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194 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
In Western blot for HIV, how many bands have to be positive for the test to be positive?
What are the bands you look for? |
In Western blot for HIV, how many bands have to be positive for the test to be positive?
Need 2 out of 3 diagnostic bands What are the bands you look for? gp160=gp120; gp41; p24 |
|
What are the 4 major mechanisms of antibiotic resistance?
|
1. Enzymatic cleavage or inactivation of the antibiotic (e.g. beta lactamases inactivate beta lactams; aminoglycocide modifying enzymes inactivate aminoglycocide).
2. Altered antibiotic binding site (e.g. mecA in MRSA resistance to methicillin) 3. Altered permeability to the antibiotic (e.g. Pseudomonas resistance to aminoglycocides) 4. Bypass of a metabolic block imposed by antibiotic (e.g. Enterococcus resistance to TMP/SMX) |
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To determine minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) the standardized suspension of organism is what McFarland standard (equals how many organisms per mL)?
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0.5 McFarland Standard = barium sulfate standard that equals the turbidity of 10^8 organisms/mL.
|
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What is the difference between minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) and minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC)?
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MIC: The antibiotic concentration required to inhibit growth of a specific isolate in vitro under standardized conditions. It is determined by finding the lowest bacterial dilution w/o visible growth during serial dilution testing.
MBC: The lowest bacterial dilution where the culture has been completely sterilized. This is done by subculturing results for various dilutions done in MIC testing onto sterile agar not containing antibiotics and seeing which dilution has no growth. NOTE: Antibiotic tolerance = MBC/MIC |
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In the disk test for beta lactamase detection:
1. What is the filter paper impregnated with? 2. What is the color change? |
1. Nitrocefin (chromogenic cephalosporin)
2. Yellow to Red if positive |
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Which disk is used for MRSA screening?
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Oxacillin
|
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What is the purpose of a D test?
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D test determines whether the S. aureus can be induced to be resistant to clindamycin.
The organisms which may do this will be erythromycin resistant and apparently clindamycin susceptible; however, when you put an erythromycin disk next to a clindamycin disc, the erythromycin induces resistance to clindamycin so the zone of inhibition around clindamycin will be shaped like a D instead of a circle. |
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What 3 antibiotics are Enterococcus resistant to?
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1. Cephalosporins
2. Clindamyicn 3. TMP/SMX |
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How do you usually treat enterococus? (2 drugs)
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Ampicillin + Gentamycin (synergy)
|
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Vancomycin resistant enterococcus (VRE) acquire resistance by what plasmids?
|
VanA (E. faecium)
VanB (E. faecalis) |
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VanA is to __1___
as VanB is to __2___ |
1. VanA: Enterococcus faecium
2. VanB: Enterococcus feacalis |
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How do you treat VRE? (2 drugs)
|
Linezolid + Synercid (quinupristin and dalfopristin, both streptomycins)
|
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Beta lactamase is to penicillin
as Extended spectrum beta lactamase is to _______ |
Cephalosporins (and penicillins)
|
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What is the drug of choice for extended spectrum beta lactamase producers?
|
Imipenem, piperacillin/tazobactam
|
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Extended spectrum beta lactamase is to Cephalosporins (and penicillins)
as Klebsiella pneumonia Carbapenemase is to ________ |
Carbapenems (such as Imepenem)
|
|
What is the Modified Hodge Test designed to detect?
|
Klebsiella penumonia Carbapenemase
NOTE: To perform the MHT, a suspension of the carbapenem susceptible strain of E. coli is prepared, diluted, and swabbed in lawn-like fashion across a Mueller Hinton plate. A meropenem or ertapenem susceptibility disk is placed in the center of the test plate. The test microorganism is streaked in a straight line from the edge of the disk to the edge of the plate. The plate is incubated overnight. A positive test will show growth of the E. coli on the microorganism streak line towards the carbapenem disk. A negative test will show no growth of the E. coli on the microorganism streak line. |
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What antibiotics can be used to treat penicillin resistant Streptococcus pneumonia? (3)
|
Cefotaxime, vancomycin, or quinolone
|
|
Most sensitive method of detecting GC/chlamydia?
