temporary measure that begins once a clot is formed D. Effective long-term measure to slow bleeding from injured vessels |
|
|
You are dispatched to a day-care center for a 3-year-old with a bruise to his right eye. The day-care provider is concerned that this child may have been abused. She states that although the child "bonked" his right eye on a chair 2 days earlier, he did not have the bruise yesterday, and his father was unable to produce "a suitable explanation" of the current presentation. Which of the following is true regarding this child's contusion and subsequent bruising?
|
C. Bruising may be delayed by as much as 48 hours after an injury
|
A. Bruising always occurs within 1 to 2 hours of the original injury
B. Bruising always occurs within 24 hours of the original injury C. Bruising may be delayed by as much as 48 hours after an injury D. Bruising would result only if underlying skeletal structures have been fractured |
|
|
The role of thrombin in clot formation is to:
|
D. Convert fibrogin into fibrin threads to help form a blood clot
|
A. Activate the platelets, causing them to adhere to one another
B. Stimulate the release of prothrombin activators C. Cause the conversion of platelets to prothrombin D. Convert fibrogin into fibrin threads to help form a blood clot |
|
|
A water temperature of 111° Fahrenheit would be expected to:
|
A. Cause no injury unless there is extended contact (more than 6 hours)
|
A. Cause no injury unless there is extended contact (more than 6 hours)
B. Produce only superficial burns C. Cause burns within 1 to 2 minutes of contact D. Cause serious burns within seconds of contac |
|
|
Which of the following is true of chemical burns?
|
B. The chemical changes in the skin produce more damage than the heat
|
A. Thermal heat is not generated during contact
B. The chemical changes in the skin produce more damage than the heat C. Chemical burns usually occur instantaneously on contact D. Chemical burns cause less morbidity than thermal burns |
|
|
What level of carbon monoxide would typically cause a healthy patient to complain of headache and nausea, but not produce confusion or coma?
|
B. 20%
|
A. 10%
B. 20% C. 30% D. 50% |
|
|
Cells in the Zone of Stasis are expected to:
|
C. Die within 24 to 48 hours without proper care
|
A. Die immediately
B. Be nonsalvageable despite rapid care C. Die within 24 to 48 hours without proper care D. Recover within 7 to 10 days if there is no infection |
|
|
Which of the following should be considered first when responding to a chemical burn injury?
A. Prompt establishment of a patent airway B. Prompt assessment of circulatory status C. Immediate removal of the patient from the hazard area D. The type of personal protective clothing necessary to enter the scene |
D. The type of personal protective clothing necessary to enter the scene
|
A. Prompt establishment of a patent airway
B. Prompt assessment of circulatory status C. Immediate removal of the patient from the hazard area D. The type of personal protective clothing necessary to enter the scene |
|
|
Above and beyond the care required by lesser burns, full-thickness burns require:
|
C. Skin grafts
|
A. Antibiotic therapy
B. Fluid replacement C. Skin grafts D. Silvadene treatments |
|
|
When treating patients with chemical burns, the American Burn Association recommends that:
|
A. Water be used for treating most chemical burns
|
A. Water be used for treating most chemical burns
B. Stopping the burning process is not a prehospital concern because it involves complex chemical calculations C. A mild solution of bicarbonate of soda be used to treat most chemical burns D. Most chemical burns be treated with the neutralizing agent listed on the Materials Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) |
|
|
The rule of palms is recommended when:
|
A. Burns are irregularly shaped
|
A. Burns are irregularly shaped
B. The patient is an infant C. The size of the patient’s palm is at least 2 inches in width D. The patient has first-degree burns |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding electrical burn injuries is correct?
|
C. Although local tissue damage at the entry and exit wounds may be the most visible wounds, the wounds between these points cause the most concern
|
A. Entry wounds typically cannot be identified; exit wounds, however, are often severe
B. Electricity typically travels along the skin and rarely burns tissues internally C. Although local tissue damage at the entry and exit wounds may be the most visible wounds, the wounds between these points cause the most concern D. Electrical energy seeks the path of least resistance, which, in humans, is the bone. |
|
|
A patient has sustained circumferential burns to the chest. On arrival at the hospital he is difficult to ventilate. What treatment is likely to improve his ventilation?
|
D. Escharotomy through the burned tissue
|
A. Positive-pressure ventilation
B. Mechanical ventilation by means of a high-pressure ventilator C. Endotracheal intubation D. Escharotomy through the burned tissue |
|
|
The major cause of maxillofacial injury is:
|
A. Motor vehicle crashes
|
A. Motor vehicle crashes
B. Intentional violence C. Athletic injuries D. Industrial injuries |
|
|
Following a car crash involving blunt-force trauma to the face, a patient complains that her "teeth don't feel right" when she closes her mouth. You suspect:
|
B. Mandible fracture
|
A. Le Fort fracture
B. Mandible fracture C. Maxillary fracture D. Fracture of the hard palate |
|
|
To help ensure maximum oxygenation of the brain, EMS providers should:
|
D. Maintain systolic blood pressure at 90 mm Hg
|
A. Measure intracranial pressure
B. Evaluate the cerebral perfusion pressure C. Calculate the mean arterial pressure D. Maintain systolic blood pressure at 90 mm Hg |
|
|
The most commonly fractured facial bone (s) is (are) the:
|
D. Nasal bones
|
A. Zygoma
B. Maxilla C. Mandible D. Nasal bones |
|
|
Intubation is recommended for patients with a Glasgow Coma Scale grade of:
|
A. 8 or less
|
A. 8 or less
B. 9 or 10 C. 11 or 12 D. 13 to 15 |
|
|
One sign of a blowout fracture of the eye is:
|
B. Enophthalmos (recessed globe)
|
A. Exophthalmos (bulging globe)
B. Enophthalmos (recessed globe) C. Anophthalmos (displaced globe) D. Graves presentation (abnormal protrusion of the globe) |
|
|
The damage of frontal lobe brain tissue by an impact to the occipital lobe is referred to as:
|
C. A contrecoup injury
|
A. A coup injury
B. Rebound tenderness C. A contrecoup injury D. Transmural organic brain trauma (TOBT) |
|
|
Injuries to which zone of the neck carry the highest mortality?
