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103 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Microbes live in us, on us and nearly everywhere around us. Which of the following activities are microbes involved in? a) Decomposing dead organisms b) Aiding the digestive processes of grazing animals c) Capturing energy from the sun D) All of the above |
D) All of the above |
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Which of the following is a reason microorganisms are useful in many different research labortories (such as ecology, biochemistry, evolution, and genetics)? a) They are easy to see and count b) They have fairly complex structures and are expensive c) They reproduce fast and grow in large numbers d) They live everywhere so contaminants from the environment are not a problem |
C) They reproduce fast and grow in large numbers |
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Microbiology is the study of bacteria, algae, fungi, viruses, and protozoa. Most of these are single-celled, except for which two: a) bacteria (some of which are multicellular) and algae b) algae and fungi (some have many cells) c) protozoa and fungi d) bacteria and viruses |
B) algae and fungi (some have many cells) |
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A microorganism that causes disease is ________. a) pathogenic b) phagocytic c) virulent d) algae |
A) pathogenic |
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The field of ______ involves studying how a person defends him/herself against microbial infection. a) molecular biology b) virology c) mycology d) immunology |
D) immunology |
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A substance derived from one microorganism that kills or restrict the growth of other microorganisms is best described as a a) poison b) antibody c) vaccine d) antibiotic |
d) antibiotic |
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Microbiology continues to be an important research field for all of the following reasons, except: a) all infectious diseases have had vaccines developed and therefore can be prevented b) many forms of genetic engineering depend on microorganisms c) new and emerging diseases like AIDS need to be studied d) microorganisms can be used as factories to cheaply produce drugs, hormones and vaccines |
a) all infectious diseases have had vaccines developed and therefore can be prevented |
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The 1st person to use a microscope to observe living cells invisible to the naked eye was: a) Robert Hooke b) Matthias Schleiden c) Anton van Leeuwenhoek d) Louis Pasteur |
c) Anton van Leeuwenhoek |
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Which of the following statements about pasteurization is false? a) It originally involved heating a substance to 56°C in the absence of oxygen for 30 mins. b) It kills unwanted organisms c) Pasteurization was originally developed as a method to keep milk from spoiling. d) It was developed by Pasteur. |
c) Pasteurization was originally developed as a method to keep milk from spoiling. |
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The English scientist Robert Hooke coined the term cell because the small boxes he saw in the microscope reminded him of a monk's room. What is the cell theory that was later proposed? a) Cells are fundamental units of life b) Replication requires the division of cells into two equal cells c) Hereditary information is passed on in the form of DNA d) All organisms are unicellular, made up of one cell |
a) Cells are fundamental units of life |
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a) protein-amino acids b) nucleic acids- nucleotides c) polysaccharides- simple sugars d) fats- aldehyde |
d) fats- aldehyde |
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A nucleic acid has a "backbone" consisting of: a) nitrogenous bases b) sugars c) phosphates d) b and c are correct |
d) b and c are correct |
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Proteins are a chain of ______ that sometimes function as __________. a) disaccharides; cell wall b) amino acids; enzymes c) lipids; energy compounds d) glycogen; enzymes |
b) amino acids; enzymes |
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The total number of protons in an atom is equal to its ________. a) atomic weight b) molecular weight c) chemical weight d) atomic number |
d) atomic number |
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When sodium hydroxide, a strong base, is added to water, the pH of the solution _________. a) goes up b) remains the same c) goes down d) cannot be determined |
a) goes up |
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Polysaccharides: a) include ribose, fructose and glucose b) include cholesterol and vitamin D c) are monosaccharides joined by glycosidic bonds d) are found only in eukaryotic cells. |
c) are monosaccharides joined by glycosidic bonds |
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Charged atoms with electrostatic attraction are generally held together by ________. a) covalent bonds b) ionic bonds c) hydrogen bonds d) municipal bonds |
b) ionic bonds |
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Amino acids in a protein are joined together by ________. a) peptide bonds b) hydrogen bonds c) phosphodiester bonds d) tertiary bonds |
a) peptide bonds |
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Organic molecules with the same molecular formula but different structures are: a) elements b) isotopes c) isomers d) anions |
c) isomers |
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Atoms take part in bond formation to: a) form polypeptides b) attain a stable electron configuration c) increase their charge density d) increase their energy |
b) attain a stable electron configuration |