|
PCR
NOTE: can use urine, cervix, urehtral, rectal, and throat samples. |
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What kind of cells are used for Chlamyida culture?
|
McCoy
NOTE: Positive cells have Elementary Bodies (small extracellular bodies) which can be picked up by iodine stain or fluorescent antibody stain. |
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In Clostridium difficile:
Toxin ___ is to enterotoxin as. Toxin ___ is to _______? |
1. Toxin A is to enterotoxin
as 2. Toxin B is to cytotoxin |
|
Is enzyme immunoassay (EIA) for toxin A and B (Clostridium difficile) sensitive?
|
No. The sensitivity is only 60% so PCR is the test of choice now.
|
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N. gonorrhoeae specimens for culture should be collected on what type of swab? Should the specimen be refrigerated?
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Charcoal swab, DO NOT refrigerate
|
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Urine specimen is put into what to promote stationary phase?
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Boric acid
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Do you refrigerate CSF?
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No, keep at room temperature or incubate at 35 C for bacterial culture.
|
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Gram stain:
1. What is the primary stain? 2. Mordant? 3. Decolorizer 4. Counterstain? |
1. Primary stain = crystal violet
2. Mordant = Gram's iodine 3. Decolorizer = Acetone/Alcohol 4. Counterstain = safranin |
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On MacConkey agar:
1. Pink = ? 2. White = ? |
1. Pink = lactose fermenting GNR
2. White = lactose non-fermenting GNR |
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What are the 2 distinguishing features of all Staphylococcus organisms?
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1. All are Gram positive cocci in clusters.
2. All are Catalase positive |
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The coagulase test distinguishes Staphylococcus aureas from coagulase-negative Staphylococcus spp. How does this test work?
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Coagulase Test: rabbit plasma + organism incubated at 35 C for 4 hours and 24 hours. Positive test = clot. Negative test = no clot.
|
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How does catalase test work?
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H2O2 + organism: positive test bubbles, negative test doesn't bubble
|
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Name 4 virulence factors for Staphylococcus aureus.
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1. TSST-1 (toxic shock syndrome)
2. Exfoliatin (scalded skin syndrome) 3. Panton valentine leucocidin - PVL (soft tissue infection) 4. Enterotoxins (food poisoning) |
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Name 2 selective and differential medias for Staphylococcus aureus.
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1. ChormAgar: clear agar turns mauve
2. Mannitol salt agar (7.5% NaCL + mannitol): since S. aureus ferments mannitol the agar turns from red to yellow |
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Which coagulase negative Staphylococcus forms biofilms on surfaces?
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S. epidermidis
|
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Which coagulase negative Staphylococcus tends to cause UTIs in women and is Novobiocin disk resistant?
|
S. saprophyticus
|
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Which coagulase negative Staphylococcus tends to cause line related sepsis?
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S. hemolyticus
|
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This species forms Gram positive cocci in tetrads, is part of the normal flora, and has bright yellow pigment.
|
Micrococcus species
|
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Is micrococcus:
1. Bacitracin disk susceptible or resistant? 2. Glucose fermentor or not? 3. Microdase test positive or negative? |
1. Bacitracin disk: susceptible
2. Does NOT ferment glucose (can tell difference from Staphylococcus because they DO ferment glucose) 3. Microdase test POSITIVE |
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Streptococcus is catalase positive or negative?
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Negative
|
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Streptococcus pyogenes has what kind of hemolysis on sheep blood agar?
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Beta-hemolytic
|
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Streptococcus pyogenes belongs to what Lancefield group?
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A
|
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Is Streptococcus pyogenes:
1. Bacitracin disk susceptible or resistant? 2. SXT susceptible or resistant? 3. PYR positive or negative? 4. Penicillin resistant? |
Streptococcus pyogenes:
1. Bacitracin susceptible 2. SXT resistant 3. PYR positive 4. Penicillin susceptible |
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Is Streptococcus agalactiae alpha, beta, or gamma hemolytic on sheep blood agar?
|
Beta hemolytic
|
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This genus is composed of Gram positive cocci in chains or pairs and are catalase negative.