|
A. Zone I
|
A. Zone I
B. Zone II C. Zone III D. Zone IV |
|
|
Which of the following is true regarding brain perfusion?
|
C. The brain requires approximately one fifth of the body's total oxygen and one fourth of the body's total glucose
|
A. The brain uses a large amount of the body's oxygen but only a minute amount of the body's glucose
B. The brain uses a very small amount of the body's oxygen but requires 25% of total available glucose C. The brain requires approximately one fifth of the body's total oxygen and one fourth of the body's total glucose D. The brain requires approximately one half of the body's available oxygen but is unable to use glucose because it does not pass through the blood-brain barrier |
|
|
Brain injury caused by the effects of hypoxia or hypocapnia are termed:
|
B. Secondary brain injury
|
A. Traumatic brain injury
B. Secondary brain injury C. Diffuse brain injury D. Untreatable brain injury |
|
|
The highest incidence of spinal cord trauma occurs in:
|
B. Men between the ages of 16 and 30
|
A. Men between the ages of 32 and 55
B. Men between the ages of 16 and 30 C. Women between the ages of 18 and 22 D. Women between the ages of 32 and 55 |
|
|
Which of the following is a negative mechanism of injury?
|
A. Tripping over a curb and twisting an ankle
|
A. Tripping over a curb and twisting an ankle
B. Falling from 2 feet C. Being involved in a low-speed motor vehicle crash D. Undergoing a sports injury |
|
|
To achieve neutral alignment when immobilizing children:
|
D. Pad under the child’s torso to accommodate the larger occiput
|
A. Immobilize children over the age of 6 to a short spine board instead of a long spine board
B. Turn the board upside down to minimize spaces C. Pad under the child’s head to bring the body into alignment D. Pad under the child’s torso to accommodate the larger occiput |
|
|
A spinal injury that causes compression along the length of the spinal column is known as:
|
A. Axial loading
|
A. Axial loading
B. Hyperextension C. Distraction D. Hyperrotation |
|
|
You should consider removing a patient's helmet if:
|
B. A full face shield limits access to the airway
|
A. The helmet fits tightly and restricts your ability to assess the head
B. A full face shield limits access to the airway C. The patient is wearing shoulder pads, causing the head to flex forward D. The patient complains of neck pain |
|
|
Injury mechanisms such as hangings typically cause a ____________ type spinal cord injury.
|
B. Distraction
|
A. Subluxation
B. Distraction C. Axial loading D. Herniation |
|
|
A patient in neurogenic shock would present with the following:
|
C. Warm dry skin
|
A. Tachycardia
B. Cool pale skin C. Warm dry skin D. Normal blood pressure |
|
|
Common mechanisms of injury to the spinal cord that result in Brown-Sequard syndrome are:
|
C. Gunshot wounds
|
A. Hangings
B. Fall injuries C. Gunshot wounds D. Rear-end motor vehicle collisions |
|
|
When you find a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury to be severely hypotensive, you should suspect:
|
D. Hypotension arising from another cause
|
A. Spinal shock
B. Neurogenic shock C. Autonomic hyperreflexia D. Hypotension arising from another cause |
|
|
When applying a rigid cervical collar, you will know it is properly positioned if:
|
D. The patient can comfortably open his or her mouth
|
A. The head is slightly extended
B. The head is slightly flexed C. The patient’s nose points 5 to 10 degrees past neutral D. The patient can comfortably open his or her mouth |
|
|
The most commonly fractured ribs include ribs:
|
B. 3 through 8
|
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 through 8 C. 9 through 12 D. 11 and 12 |
|
|
Because of the pain associated with rib fractures, the patient may not breathe deeply, in an attempt to splint the injury. This may result in which of the following complications?
|
C. Atelectasis
|
A. COPD
B. Adult onset asthma C. Atelectasis D. Bronchitis |
|
|
Treatment for a patient with a suspected hemothorax includes:
|
C. Intubation
|
A. Pericardiocentesis
B. Needle decompression C. Intubation D. Fluid administration to keep the systolic BP at 60 mm Hg |
|
|
Fractures to the first and second ribs:
|
B. Imply great force was exerted to cause the injury
|
A. Occur commonly and have few complications
B. Imply great force was exerted to cause the injury C. Are commonly complicated by spleen or liver injuries D. Most commonly occur in children |
|
|
Alveolar and lung capillary damage resulting in interstitial and intraalveolar bleeding and swelling most accurately describe:
|
B. Pulmonary contusion
|
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pulmonary contusion C. Flail chest D. Paper-bag effect |
|
|
Air trapped in the pleural space under pressure is known as:
|
C. Tension pneumothorax
|
A. Simple pneumothorax
B. Complete pneumothorax C. Tension pneumothorax D. Open pneumothorax |
|
|
Beck's triad relates to the symptoms of what trauma-induced condition?