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What is true about atomic weight? a) it is the sum of the number of elections and protons in an atom b) the higher the atomic weight the more likely an atom will form a chemical bond c) it is always a whole number d) atoms of a particular element that have different atomic weights are called isotopes |
d) atoms of a particular element that have different atomic weights are called isotopes |
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Fatty acids that are ______ have _______. a) saturated; lost their secondary structure b) unsaturated; a double bond between two carbons that have lost hydrogen atoms c) saturated; one or more double bonds d) denatured; all the hydrogen it can |
b) unsaturated; a double bond between two carbons that have lost hydrogen atoms |
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In DNA, the nucleotide cytosine always base pairs to: a) adenine b) guanine c) thymine d) uracil |
b) guanine |
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Chemical reactions that require energy are best termed _______. a) catabolic b) anabolic c) exergonic d) endergonic |
d) endergonic |
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When pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms, the result is a/an _____ bond. a) ionic b) covalent c) hydrogen d) carbonic |
b) covalent |
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The pH scale is used to specify the acidity or alkalinity of a solution. Which of the following statements is true? a) stomach acid has a pH around 10 b) neutral solutions, like water, have a pH of 10 c) a solution with a pH of 12 has 10 times fewer protons as a solution with a pH of 11 d) a strong base will have a pH less than 10 |
c) a solution with a pH of 12 has 10 times fewer protons as a solution with a pH of 11 |
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Which of the following statements about Leeuwenhoek's microscopes is false? a) Leeuwenhoek kept his technique secret b) they magnified objects 100 to 300 times c) for each specimen a new microscope had to be made d) they were about to reveal very fine details of bacteria |
d) they were about to reveal very fine details of bacteria |
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Which of the following statements about resolution is true? a) resolution refers to the ability of a lens to distinguish adjacent objects. b) with regard to light, resolution means the same thing as wavelength c) resolution refers to a microscope's ability to magnify objects d) resolution is equal to the distance between two adjacent crests of a wave |
a) resolution refers to the ability of a lens to distinguish adjacent objects. |
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A compound light microscope can generally see objects as no smaller than a ________. a) ribosome b) large protozoa c) small bacterium d) typical virus |
c) small bacterium |
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When light passes through an object, ________, of the light has occurred? a) reflection b) absorption c) transmission d) fluorescence |
c) transmission |
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When light bends as it passes through an object, ________, of the light has occurred? a) reflection b) absorption c) transmission d) refraction |
d) refraction |
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When light rays pass into an object but do not emerge, ________ has taken place. a) reflection b) absorption c) refraction d) transmission |
b) absorption |
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The lens closest to your eyes during a microscopic examination is the ________. a) ocular b) objective c) condenser d) compound |
a) ocular |
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The total magnification of a specimen being viewed with a 10X ocular lens and a 40X objective lens is ________. a) 4X b) 40X c) 400X d) 4000X |
c) 400X |
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A simple stain: a) uses only a single dye b) requires only one step to stain a slide c) distinguishes between two different parts of an organism d) is composed of an equal balance of acid and basic dyes |
a) uses only a single dye |
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In a proper executed Gram stain, Gram positive organisms appear ______ while Gram negative organisms appear _______. a) pink; clear b) pink; purple c) purple; pink d) purple; blue |
c) purple; pink |
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When given a microorganism to identify, which of the following would be useful? a) a gram stain b) a trasmission electron micrograph c) biochemical and genetic characteristics d) all of the above |
d) all of the above |
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What statement about microscopy and staining techniques is false? a) many species look identical under the microscope b) staining and microscopic examination are usually all that is need to identify a microorganism c) microscopes are of little use unless the specimens are prepared properly d) the degree of contrast is equally important as resolution and magnification |
b) staining and microscopic examination are usually all that is need to identify a microorganism |
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Which of the following groups of organisms is no prokaryotic? a) archaea b) bacteria c) eubacteria d) eukarya |
d) eukarya |
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Which of the following is not a common bacterial shape? a) spirochete b) coccus c) disc d) bacillus |
c) disc |