|
Streptococci
|
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S. agalactiae:
1. CAMP test 2. Rapid hippurate hydrolysis (4 hour) 3. Lancefield group 4. Penicillin sensitive or resistant? |
S. agalactiae
1. CAMP test + 2. Rapid hippurate hydrolysis + 3. Lancefield group B 4. Penicillin sensitive |
|
Enterococci:
1. Type of hemolysis 2. Bile esculin 3. 6.5% salt 3. PYR 4. Arabinose fermentation: E. facium vs. fecalis |
Enterococci:
1. Type of hemolysis: gamma 2. Bile esculin: positive 3. 6.5% salt: positive 3. PYR: positive 4. Arabinose fermentation - E. faecium: arabinose fermentation positive - E. faecalis: arabinose fermentation negative |
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Among Streptococci, which are PYR positive? (2)
|
Group A strep (pyogenes)
Enterococcus (E. faecium, E. faecalis) |
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Streptococcus bovis
1. What type of hemolysis? 2. Bile esculin 3. 6.5% NaCl 4. PYR 5. Penicillin susceptible or resistant? |
Streptococcus bovis
1. What type of hemolysis: gamma 2. Bile esculin: positive 3. 6.5% NaCl: negative 4. PYR: negative 5. Penicillin: susceptible |
|
Streptococcus pneuomniae
1. What type of hemolysis? 2. Bile soluble or not? 3. Optochin (P disk) 4. What's the special reaction that types the serotypes? |
Streptococcus pneuomniae
1. What type of hemolysis: alpha 2. Bile: soluble 3. Optochin (P disk): sensitive 4. What's the special reaction that types the serotypes? Quellung |
|
Viridans streptococci
1. What type of hemolysis? 2. Bile esculin 3. Bile soluble or not? 4. Optochin (P disk) |
Viridans streptococci
1. What type of hemolysis: alpha 2. Bile esculin: negative 3. Bile not soluble 4. Optochin (P disk): resistant |
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Name the 2 nutritionally variant "Strep" (vitamin B6 deficient). How do you grow this on sheep blood agar?
|
Species: Abiotrophia, Granulacatilla
How to grow: needs S. aureus streak to grow "satellite" (or need media supplemented with vitamin B6) |
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Name the 2 beta hemolytic Strep of clinical importance.
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S. pyogenes (group A)
S. agalactiae (group B) |
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Name the 2 gamma hemolytic Strep of clinical importance.
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Enterococcus (E. faecium, E. faecalis)
Group D strep (S. bovis) |
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Name the 2 clinically important alpha hemolytic Strep.
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S. pneumoniae
Viridans strep |
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Name the 2 clinically important Gram negative cocci. Oxidase positive or negative?
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Neisseria species
Moraxella catarrhalis Both oxidase positive |
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Glucose, Maltose, Lactose, Sucrose:
1. N. gonorrhoeae 2. N. meningitidis 3. N. lactamica 4. M. catarrhalis |
Glucose, Maltose, Lactose, Sucrose:
1. N. gonorrhoeae: +, -, -, - 2. N. meningitidis: +, +, -, - 3. N. lactamica: +, +, +, - 4. M. catarrhalis: All negative, DNA'ase + |
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What complement deficiency predisposes to chronic N. meningitidis?
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Deficiencies in complement 7, 8, and 9.
|
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Which sepsis is associated with Waterhouse Friedrichsen syndrome?
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Andrenal necrosis associated with N. meningitidis.
|
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What capsular polysaccharide subtype of N. meningitidis is endemic to the USA?
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Type C
|
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List 6 clinically significant genuses which are Gram positive rods.
|
1. Corynebacterium spp.
- Corynebacterium diphtheriae - Corynebacterium jeikeium - Corynebacterium urealyticum 2. Bacillus spp. - Bacillus anthracis - Bacillus cereus 3. Listeria monocytogenes 4. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae 5. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum 6. Clostridium spp. - C. perfringens - C. botulinum - C. tetani - C. septicum - C. difficile |
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Which organism is oxidase positive and has hockey puck colonies?
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Moraxella catarrhalis
|
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Which organism (genus level) has "Chinese letter" arrangement?