|
D. Pericardial tamponade
|
A. Aortic rupture
B. Diaphragmatic rupture C. Myocardial contusion D. Pericardial tamponade |
|
|
The correct placement for a needle thoracostomy (or needle thoracentesis) would be:
|
B. The 2nd intercostal space, over the 3rd rib, midclavicular line
|
A. The 2nd intercostal space, under the 3rd rib, midclavicular line
B. The 2nd intercostal space, over the 3rd rib, midclavicular line C. The 5th intercostal space, over the 6th rib, midclavicular line D. The 3rd intercostal space, over the 3rd rib, midaxillary line |
|
|
You are treating a patient with a suspected pneumothorax. After inserting a needle into the pleural space, you note a constant release of air. You suspect:
|
B. Tracheobronchial injury
|
A. Pulmonary contusion
B. Tracheobronchial injury C. Simple pneumothorax D. Open pneumothorax |
|
|
Two minutes after inserting a needle into the pleural space of a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax, the patient begins to deteriorate again, with decreasing oxygen saturations. You note decreased breath sounds over the affected side. Your next action is to:
|
B. Insert another needle into the pleural space
|
A. Intubate the patient
B. Insert another needle into the pleural space C. Apply a one-way valve to the needle D. Remove the needle and apply an occlusive dressing |
|
|
Death due to abdominal trauma is usually a result of:
|
A. Continuing hemorrhage and delayed surgical repair
|
A. Continuing hemorrhage and delayed surgical repair
B. Unpreventable infection C. Exsanguination occurring within 30 minutes of the injury D. Rupture of hollow organs and resulting nutritional deficiencies |
|
|
Which of the following is true about mechanism of abdominal injury?
|
B. Motor vehicle trauma is involved in as much as 75% of blunt abdominal trauma.
|
A. Shootings and stabbings are the primary cause of abdominal injury.
B. Motor vehicle trauma is involved in as much as 75% of blunt abdominal trauma. C. Penetrating abdominal trauma has a higher mortality rate than blunt abdominal trauma. D. More than 75% of patients with penetrating abdominal trauma exsanguinate on scene. |
|
|
The urinary bladder is more likely to rupture:
|
A. When it is full
|
A. When it is full
B. When it is empty C. In women D. In men |
|
|
If the structure identified in this scenario is severely injured, the greatest concern is:
|
B. Rapid and significant blood loss
|
A. Pneumothorax
B. Rapid and significant blood loss C. Spillage of digestive enzymes into the abdominal cavity D. Leakage of urine and uric acid into the abdominal cavity |
|
|
The most significant indicator of severe abdominal trauma is the presence of:
|
A. Unexplained shock
|
A. Unexplained shock
B. Bowel sounds in the chest cavity C. Referred pain in one or both shoulder blades D. Abdominal distention |
|
|
Most retroperitoneal hemorrhages occur as a result of:
|
D. Pelvic fractures
|
A. Kidney laceration
B. Pancreas injury C. Tear of the duodenum D. Pelvic fractures |
|
|
An abdominal evisceration is managed in the field by:
|
B. Covering the abdominal contents with moist dressing
|
A. Replacing the contents into the abdominal cavity and keeping the patient warm
B. Covering the abdominal contents with moist dressing C. Cooling the patient to reduce metabolism D. Administering oral fluids and pain medication |
|
|
Ecchymosis around the umbilicus (Cullen's sign) is indicative of hemorrhage in which of the following organs?
|
D. Pancreas
|
A. Spleen
B. Liver C. Stomach D. Pancreas |
|
|
Abdominal distention is:
|
D. Consistent with the hemorrhage associated with damage to a solid organ
|
A. An early sign of peritoneal irritation
B. A late finding of peritoneal irritation C. A rupture or tear in the diaphragm D. Consistent with the hemorrhage associated with damage to a solid organ |
|
|
Leakage of urine into the abdominal cavity will result in a painful presentation known as:
|
B. Peritonitis
|
A. Urethritis
B. Peritonitis C. Incontinence D. Pyelonephriti |
|
|
When assessing musculoskeletal injuries, paramedics should:
|
B. Not be concerned with differentiating among sprains, strains, and fractures
|
A. Make every attempt to diagnose the injury correctly
B. Not be concerned with differentiating among sprains, strains, and fractures C. Manage patients as though they have a sprain D. Manage patients as though they have a strain |
|
|
A fracture of the femur can result in blood loss of up to:
|
C. 1000 mL
|
A. 250 mL
B. 500 mL C. 1000 mL D. 2000 mL |
|
|
A fracture or dislocation should be realigned when:
|
B. Circulation is impaired
|
A. The patient reports extreme pain
B. Circulation is impaired C. The site is bleeding D. The lower leg is involved |
|
|
In the mnemonic memory device DCAP-BTLS, the "S" stands for:
|
B. Swelling
|
A. Severity
B. Swelling C. Sensation D. Subluxation |
|
|
Once the decision has been made to realign a fracture site you should:
|
A. Make only one attempt at realignment
|
A. Make only one attempt at realignment
B. Continue realignment attempts until distal pulses are present C. Continue realignment attempts until the gross deformity has been reduced D. Wait to perform the procedure and realign only if the patient loses distal circulation |
|
|
"Buddy splinting" refers to a technique in which a broken:
|
C. Finger or toe is taped to an adjacent but uninjured finger or toe
|
A. Arm is secured to a rigid splint
B. Arm is secured to a long backboard C. Finger or toe is taped to an adjacent but uninjured finger or toe D. Leg is secured by holding the injury in place against a long backboard |
|
|
As a rule, fractures and dislocated joints should be:
|
D. Immobilized in the position of injury
|
A. Reduced in the field
B. Repositioned in the field C. Immobilized with a soft splint D. Immobilized in the position of injury |
|
|
What type of dressing is most appropriate to cover an open fracture site?