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Which of the following statements about prokaryotic cells surface-to-volume ratio is false? a) because of their small size, bacteria have a small surface-to-volume ratio b) eukaryotes have surface-to-volume ratio is only 1/10 that of prokaryotes c) the prokaryotes surface-to-volume ratio means that nutrients can easily and quickly reach all parts of the cell as no internal part of the cell is very far from the surface. d) a bacteria with a surface area about 12 microns squared and a volume of 4 cubic microns has a surface-to-volume ratio of 3:1 |
a) because of their small size, bacteria have a small surface-to-volume ratio |
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Which of the following is not found in bacterial cells? a) a cell membrane, usually surrounded by a wall b) an internal cytoplasm with ribosomes, a nuclear region and in some cases granules c) a variety of external structures, such as capsules, flagella and pili d) respiratory enzymes contained in an internal structure surrounded by membranes |
d) respiratory enzymes contained in an internal structure surrounded by membranes |
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Which of the following cellular structures can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? a) golgi apparatus b) lysosomes c) peroxisomes d) ribosomes |
d) ribosomes |
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Prokaryotic cells divide by _________. a) mitosis b) binary fission c) meiosis d) mitosis asexually and meiosis sexually |
b) binary fission |
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The most important structural component of bacterial cell walls is __________. a) teichoic acid b) lipotechoic acid c) peptidoglycan d) glutamic acid |
c) peptidoglycan |
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Penicillin controls the growth of bacteria by ____. a) destroying cell membranes b) preventing protein synthesis c) removing cell walls d) preventing peptidoglycan synthesis |
d) preventing peptidoglycan synthesis |
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The Fluid-mosaic model describes the structure of ________. a) cell walls b) cell membranes c) capsules d) endosymbiotic relationships |
b) cell membranes |
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The _____ portion of the cell membrane functions as a barrier while the _____ portion provides specific functions, including pumps, receptors, adhesion, etc. a) carbohydrates; nucleic acid b) lipid; protein c) lipid; carbohydrate d) nucleic acid; lipid |
b) lipid; protein |
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Mitochondria: a) are responsible for converting sunlight to chemical energy b) are present only in photosynthetic organisms c) have a double membrane d) are responsible for protein synthesis |
d) are responsible for protein synthesis |
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Which of these statements about eukaryotic cell division is false? a) the nuclei of eukaryotic cells divide via the process of mitosis b) haploids are cells that receive only one chromosome from each pair of chromosomes c) a single round of mitosis results in the production of four haploid cells d) during mitosis the nuclear envelope breaks apart and the spindle apparatus forms |
c) a single round of mitosis results in the production of four haploid cells |
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When the fluid within a cell has a higher concentration of dissolved substances than the fluid surrounding the cell, we say the fluid surrounding the cell is ______. a) hypertonic b) isotonic c) superhypertonic d) hypotonic |
d) hypotonic |
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The synthesis of DNA, in which small nucleotides are joined together to make a single large molecule would be most correctly described as being a/n _______ reaction. a) metabolic b) anabolic c) catabolic d) bytobolic |
b) anabolic |
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Oxidation is defined as the _____ while reduction is the ______. a) gain of electrons; loss of protons b) loss of electrons; gain of protons c) loss of electrons; gain of electrons d) loss of electrons; gain of protons |
c) loss of electrons; gain of electrons |
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Animals (humans for example) are: a) photoautotrophs b) photheterotrophs c) chemoautotrophs d) chemoheterotrophs |
d) chemoheterotrophs |
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Enzymes work by: a) lowering the energy of the reactants b) raising the energy of the products c) decreasing the activation energy of the reaction d) increasing the activation energy of the reaction |
c) decreasing the activation energy of the reaction |
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An enzyme- substrate complex forms when substrate binds to an enzyme at the enzyme's ____ site. a) catalytic b) allosteric c) operative d) active |
d) active |
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Which of the following statements about enzyme inhibition is true? a) most noncompetitive inhibitors bind to several different sites on an enzyme. b) enzymes become less efficient as temperatures drop because they begin to denature c) noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a site other than the active site d) most human enzymes have an optimum temperature below the human body temperaute |
c) noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a site other than the active site |
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In glycolysis, each molecule of glucose eventually produces ______ molecules of pyruvic acid. a) one b) two c) three d) four |
b) two |
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In fermentation reactions occurring in yeast to produce wine, two products of the reaction are _____ and _______. a) acid; hydrogen gas b) hydrogen gas; propionic acid c) ethyl alcohol; methane d) carbon dioxide; ethyl alcohol |