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Corynebacterium species
|
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What is the special agar used to culture Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
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Cysteine tellurite agar (modified Tinsdale): black colonies with brown halos
|
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Cysteine tellurite agar (modified Tinsdale) is used to colonize what bacteria and what is the characteristic appearance on this agar?
|
Corynebacterium diphtheriae are black colonies with brown halos on cysteine tellurite agar.
|
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Metachromatic granules are seen in what organism? How is it grown and stained to show this morphology?
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Corynebacterium diphtheriae has metachromatic granules after being grown on egg containing Loeffler slant then stained with methylene blue.
|
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Loeffler slant is used to grow what organism?
|
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
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Corynebacterium species are all catalase ___, diphtheroid (Chinese character) morphology, and spores ____.
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Corynebacterium species are all catalase POSITIVE, diphtheroid (Chinese character) morphology, and spores NEGATIVE.
|
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The toxin responsible for the pseudomembrane adherent in the throat of people infected with Corynebacterium diphtheriae is detected by what method?
|
Elek immunoprecipitation
|
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This organism is a Gram positive rod which is part of the normal skin flora, very resistant to most antibiotics (treat with vancomycin and tetracycline), and tends to cause infections in people with plastic catheters and indewelling devices.
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Corynebacterium jeikeium
|
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This Gram positive rod is rapidly urase positive and tends to cause alkaline encrusted cystitis.
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Corynebacterium urealyticum
|
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This Gram positive rod is catalase positive, has diphtheroid morphology (Chinese letters), and does not form spores. (genus level)
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Corynebacterium spp.
|
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This Gram positive rod is boxcar shaped, catalase positive, is not an anaerobe, and does form spores. (genus level)
|
Bacillus spp.
|
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This Gram positive rod produces medusa head colonies on sheep blood agar and is non-hemolytic.
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Bacillus anthracis
|
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This Gram positive rod, which can grow under aerobic or anaerobic conditions, is beta hemolytic on sheep blood agar, motile, boxcar shaped, catalase positive, and contains spores.
|
Bacillus cereus
|
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This small, intracellular (in macrophages) Gram positive rod is catalase positive, beta hemolytic on sheep blood agar, has tumbling (umbrella) motility, tends to be cold loving (grows well at 4 C, and tumbles better at 25 C than 35 C).
|
Listeria monocytogenes
|
|
What are the source of infection for Listeria monocytogenes?
|
Non-pasteurized dairy products, deli case foods
|
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This Gram positive rod is alpha helomytic, produces H2S, and is catalase negative.
|
Erysipeloithrix rhusiopathiae
|
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Enterobacteriaceae are characterized by what:
1. Gram stain 2. Glucose fermentation yes or no? 3. Oxidase positive or negative? 4. Do they reduce nitrate to nitrite? |
Enterobacteriaceae are characterized by what:
1. Gram stain: Gram negative rods 2. Glucose fermentation yes or no: YES 3. Oxidase positive or negative: NEGATIVE 4. Do they reduce nitrate to nitrite: YES |
|
Enterobacteriaceae can be divided by lactose fermentation.
1. Name 3 lactose fermenters. 2. Name 6 clinically significant lactose non-fermenters. |
1. Lactose fermenters:
- E. coli - Klebsiella penumoniae - Enterobacter 2. Lactose non-fermenters - Proteus - Serratia marcescens - Salmonella - Shigella - Yersinia - Vibrio |
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This member of the Enterobactericiae family ferments lactose, is indole positive, and has a green sheen on EMB agar.
|
E. coli
|
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This member of the Enterobacteriaciae family produces swarming colonies. Which species is indole positive and which is indole negative?
|
Proteus has swarming colonies.
P. vulgaris is indole positive. P. mirabilis is indole negative. |
|
Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis indole?
|
P. vularis indole positive.
P. mirabilis indole negative. |
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Which member of the Enterobacteriaciae family has red pigment?
|
Serratia marcescens
|
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Which is the only Gram positive rod that produces H2S?
|
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
|
|
Hektoen agar is selective media for what organism?
|
Salmonella
|
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What are the 2 special agars for Salmonella?
|
Hektoen agar (Salmonella is black due to H2S)
Salmonella Shigella agar (Salmonella and Shigella are colorless) |
|
Salmonella:
1. Lactose 2. H2S |
Salmonella:
1. Lactose: does not ferment lactose 2. H2S: does produce H2S |
|
Where does S. typhi live inside carriers?