|
B. Dry, sterile gauze
|
A. Occlusive
B. Dry, sterile gauze C. Moistened, sterile gauze D. Sterile gauze moistened with an antiseptic solution |
|
|
Before manipulating any injured extremity, you must:
|
C. Assess distal pulses, sensation, and motor function
|
A. Position the patient on a long backboard
B. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen C. Assess distal pulses, sensation, and motor function D. Administer intravenous analgesic per medical direction |
|
|
Which of the following injuries is most likely to be limb threatening?
|
D. Subcondylar fracture of the elbow
|
A. Fracture of the humerus
B. Hip dislocation C. Open tibia-fibula fracture D. Subcondylar fracture of the elbow |
|
|
The process of air moving into and out of the lungs is:
|
A. Ventilation
|
A. Ventilation
B. Diffusion C. Respiration D. Oxygenation |
|
|
Bradycardia with a pulmonary cause is:
|
C. An ominous sign of severe hypoxemia
|
A. A sign that the patient is handling the event well
B. Less serious than tachycardia C. An ominous sign of severe hypoxemia D. A cardiac event and is not related to the pulmonary complaint |
|
|
A local preschool has closed because of an epidemic of pneumonia among the children. The most common cause of children's pneumonia is:
|
B. Influenza A
|
A. Fungus growing in the preschool
B. Influenza A C. Environmental exposure to allergens D. Streptococcal pneumonia |
|
|
Your patient tells you that he has been coughing up thick green sputum. This is indicative of:
|
D. Pneumonia
|
A. Allergies
B. Inflammatory disease C. Pulmonary edema D. Pneumonia |
|
|
One factor that may help differentiate pneumonia from COPD is the presence of:
|
D. Fever
|
A. Rales
B. Rhonchi C. Productive cough D. Fever |
|
|
The term "obstructive airway disease" refers to:
|
D. Chronic bronchitis, asthma, and emphysema
|
A. Pneumonia, asthma, and emphysema
B. Chronic bronchitis, pneumonia, and asthma C. Inflammatory diseases, asthma, and pneumonia D. Chronic bronchitis, asthma, and emphysema |
|
|
A condition that exists when the capillaries in the lung have greater permeability, which leads to rales and stiff alveoli, is known as:
|
A. ARDS
|
A. ARDS
B. COPD C. Pulmonary embolism D. Asthma |
|
|
A reactive airway disease that is stimulated by both intrinsic and extrinsic factors is known as:
|
D. Asthma
|
A. Emphysema
B. Chronic bronchitis C. Cystic fibrosis D. Asthma |
|
|
Rapid deep breathing characterized by resulting respiratory alkalosis is known as:
|
B. Hyperventilation syndrome
|
A. Kaposi syndrome
B. Hyperventilation syndrome C. Hysteria-induced alkalosis D. Tachypnea |
|
|
The current cornerstone of asthma treatment in the United States is:
|
B. Albuterol
|
A. Steroids
B. Albuterol C. Racemic epinephrine D. Aminophylline |
|
|
The circle of Willis is a (an):
|
B. Safeguard to ensure continued blood supply to the brain
|
A. Important reflex arc
B. Safeguard to ensure continued blood supply to the brain C. Large grouping of neurons attached to the medulla D. Sensory nerve that transmits directly to the brain |
|
|
If a patient is hyperventilating, you would expect blood flow to the brain to:
|
D. Decrease
|
A. Markedly increase
B. Moderately increase C. Not be affected D. Decrease |
|
|
Administration of thiamine should be considered if the cause of coma is suspected to be:
|
D. Alcoholic
|
A. Metabolic
B. Structural C. Hypoglycemic D. Alcoholic |
|
|
The Cushing triad consists of:
|
C. Elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse and respiratory rate
|
A. Elevated blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate
B. Decreased blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate C. Elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse and respiratory rate D. Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse and respiratory rate |
|
|
Which of the following is true of stroke?
|
A. 85% of patients have the type of stroke that will benefit from fibrinolytic therapy
|
A. 85% of patients have the type of stroke that will benefit from fibrinolytic therapy
B. 15% of strokes are the type that rarely lead to death in the first hour C. Most stroke patients have many hereditary risk factors but few modifiable risk factors D. There is usually no warning that a patient will have a stroke |
|
|
The single best indicator of a serious neurological condition is:
|
C. Rapidly worsening level of consciousness
|
A. Increased intracranial pressure
B. Retrograde amnesia C. Rapidly worsening level of consciousness D. Hypoxia |
|
|
Status epilepticus is defined as:
|
B. Repetitive seizures without any period of awakening
|
A. A period of abnormal perception prior to a seizure
B. Repetitive seizures without any period of awakening C. Seizure activity on only one side of the body D. The medical term for psychogenic epilepsy |
|
|
A mnemonic device that is helpful for remembering the common causes of coma is:
|
B. AEIOU TIPS
|
A. DCAP – BTLS
B. AEIOU TIPS C. AVPU D. OPQRST |
|
|
Diazepam has which of the following significant side effects?