d) carbon dioxide; ethyl alcohol |
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In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is: a) water b) oxygen c) sulfur d) coenzyme Q |
b) oxygen |
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How is ATP formed by chemiosmosis? a) charge difference of outer and inner membrane gives motive force to generate ATP b) nitrates are used as their final electron acceptor c) the last step involves H2O to be split into O2 d) all of the metabolites enter the Krebs cycle |
a) charge difference of outer and inner membrane gives motive force to generate ATP |
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The first step in protein metabolism is the breakdown of proteins into: a) nucleotides b) fatty acids c) amino acids d) coenzymes |
c) amino acids |
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Glucose is to photosynthesis as pyruvate is to: a) oxidative phosphorylation b) glycolysis c) fermentation d) Krebs cycle |
b) glycolysis |
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The initial breakdown of glucose in a eukaryotic cell takes place in the ______. a) cytoplasm b) golgi c) nucleus d) cell membranes |
a) cytoplasm |
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The initial substrate molecule for the Krebs cycle is: a) pyruvic acid b) acetyl-CoA c) acetic acid d) butanediol |
b) acetyl-CoA |
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The electrons transferred from acetyl groups in the Krebs cycle are transferred to; a) NAD+ only b) FAD only c) neither NAD+ and FAD d) both NAD+ and FAD |
d) both NAD+ and FAD |
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Most bacteria reproduce by: a) sexual reproduction b) binary fission c) budding d) homologous recombination |
b) binary fission |
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The type of cell reproduction in which a small, new cell develops from the surface of an existing cell and then separates from the parent cell is known as ______ and is the normal mode of replication in _________. a) binary fission; bacteria b) binary fission; yeast c) budding; bacteria b) budding, yeast |
b) budding, yeast |
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Which of the following is not one of the phases of bacterial growth? a) lag phase b) stationary phase c) doubling phase d) log phase |
c) doubling phase |
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Serial dilutions are used to: a) slow down the growth of microbes b) speed up the growth of microbes c) obtain bacterial cultures at several different concentrations d) form bacterial colonies |
c) obtain bacterial cultures at several different concentrations |
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Which type of cell will generally shift to aerobic metabolism when oxygen is available but will carry on fermentation otherwise? a) aertolerant anaerobes b) facultative anaerobes c) obligate anaerobes d) obligate aerobes |
b) facultative anaerobes |
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When cells are placed in a hypertonic environment they will undergo ______. a) lysis b) no change in size c) swelling of the cell which is contained by the cell wall b) plasmolysis |
b) plasmolysis |
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Halophiles require an environment with a high concentration of ______ for optimal growth. a) sugar b) alcohol c) salt d) phosphorus |
c) salt |
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Organisms with special nutritional needs are said to be _____. a) barophiles b) fastidious c) aerobes d) none of the above |
b) fastidious |
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A growth medium consisting of only known amounts of water, magnesium, calcium chloride, potassium, and glucose would be considered: a) a defined synthetic medium b) a complex medium c) a chemically non defined medium d) two of the above |
a) a defined synthetic medium |
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Bacteria that ferment lactose grow as red colonies on MacConkey's agar while those that do not ferment lactose are transparent. MacConkey's agar can be best described as being: a) selective b) differential c) complex d) enriched |
b) differential |
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______ techniques must be strictly adhered to prevent the accidental contamination of stock cultures. a) germination b) selective c) differential d) aseptic |
d) aseptic |
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A linear sequence of DNA nucleotides which provides the generic information for a single characteristic is a _______. a) chromosome b) plasmid c) gene d) base pair |
c) gene |
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Genes with different information at the same locus are called ______. a) chromosomes b) homologs c) plasmids d) alleles |
d) alleles |
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A permanent alteration in the DNA of an organism is called a/n: a) mutation b) hereditary marker c) replicon d) allele |
a) mutation |
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Which nitrogenous base is not normally found in DNA? a) guanine b) thymine c) uracil d) adenine |
c) uracil |
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Transcription results in the formation of what type of new molecule? a) DNA b) RNA c) protein d) lipid |
b) RNA |
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The process of ________ results in the synthesis of a new protein. a) replication b) transcription c) translation d) transversion |
c) translation |
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During DNA replication: a) the leading strand is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction b) the leading strand is synthesized discontinuously c) the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction d) both strands are synthesized discontinuously |