|
Gallbladder
|
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Between Salmonella and Shigella, which one needs high number of organism to cause infection and which needs low numbers?
|
Salmonella = high numbers
Shigella = low numbers (only 10-100 will cause disease) |
|
Between Salmonella and Shigella, which one is motile?
|
Salmonella = motile (salmon swim therefore are motile)
Shigella = non-motile |
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Name the 4 species of Shigella and state which group they are in based on somatic antigen.
|
Group A: S. dysenteriae
Group B: S. flexneri Group C: S. boydii Group D: S. sonnei |
|
What is the major reservoir of Yersinia enterocolitica?
|
Swine
|
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Infection with what organism mimics acute appendicitis?
|
Yersinia enterocolitica
|
|
Like Listeria monocytogenes, this organism grows well at 4 C and can be found in non-pasteurized dairy products.
|
Yersinia enterocolitica
|
|
Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar is the differential media for this organism.
|
Yersinia enterocolitica
|
|
What is the differential agar for Yersinia enterocolitica?
|
CIN (Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin) agar
|
|
Which Gram negative organism shows "bipolar" or "safety pin" morphology on Gram stain?
|
Yersinia pestis
|
|
What is the characteristic morphology of Yersinia pestis on Gram stain?
|
"Bipolar" or "safety pin" Gram negative rods
|
|
Yersinia pestis:
1. Catalase 2. Oxidase |
Yersinia pestis:
1. Catalase positive 2. Oxidase negative |
|
How does one get Bubonic plague? What about pneumonic plague?
|
Bubonic: flea bite
Pneumonic: bacteremic spread or patient to patient |
|
What is the fatality rate of pneumonic plague?
|
>50%
|
|
What is the selective media for Vibrio cholora?
|
TCBS (Thio Citrate Bile Sucrose) agar if V. cholora positive turns yellow
|
|
How does Vibrio cholora toxin cause diarrhea?
|
1. Toxin binds epithelial cell receptors
2. Activation of adenylate cyclase 3. Increased cAMP 4. Hypersecretion of NaCl and with it, H2O |
|
This species of Vibrio is sucrose negative (green on TCBS agar) and infection is caused by ingestion of raw fish and shellfish.
|
V. parahemolyticus
|
|
This species of Vibrio is lactose positive, can be yellow or green on TCBS, causes painful skin lesions with muscle necrosis on lower extremities and septicemia in patients with pre-existing liver disease. Infection is caused by ingestion of raw oysters and shellfish from coastal waters. Associated with 50% fatality rate.
|
V. vulnificus
|
|
Oxidative/Fermentative Sugar reactions which tubes turn yellow (from green):
1. Fermentation 2. Assimilation 3. Oxidizer |
1. Fermentation: Both oil covered and non-oil tubes yellow
2. Assimilation: Tube without oil tube turns yellow; oil covered tube stays green 3. Oxidizer: Neither tube turns yellow (both green) |
|
What is the fleuorescent blue-green pigment made my Pseudomonas aeruginosa called?
|
Pyocyanin
|
|
What is X and V?
|
X = hemin
V = NAD |
|
What are the special requirements for Haemophilus influenza to grow? (3)
|
Factor X and V, high CO2
|
|
1. This Haemophilus requires both X and V factors.
2. This Haemophilus requires only V, not X 3. This Haemophilus requires X, not V 4. This Haemophilus doesn't require X or V |
1. X and V factors: H. influenza
2. Only V, not X: H. parainfluenza 3. Only X, not V: H. ducreyi 4. Neither X or V: H. aphrophilus |
|
Name the HACEK organisms.