|
C. Respiratory depression
|
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Vomiting C. Respiratory depression D. Headache |
|
|
If a patient develops a coma slowly, you would suspect which of the following causes?:
|
C. Hypoglycemia
|
A. Intracranial bleeding
B. Head trauma C. Hypoglycemia D. Brain tumor |
|
|
Endocrine glands secrete their hormones into the:
|
C. Bloodstream
|
A. Lymphatic system
B. Target tissues C. Bloodstream D. Effector organs |
|
|
The primary functions of insulin are to:
|
A. Transport glucose into the cells
|
A. Transport glucose into the cells
B. Decrease glucose metabolism C. Eliminate pancreatic glycogen stores D. Increase blood glucose concentration |
|
|
Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia may include:
|
A. Combative behavior
|
A. Combative behavior
B. Warm, moist skin C. Bradycardia D. Flaccidity |
|
|
When testing a patient's blood glucose level, you obtain a reading of 120 mg/dL. This reading is:
|
C. The high end of normal
|
A. Abnormally low
B. Normal C. The high end of normal D. Extremely elevated |
|
|
In a patient with diabetes, DKA is likely to result from:
|
D. Infection
|
A. Undereating
B. Overdosing on insulin C. Increasing the dose of oral hypoglycemic D. Infection |
|
|
If needed (as in the absence of insulin), fatty acids in the liver can be metabolized and used for energy. The eventual breakdown products of fatty acids in the liver are known as:
|
C. Ketone bodies
|
A. Amino acids
B. Glycoleins C. Ketone bodies D. Pyruvic acids |
|
|
Administration of dextrose 50% can precipitate neurological complications in:
|
C. Alcoholic patients
|
A. Unresponsive patients
B. Teenage patients C. Alcoholic patients D. Type 1 diabetics |
|
|
The type of diabetes that causes the body to destroy its own insulin-producing cells is:
|
A. Type 1
|
A. Type 1
B. Type 2 C. Specific types D. Gestational |
|
|
You observe a patient with a very round face, thick trunk, and extremely thin arms and legs. He tells you he has an adrenal gland disorder. You suspect:
|
B. Cushing syndrome
|
A. Myxedema
B. Cushing syndrome C. Adrenal tumor D. HHNK |
|
|
A diabetic patient exhibits Kussmaul breathing to:
|
A. Compensate for metabolic acidosis
|
A. Compensate for metabolic acidosis
B. Create a metabolic alkalosis C. Create a respiratory alkalosis D. Reverse respiratory acidosis |
|
|
An antigen is a substance that produces:
|
D. Antibodies
|
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Allergic reaction C. Sensitivity D. Antibodies |
|
|
The primary antibody affecting an anaphylactic reaction is:
|
B. IgE
|
A. IgM
B. IgE C. IgA D. IgG |
|
|
Medications that may be prescribed for a patient with a history of anaphylactic reactions so they may be used in an emergency may include:
|
D. Epi-Pen
|
A. Propranolol
B. Procainamide C. Clonidine D. Epi-Pen |
|
|
The medication most commonly responsible for anaphylactic reactions is:
|
C. Penicillin
|
A. Aspirin
B. Steroids C. Penicillin D. Furosemide |
|
|
Expect that a fluid bolus of up to ____________ may be needed to restore blood pressure in anaphylactic patients.
|
D. 4 L
|
A. 500 mL
B. 1 L C. 2 L D. 4 L |
|
|
The chemical released in an anaphylactic reaction that causes rapidly increased vascular permeability and capillary and venule dilation is:
|
B. Histamine
|
A. Leukotriene
B. Histamine C. Heparin D. Kinin |
|
|
Administration of epinephrine should be:
|
D. At high doses, up to 3 to 5 mg every 3 minutes
|
A. Via SQ injection
B. At half the usual dose for cardiac arrest C. Withheld until the airway is established D. At high doses, up to 3 to 5 mg every 3 minutes |
|
|
Hypotension in an anaphylactic reaction occurs primarily as a result of:
|
C. Capillary permeability and vasodilation
|
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Peripheral vasoconstriction C. Capillary permeability and vasodilation D. Loss of sympathetic nervous tone |
|
|
SQ or IM epinephrine may not be effective for a patient having severe anaphylactic reactions because of:
|
B. Decreased peripheral perfusion
|
A. The patient's age
B. Decreased peripheral perfusion C. Bronchoconstriction D. The type of allergen |
|
|
During an anaphylactic reaction, urticaria may be noted on the skin, and swelling may be noted in the __________________.
