Microbiology Exam 2

Front 1

Which growth phase is the healthiest time for the population?

Back 1

log phase

Front 2

What phase represents when the culture is acclimating to the new environment (culture medium)?

Back 2

lag phase

Front 3

The decline phase is a result of the bacterial culture

Back 3

running out of nutrients
running out of oxygen or space
building up too much waste

Front 4

Dot-shaped (round) bacteria that occur in tetrads or sarcinae may be called

Back 4

staphylococcus

Front 5

Which of the following disease-causing organisms would you expect to find information about in Bergey's Manual?

Back 5

Clostridium difficile

Front 6

Which of the following bacterial species is a G- diplococcus?

Back 6

Neisseria gonorrhea

Front 7

Which of the following bacterial species has a Gram+ cell wall?

Back 7

Lactobacillus acidophilus

Front 8

Under optimal growth conditions, Escherichia coli bacteria may reproduce as fast as (What is the shortest possible generation time?)

Back 8

every 20 minutes

Front 9

Which bacterial genus is known for NOT having a peptidoglycan cell wall?

Back 9

Mycoplasma

Front 10

Which bacterial structure serves as the dormant stage and in the case of anthrax, has the purpose of enabling the pathogen to get to the next host even after the first host dies?

Back 10

endospore

Front 11

Which of the following is the major component of the bacterial cell wall?

Back 11

peptidoglycan

Front 12

Which of the following characteristics do fimbriae and capsules have in common?

Back 12

can be used for attachment to host tissues

Front 13

Which of the following is an example of how antimicrobial therapy can cause side-effects?

Back 13

all
tetracycline harms host's ribosomes while targeting bacterial ribosomes
normal flora is harmed along with pathogenic bacteria
bacterial pathogens become resistant to the drug

Front 14

Organisms that are killed by oxygen are

Back 14

obligate anaerobes

Front 15

Which of the following would most likely be pathogens of the human body?

Back 15

mesophiles

Front 16

Which of the following bacterial species is flagellated?

Back 16

Proteus vulgaris

Front 17

What effect would an antimicrobial agent that targeted the cell wall of G+ bacteria have on the bacteria?

Back 17

prevents production of peptidoglycan for the transverse plate

Front 18

Which of the following is NOT enteric bacteria?

Back 18

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 19

Which of the following bacterial species is most likely to be pyogenic (pus-forming)?

Back 19

Streptococcus pyogenes

Front 20

What would you expect the cellular morphology to be, if you prepared a Gram stain slide of Escherichia coli?

Back 20

Tiny rod-shaped red cells

Front 21

Which of the following structures would NOT be associated with enhanced virulence or pathogenecity of bacteria?

Back 21

ribosomes

Front 22

Which of the following bacteria is NOT an endospore former?

Back 22

Corynebacterium diptheriae

Front 23

Which cell is a spirochaete?

Back 23

Treponema pallidum

Front 24

Which genus of bacteria has an axial filament?

Back 24

Borrelia

Front 25

Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite?

Back 25

Chlamydia trachoma

Front 26

Which of the following is included in Division I of Bergey's Manual?

Back 26

Rickettsia typhi

Front 27

Extreme Thermophiles are included in which Division of Bergey's Manual?

Back 27

Division IV (unconventional types and many Archaeobacteria)

Front 28

Which of the following is included in Division II of Bergey's Manual?

Back 28

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Front 29

If your bacterial culture in a broth tube was very turbid toward the bottom, but the rest of the broth was more clear, you would conclude that

Back 29

the organisms are microaerophilic

Front 30

What growth pattern would you expect to find in a nutrient broth test tube culture of aerobic bacteria that have capsules?

Back 30

pellicle at the top

Front 31

What kinds of procedures are done to identify bacterial infections?

Back 31

examination of cellular and colonial morphology
differential staining
staining to highlight special structures the bacteria have

Front 32

A negative stain

Back 32

requires no heat fixing

Front 33

What type of microscopy is usually used with stained slide preparations?

Back 33

bright field

Front 34

An acidic stain

Back 34

is used for a negative stain

Front 35

During differential staining procedures, which is the determinative step, or the earliest point at which the distinction is made between different types of cells?

Back 35

after decolorization

Front 36

What is the purpose of using counterstain for the differential staining techniques?

Back 36

to provide contrast

Front 37

On an AFB slide, organisms that are Acid-fast stain PINK from the TB Kinyoun Stain. That means that they

Back 37

belong to the genus Mycobacterium

Front 38

Organisms that stain Green as a result of the TB Kinyoun Acid-fast staining technique

Back 38

are non-acid fast organisms

Front 39

Which one of the following groups does NOT contain prokaryotes?

Back 39

Eukarya

Front 40

Which statement is TRUE?

Back 40

rubbing alcohol is used as an antiseptic

Front 41

If you take a loopful of inoculum from a bacterial colony that is circular, yellow and smooth then subculture it onto a new Petri plate, what would you expect to find after the incubation?

Back 41

more colonies that are circular, yellow and smooth

Front 42

Which of the following genera would cause (primary) atypical pneumonia?

Back 42

Mycoplasma

Front 43

Which is the G- bacterium most commonly found in UTI's (urinary tract infections)?

Back 43

Escherichia coli

Front 44

Why is it that G- bacteria can survive when ingested to colonize in the intestines?

Back 44

because their outer membrane protects them from digestive acids

Front 45

Why might a thick-walled bacterium appear red after the Gram stain technique?

Back 45

because the bacteria are Gram-variable or the culture was old

Front 46

The cause of bacterial ear infections in children are often generally referred to as

Back 46

pneumococcus

Front 47

"Diptheroids" are commonly found in the nares and upper respiratory tract. They are non-pathogenic members of the genus

Back 47

Corynebacterium

Front 48

Which is generally the cause of bacterial vaginosis?

Back 48

Gardnerella vaginalis

Front 49

Gonococcal urethritis implicates which causative agent?

Back 49

Neisseria gonorrhea

Front 50

Which genus of enteric bacteria is NOT a member of the Family Enterobacteriaceae in Section 5 of Division I in Bergey's Manual?

Back 50

Enterococcus

Front 51

Which of the following metabolic and morphological characteristics is/are common to the bacteria of the Family Enterobacteriaceae?

Back 51

G-
facultative anaerobes
tiny, single rod-shaped cells

Front 52

Which of the following is body temperature for a healthy patient?

Back 52

68*C

Front 53

What are Lancefield Groups?

Back 53

grouping of streptococcus done by researcher Lancefield

Front 54

What is GAS and how does it differ from GBS?

Back 54

S. pyogenes, also known as Group A Streptococcus (GAS), is the causative agent in a wide range of Group A streptococcal infections.
S. agalactiae, or GBS, causes pneumonia and meningitis in neonates and the elderly, with occasional systemic bacteremia.