|
Haemophilus aphrophilus (oxidase negative, catalase negative)
Actinobacillus actinomycetoma-comitans (oxidase negative, catalase positive) Cardiobacterium hominis (oxidase positive, catalase negative) Eikinella corrodens (Oxidase positive, catalase negative, pits sheep blood agar) Kingella kingii (oxidase positive, catalase negative, hemolytic on sheep blood agar) |
|
Haemophilus aphrophilus:
- oxidase - catalase |
Haemophilus aphrophilus:
- oxidase: negative - catalase: negative |
|
Actinobacillus actinomycetom-comitans:
- oxidase - catalase |
Actinobacillus actinomycetom-comitans:
- oxidase negative - catalase positive |
|
Cardiobacterium hominis:
- oxidase |
Cardiobacterium hominis:
- oxidase: positive |
|
Eikinella corrodens:
- oxidase - colony appearance on blood agar |
Eikinella corrodens:
- oxidase: positive - colony appearance on blood agar: pits |
|
Kingella kingii
- oxidase - colony appearance on blood agar |
Kingella kingii
- oxidase: positive - colony appearance on blood agar: hemolytic |
|
Special agar for Bordetella pertussis?
|
Regan Lowe Charcoal agar
|
|
The Regan Lowe Charcoal agar is differential for what?
|
Bordetella pertussis
|
|
3 stages of whooping cough?
Which stage is most contageous? |
3 stages:
1. prodromal 2. Catarrhal 3. Paroxysmal Most contageous: prodromal |
|
What specimen is collected for Bordetella pertussis culture?
|
Nasopharyngeal swab
|
|
What is a Gram negative rod that grows on blood agar but not MacConkey?
|
Pasteurella multocida
|
|
Pasteurella multocida:
- Penicillin sensitive or resistant? - Oxidase positive or negative? |
Pasteurella multocida:
- Penicillin sensitive - Oxidase positive |
|
Morphology on Gram stain of Capnocytophaga canimorsus?
|
Very pleomorphic Gram negative rod
|
|
The Castaneda biphasic blood culture was historically used to culture what?
|
Brucella
|
|
What specimens are collected to culture Brucella?
|
Blood and bone marrow
|
|
What is the usual presentation of Brucellosis?
|
FUO, joint pain
|
|
Name the species of Brucella related to the following animals
1. Raw cow milk 2. Raw goat milk, feta cheese 3. pigs 4. Dogs |
1. Brucella abortus: raw cow milk
2. Brucella melitensis: raw goat milk, feta cheese 3. Brucella suis: pigs 4. Brucella canis: dogs |
|
Sea gull shaped Gram negative rods?
|
Campylobacter
|
|
Morphology of Campylobacter on Gram stain?
|
Sea gull shaped Gram negative rods
|
|
What is the special agar used to isolate Campylobacter jejuni?
|
Skirrow's blood agar
|
|
What is Skirrow's blood agar used to isolate?
|
Campylobacter jejuni
|
|
Campylobacter jejuni infection is related to ingestion of what?
|
undercooked poultry
|
|
Which 2 organisms grow at 42 C?
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Campylobacter jejuni
|
|
What are the special temperature and atmospheric conditions required for growth of Campylobacter jejuni?
|
42 C microaerophilic atmosphere
|
|
Infection with this organism which causes diarrhea is often associated with Guillain barre syndrome?
|
Campylobacter jejuni
|
|
Campylobacter ____ grows at 37 C and 42 C
Campylobacter ____ grows at 37 C and 25 C |
Campylobacter jejuni grows at 37 C and 42 C
Campylobacter fetus grows at 37 C and 25 C |
|
This organism has gliding motility and fingerlike projections from colonies.
|
Capnocytophaga
|
|
Capnocytophaga
- oxidase - catalase |
Capnocytophaga
- oxidase: negative - catalase: negative |
|
Culture media for Francisella tularensis must have what?
|
Cysteine
|
|
Cysteine is required for growth of these three organisms.
|
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Francisella tularensis Legionella pneumophilia |
|
Special media for Legionella penumophilia?
|
BCYE (buffered charcoal yeast extract) - contains cysteine
|
|
The urinary antigen test detects which type of L. pneumophilia?
|
Type 1 only
|
|
How do you treat Legionnaire's disease?
|
Erythromycin
|
|
Ehrlichia spp. usually infects what cell? What about Ehrlichia chaffeensis?
|
Ehrlichia spp. - human granulocytes
Ehrlichia chaffeensis - human monocytes |
|
How do you diagnose Ehrlichiosis?
|
Cannot be cultured. PCR if acute, serology otherwise.
|
|
Borrelia burgdorferi:
- Disease - Vector |
Borrelia burgdorferi:
- Lyme's disease - Vector = Ixodes tick |
|
Borrelia recurrentis:
- Disease - Vector |
Borrelia recurrentis:
- Disease: relapsing fever - Vector: human body louse |
|
This anaerobe is a Gram positive boxcar shaped rod with spores. (genus level)
|
Clostridium
|
|
This organism has a double zone of beta hemolysis.