|
C. Face and tongue
|
A. Legs and feet
B. Abdomen C. Face and tongue D. Fingers and toes |
|
|
You might suspect a patient has cholecystitis if he or she has pain in the:
|
A. Right upper quadrant
|
A. Right upper quadrant
B. Left upper quadrant C. Right lower quadrant D. Left lower quadrant |
|
|
A patient with abdominal peritoneal irritation may choose to lie on her:
|
C. Side, with legs flexed and pulled in
|
A. Back, with legs extended
B. Stomach, with legs tucked under herself C. Side, with legs flexed and pulled in D. Side, with legs extended |
|
|
The most serious type of hernia is a (an):
|
A. Strangulated hernia
|
A. Strangulated hernia
B. Hiatal hernia C. Inguinal hernia D. Mallory-Weiss hernia |
|
|
Melena is a term used to describe:
|
C. Black, tarry stool
|
A. Blood-tinged sputum
B. Vomiting blood C. Black, tarry stool D. Bright red rectal bleeding |
|
|
You would expect bleeding from ruptured esophageal varices to be:
|
B. Bright red and copious
|
A. Dark red and minimal
B. Bright red and copious C. Usually self-limited and minor D. Bright red and easily controlled |
|
|
Gastroenteritis is:
|
B. An inflammation of the stomach and intestines
|
A. Caused by the influenza virus
B. An inflammation of the stomach and intestines C. Limited primarily to small children D. Has slow onset and causes intestinal cramping but rarely vomiting or diarrhea |
|
|
Hepatitis B is most commonly spread through:
|
C. Blood or serum secretions
|
A. Oral/fecal transmission
B. Airborne exposure C. Blood or serum secretions D. Bacterial infection |
|
|
The pain associated with peptic ulcers is often described as:
|
A. Burning
|
A. Burning
B. Stabbing C. Pressure D. Ripping |
|
|
To insert a nasogastric tube, position the patient:
|
B. Sitting straight up with neck flexed
|
A. Lying flat with head turned to the left
B. Sitting straight up with neck flexed C. Lying at a 45-degree angle with head turned to the side D. Leaning forward with head extended |
|
|
Crohn disease most commonly affects:
|
B. Adults younger than 30
|
A. Infants and young children
B. Adults younger than 30 C. People between 50 and 60 years of age D. Elderly adults over 75 years of age |
|
|
The signs and symptoms of urinary retention are painful unless caused by:
|
C. CNS dysfunction
|
A. Enlarged prostate
B. Foreign body obstruction C. CNS dysfunction D. Use of parasympatholytic drugs |
|
|
Urinary tract infections usually develop first in the:
|
A. Urethra
|
A. Urethra
B. Ureters C. Kidneys D. Nephrons |
|
|
The renal failure that results from inadequate perfusion of the kidneys is termed:
|
A. Prerenal failure
|
A. Prerenal failure
B. Intrarenal failure C. Intrinsic renal failure D. Postrenal failure |
|
|
The pain associated with a kidney stone is described as:
|
B. Excruciating pain
|
A. Moderate pain
B. Excruciating pain C. Dull pain D. Throbbing pain |
|
|
One advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis is that peritoneal dialysis:
|
D. Does not require chronic vascular access
|
A. Need be performed only once a week
B. Is achieved much more quickly C. Is much more effective D. Does not require chronic vascular access |
|
|
Epididymitis typically results from:
|
B. Sexually transmitted diseases
|
A. Structural abnormalities
B. Sexually transmitted diseases C. Prostate enlargement D. Trauma |
|
|
What is the treatment for the most common ischemic rhythm disturbances that occur during dialysis?
|
C. Lidocaine
|
A. Defibrillation
B. Atropine C. Lidocaine D. Beta blockers |
|
|
Unlike epididymitis, testicular torsion:
|
A. Is a true urological emergency
|
A. Is a true urological emergency
B. Requires antibiotic treatment C. Is typically associated with a fever D. Is characterized by tenderness and pain |
|
|
Mild symptoms of headache, restlessness, nausea, and fatigue occurring after dialysis are termed:
|
B. Disequilibrium syndrome
|
A. Postictal dialysis syndrome
B. Disequilibrium syndrome C. Refractory dialysis syndrome D. Postdialysis syndrome |
|
|
Analgesia for genitourinary pain is generally:
|
Avoided, so that pain will not be masked during the physician’s evaluation
|
A. Given in the prehospital setting
B. Encouraged, so as to make patients more comfortable for long transports C. Avoided, so that pain will not be masked during the physician’s evaluation D. Achieved by oral medications |
|
|
Most accidental poisonings in children from 1 to 3 years of age occur by means of:
|
C. Ingestion
|
A. Injection
B. Inhalation C. Ingestion D. Absorption |
|
|
Which of the following organs is most likely to show the effects of poisoning first?
|
D. Heart
|
A. Liver
B. Kidney C. Spleen D. Heart |
|
|
Organophosphates affect primarily which neurotransmitter?
|
B. Acetylcholine
|
A. Epinephrine
B. Acetylcholine C. Norepinephrine D. Dopamine |
|
|
The dosage of activated charcoal in a child is:
|
C. 15 to 30 g
|
A. 0.1 g/kg
B. 100 g C. 15 to 30 g D. 10 mg/kg |
|
|
The mnemonic device SLUDGE helps you to remember the:
|
A. Signs of organophosphate poisoning
|
A. Signs of organophosphate poisoning
B. Treatment steps for absorbed toxins C. Classifications of antidotes for inhaled toxins D. Causes of death after poisoning |
|
|
The mnemonic device CHAMP helps you remember:
|
B. Which hydrocarbons may benefit from gastric lavage
|
A. Specific antidotes for alkali ingestion
B. Which hydrocarbons may benefit from gastric lavage C. Pertinent historical findings for a poisoning patient D. The sequence of actions to take for poisoning patients |
|
|
Which of the following is an early sign of toxicity in reaction to a tricyclic antidepressant?