c) the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction |
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The information carried by DNA is used to create a _______ which then moves to the ribosome for protein synthesis. a) tRNA b) rRNA c) siRNA d) mRNA |
d) mRNA |
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In an enzyme catalyzed reaction that displays feedback inhibition, ________ a) excess substate will inhibit the reaction b) excess product will inhibit the reaction c) the reaction continues at the same pace regardless of conditions int he cell d) excess product is broken down to create new substrate |
b) excess product will inhibit the reaction |
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A frameshift mutation occurs when: a) an adenine is inserted into the DNA sequence of an organism b) a thymine replaces a guanine in the DNA sequence of an organism c) three new bases are inserted into the DNA strand d) three bases are deleted from the DNA strand |
a) an adenine is inserted into the DNA sequence of an organism |
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Spontaneous mutations are: a) caused by chemicals such as acridine and caffeine b) caused by physical agents such as ultraviolet light or x-rays c) the result of errors in the base pairing of nucleotides during replication d) occur at a rate higher than the rate of induced mutations |
c) the result of errors in the base pairing of nucleotides during replication |
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Pyrimidine dimers are a type of mutation most commonly caused by: a) alkylating agents b) deaminating agents c) ultraviolet light d) acridine |
c) ultraviolet light |
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The Ames test is used to determine if a chemical: a) increases the rate at which a bacterial cell divides b) decreases the number of cells in a culture c) induces mutations in a cell's DNA d) decreases the ability of a cell to photosynthesize |
c) induces mutations in a cell's DNA |
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When genes are passed on from parent to offspring, which of the following events has taken place? a) horizontal gene transfer b) transduction c) vertical gene transfer d) retrograde gene transfer |
c) vertical gene transfer |
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In horizontal gene transfer: a) genes are passed between bacteria of different generations b) genes are passed from mother cells to daughter cells c) genes are passed between bacteria of the same generation d) none of the above |
c) genes are passed between bacteria of the same generation |
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A bacterium that is transformed: a) cannot form a conjugation pilus b) has acquired naked DNA from the environment c) will probably die within 48 hours d) if injected, it always will result in the death of a mouse |
b) has acquired naked DNA from the environment |
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A lytic viral cycle is usually the result of infection by a: a) prophage b) virulent phage c) temperate phage d) antiphage |
b) virulent phage |
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During the process of lysogeny: a) a phage integrates into the chromosome of the bacterium b) a bacterium takes up DNA from the media c) new phage particles are assembled in the host bacterium d) a bacterium is split open to release new phage particles |
a) a phage integrates into the chromosome of the bacterium |
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The genetic information needed for a cell to participate in conjugation resides in the DNA of a cell's _______. a) bacterial chromosome b) F plasmid c) F pilus d) mitochondria |
b) F plasmid |
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A _______ is a genetic sequence able to move from one location in a chromosome to another. a) plasmid b) F factor c) transposon d) R factor |
c) transposon |
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The process of conjugation in bacteria requires that: a) two types of viruses be present b) the bacteria be deprived of nutrients c) there be naked DNA in the environment d) there be contact between donor and recipient cells |
d) there be contact between donor and recipient cells |
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A transgenic organism: a) contains DNA from two different species of organism b) contains a plasmid c) is resistant to viral infection d) contains DNA which allows it transfer plasmids from its cells to other cells |
a) contains DNA from two different species of organism |
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Recombinant bacteria have been used to produce ______. a) human growth hormone b) vaccines c) insulin d) all of the above |
d) all of the above |
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Restriction enzymes come from _______. a) fungal cells b) viruses c) bacterial cells d) animal cells |
c) bacterial cells |
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Gene therapy would describe which of the following scenarios? a) bacteria which produce human growth hormone b) a DNA comparison in a paternity case c) yeast which has been genetically engineered to produce yeast from starch d) replacing a defective gene in human cell |
d) replacing a defective gene in human cell |
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Without restriction endonuclease, it would be impossible to _______. a) insert plasmids into bacteria b) bring about mutations in bacteria c) replicate DNA in a recombinant cell d) cut the DNA of plasmids |
d) cut the DNA of plasmids |