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
This organism is REVERSE CAMP test positive.
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
This toxin causes flaccid paralysis.
|
C. botulinum toxin
|
|
This toxin causes spastic paralysis.
|
C. tetani toxin
|
|
On Gram stain this organism has "tennis racket" looking shapes due to spore at the end of the organism.
|
Clostridium tetani
|
|
Sulfur granules?
|
Actinomyces
|
|
Gram stain of Actinomyces?
|
Branching Gram positive bacilli that do not form spores
|
|
Molar tooth colony?
|
Actinomyces
|
|
Organism/Disease
Francisella tularensis |
tularemia
|
|
Organism/Disease
tularemia |
Francisella tularensis
|
|
Organism/Disease
Bordetella pertussis |
whooping cough
|
|
Organism/Disease
whooping cough |
Bordetella pertusis
|
|
Organism/Disease
Haemophilus ducreyi |
chancroid
|
|
Organism/Disease
Chancroid |
Haemophilus ducreyi
|
|
Organism/Disease
Pasteurella multocida |
dog bite
|
|
Organism/Disease
Dog bite (2) |
Pasteurella multocida
Capnocytophaga canimorsus |
|
Organism/Disease
Capnocytophaga canimorsus |
Dog bite
|
|
Organism/Disease
Legionella pneumophilia |
Legionnaire's disease
|
|
Organism/Disease
Francisella tularensis |
tularemia
|
|
Organism/Disease
tularemia |
Francisella tularensis
|
|
Organism/Disease
Bordetella pertussis |
whooping cough
|
|
Organism/Disease
whooping cough |
Bordetella pertusis
|
|
Organism/Disease
Haemophilus ducreyi |
chancroid
|
|
Organism/Disease
Chancroid |
Haemophilus ducreyi
|
|
How does a person get infected by Pasteurella multocida?
|
dog bite
|
|
Organism/Disease
Dog bite (2) |
Pasteurella multocida
Capnocytophaga canimorsus |
|
How does someone get infected by Capnocytophaga canimorsus?
|
Dog bite
|
|
Organism/Disease
Legionella pneumophilia |
Legionnaire's disease
|
|
Organism/Disease
Legionnaire's disease |
Legionella penumophilia
|
|
Organism/Disease
Gardnerella vaginalis |
Bacterial vaginosis
|
|
Organism/Disease
Helicobacter pylori |
PUD, gatritis
|
|
Organism/Disease
Bacterial vaginosis |
Gardnerella vaginalis
|
|
Organism/Disease
PUD, gastritis |
Helicobacter pylori
|
|
Organism/Disease
Streptobacillus moniliformis |
rat bite fever
|
|
Organism/Disease
Rat bite fever |
Streptobacillus moniliformis
|
|
Organism/Disease
Bartonella henselae |
Cat scratch, bacillary angiomatosis
|
|
Organism/Disease
Cat scratch |
Bartonella henselae
|
|
Organism/Disease
Bacillary angiomatosis |
Bartonella henselae
|
|
Organism/Disease
Treponema pallidum |
syphilis
|
|
Organism/Disease
Syphilis |
Treponema pallidum
|
|
Organism/Disease
Tropheryma whipplei |
Whipple's disease
|
|
Organism/Disease
Whipple's disease |
Tropheryma whipplei
|
|
Organism/Disease
Bacillus anthracis |
anthrax
|
|
Organism/Disease
Anthrax |
Bacillus anthracis
|
|
Organism/Disease
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae |
erysipeloid
|
|
Organism/Disease
Erysipeloid |
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
|
|
Organism/Disease
Streptococcus pyogenes/Group A strep (which skin disease?) |
erysipelas
|
|
Organism/Disease
erysipelas |
Streptococcus pyogenes/Group A strep
|