|
C. Blurred vision
|
A. Bradypnea
B. Hyperthermia C. Blurred vision D. Hypertension |
|
|
A chemical that may be produced when nylon and polyurethane burn and is of particular concern in any fire environment is:
|
A. Cyanide
|
A. Cyanide
B. Ammonia C. Hydrocarbons D. Carbon monoxide |
|
|
The most commonly ingested NSAID in overdose is:
|
D. Ibuprofen
|
A. Aspirin
B. VIOXX C. Tylenol D. Ibuprofen |
|
|
If the stinger is left in the wound after a sting by a honey bee, you should:
|
B. Scrape the stinger from the wound
|
A. Use forceps to remove the stinger
B. Scrape the stinger from the wound C. Pull the wound out with fingers only D. Leave the stinger in place |
|
|
All types of blood cells are formed in the:
|
C. Bone marrow
|
A. Spleen
B. Liver C. Bone marrow D. Thymus |
|
|
Which of these products is responsible for the blood-clotting process?
|
C. Fibrinogen
|
A. Albumin
B. Globulin C. Fibrinogen D. Plasma protein |
|
|
A man affected with hemophilia:
|
C. Will possibly have a daughter with hemophilia if the mother is a carrier
|
A. Passes the genes on to his sons
B. Cannot have a daughter affected with hemophilia C. Will possibly have a daughter with hemophilia if the mother is a carrier D. Inherited the disease from his father |
|
|
Hemoglobin is measured in grams per 100 mL of blood. The normal range is:
|
C. 12 to 18 g/100 mL
|
A. 1 to 8 g/100 mL
B. 10 to 15 g/100 mL C. 12 to 18 g/100 mL D. 15 to 22 g/100 mL |
|
|
Patients with hemophilia are treated with:
|
D. Concentrates of factor VIII
|
A. Radiation
B. Anticancer drugs C. Infusions of platelets D. Concentrates of factor VIII |
|
|
A differential blood count defines the:
|
D. Percentage of different types of WBCs present in blood
|
A. Ratio of red blood cells to white blood cells
B. Absolute numbers of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets C. Number of red blood cells bound to oxygen D. Percentage of different types of WBCs present in blood |
|
|
Sickle cell disease is:
|
C. A recessive genetic illness
|
A. Caused by bacteria
B. A dominant genetic illness C. A recessive genetic illness D. Caused by unknown factors |
|
|
On assessing a patient who you suspect has leukemia, you would most likely palpate the:
|
B. Liver
|
A. Bowel
B. Liver C. Kidney D. Bladder |
|
|
A common sign/symptom in sickle cell crisis is:
|
C. Severe abdominal pain
|
A. Weight gain
B. Hypertension C. Severe abdominal pain D. Excessive hyperactivity |
|
|
Signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease include fatigue, chills, night sweats, and:
|
B. Swollen lymph nodes
|
A. Weight gain
B. Swollen lymph nodes C. Vision changes D. Cardiac dysrhythmias |
|
|
The body's thermoregulatory center is found in the posterior:
|
C. Hypothalamus
|
A. Thyroid
B. Medulla C. Hypothalamus D. Pituitary |
|
|
Muscles fatigued by heavy exercise that are depleted of water and sodium predispose the patient to:
|
B. Heat cramps
|
A. Heat syncope
B. Heat cramps C. Heat exhaustion D. Heat stroke |
|
|
The most efficient way to warm a hypothermic body is:
|
D. Cardiopulmonary bypass
|
A. Administration of CNS stimulants
B. Soaking the patient in a hot bath C. Warm IV fluids D. Cardiopulmonary bypass |
|
|
Classic heat stroke occurs when:
|
B. There is sustained high ambient temperatures and sustained high ambient humidity
|
A. The hypothalamus resets the core body temperature to a higher level
B. There is sustained high ambient temperatures and sustained high ambient humidity C. Young healthy persons exercise in hot humid conditions D. The patient has a fever from an inflammatory response |
|
|
A cold injury that occurs from immersion of extremities in water above 32° F is called:
|
B. Trenchfoot
|
A. Superficial frostbite
B. Trenchfoot C. Deep frostbite D. Subacute cold injury |
|
|
Increased core body temperatures can result in cerebral:
|
A. Acidosis
|
A. Acidosis
B. Alkalosis C. Hypercarbia D. Hyponatremia |
|
|
The mammalian diving reflex occurs when:
|
B. Blood is shunted to the brain stimulated by cold water
|
A. A patient aspirates cold water
B. Blood is shunted to the brain stimulated by cold water C. Patients take several deep breaths prior to submersion D. Hypothermia decreases the body’s metabolic needs |
|
|
The presence of hypotension and decreased cardiac output in the presence of heat illness is an indicator that the patient:
|
B. Has a poor prognosis
|
A. Is beginning to recover
B. Has a poor prognosis C. Requires IV administration of sodium D. Is experiencing fluid overload |
|
|
The most severe form of high-altitude illness that presents with signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressures is:
|
. High-altitude cerebral edema
|
A. High-altitude pulmonary edema
B. High-altitude cerebral edema C. Acute mountain sickness D. Decompression sickness |
|
|
Medical direction may prescribe a pharmacological agent for sedation and seizure control in a heat stroke patient such as:
|
B. Diazepam
|
A. Benadryl
B. Diazepam C. Scopolamine D. Mannitol |
|
|
At what age does menarche usually occur?
|
B. 13 years
|
A. 10 years
B. 13 years C. 47 years D. 50 years |
|
|
The most serious complication of a ruptured ovarian cyst is:
|
B. Hemorrhage
|
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Hemorrhage C. Infection D. Loss of future ovarian function |
|
|
Many patients with pain caused by gynecological complaints prefer to be transported:
|
B. In a left-lateral recumbent position
|
A. Sitting on the bench seat
B. In a left-lateral recumbent position C. Lying prone D. Lying supine with legs extended |
|
|
The goal of treatment in the field for a woman with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding is to:
|
A. Identify life-threatening conditions and transport rapidly
|
A. Identify life-threatening conditions and transport rapidly
B. Determine the cause of the bleeding C. Rule out ectopic pregnancy D. Aggressively manage the cause of the bleeding |
|
|
Vaginal bleeding should be controlled with:
|
C. Trauma dressings or sanitary pads
|
A. Administration of pitocin
B. Uterine massage C. Trauma dressings or sanitary pads D. Vaginal packing or tampons |
|
|
Abdominal pain in a woman that presents 1 week after menstruation is typical of:
|
D. PID
|
A. Mittelschmerz
B. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy C. Ruptured ovarian cyst D. PID |
|
|
Analgesic therapy for abdominal pain should be:
|
B. Withheld until after physician evaluation
|
A. Administered orally
B. Withheld until after physician evaluation C. Given intravenously D. Given by IM or SQ injection |
|
|
You can estimate the amount of vaginal blood lost by asking the patient:
|
C. “How many pads or tampons were soaked per hour?”
|
A. “Is there more or less blood than during your normal period?”
B. “How much blood have you lost?” C. “How many pads or tampons were soaked per hour?” D. “For how many hours have you been bleeding? |
|
|
When treating a patient who was sexually assaulted:
|
B. Limit the history of the event to elements necessary for care
|
A. Assess a thorough history of the assault for reporting purposes
B. Limit the history of the event to elements necessary for care C. Genital examination is mandatory for accurate assessment D. Allow the patient to express feelings with no fear that his or her words will be reported |
|
|
IV access for patients with gynecological complaints:
|
C. Is usually unnecessary
|
A. Should be initiated prior to transport
B. Can wait until transport begins C. Is usually unnecessary D. Can be detrimental to the patient |
|
|
Immediately after birth, which of these things happens for the first time?
|
B. The alveoli open
|
A. The heart begins to beat
B. The alveoli open C. Blood is circulated D. Maternal blood bypasses the fetal lungs |
|
|
The term for a first-time pregnant patient is:
|
A. Primigravida
|
A. Primigravida
B. Nullipara C. Gravidapara D. Unogravida |
|
|
If the amniotic sac has not ruptured before the delivery of the infant's head you should:
|
C. Puncture the sac and remove it from around the infant's head
|
A. Continue with the delivery; the sac does not present a problem.
B. Have the mother pant and stop pushing; this is a true emergency C. Puncture the sac and remove it from around the infant's head D. Immediately cross clamp the cord and deliver the infant |
|
|
A pregnant patient can't remember how many weeks she is into her pregnancy. On exam, you feel the fundus of the uterus at the level of the umbilicus, leading you to conclude that she has been pregnant for:
|
C. 24 weeks
|
A. 12 weeks
B. 18 weeks C. 24 weeks D. 30 weeks |
|
|
After delivery of the infant, the mother continues to bleed briskly, losing approximately 1 L of blood. You should:
|
D. Encourage the mother to breast-feed the infant and massage the uterus
|
A. Do nothing; this is normal after delivery
B. Pack the vagina with sterile dressings and transport quickly C. Administer 1 to 2 g of magnesium sulfate D. Encourage the mother to breast-feed the infant and massage the uterus |
|
|
A fetal heart rate of 80 indicates:
|
B. Hypoxia
|
A. Fetal pain
B. Hypoxia C. Maternal dehydration D. A normal finding |
|
|
As she is pushing, your patient, who is at 34 weeks' gestation, states that the baby is coming. You notice a cord protruding from the vagina. You should:
|
A. Place the mother in the knee-chest position
|
A. Place the mother in the knee-chest position
B. Deliver the infant as quickly as possible C. Replace the cord into the vagina D. Cut and clamp the cord |
|
|
Painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is most likely related to:
|
B. Placenta previa
|
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Placenta previa C. Uterine rupture D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy |
|
|
If your patient inverts her uterus immediately after delivery of the infant, it is important to:
|
D. Attempt to reinsert it once, without removing the placenta
|
A. Quickly pull on the placenta to reduce bleeding
B. Wrap the uterus and placenta in dry towels C. Soak the placenta in a saline bath to keep it from drying D. Attempt to reinsert it once, without removing the placenta |
|
|
Abruptio placentae is often associated with:
|
B. Hypertension, preeclampsia
|
A. Teen pregnancy, trauma
B. Hypertension, preeclampsia C. Trauma, preterm labor D. Preterm labor, hypertension |
