Microbiology

Front 1

1. The process by which bacteria reproduce is known as ------

Back 1

Binary Fission

Front 2

3. The interval of time between successive binary fissions of a cell or population of cells is known as the ------

Back 2

Generation time

Front 3

4. Archaea reproduce by a process known as ------

Back 3

Binary Fission

Front 4

5. How does cytokinesis work in prokaryotes?

Back 4

An inward pinching of the cell envelope

Front 5

6. When relating generation time of microbes to disease, what is a correct general statement?

Back 5

The faster the generation time, the shorter the incubation period

Front 6

7.The number of cells in the population increases rapidly occur in the ------ phase of growth

Back 6

Log

Front 7

8. At what stage in the bacterial growth curve are there no cell divisions occurring because the bacteria are adapting to their new environment?

Back 7

Lag phase

Front 8

10. At what stage of a bacterial growth curve are the bacteria dividing rapidly and the graph is rising in a straight line?

Back 8

Log phase

Front 9

11. In humans, at what stage of the bacterial growth curve are disease symptoms developing because the bacteria are causing tissue damage?

Back 9

Log phase

Front 10

12. At what point in the bacterial growth curve are bacteria the most vulnerable to antibiotics?

Back 10

Log phase

Front 11

13. At what phase does broth become turbid and visible colonies appear on agar in the bacterial growth curve?

Back 11

Log phase

Front 12

15. At what phase in the bacterial growth curve in a patient do antibodies from the immune system and phagocytosis by white blood cells affect the progress of the disease?

Back 12

Stationary phase

Front 13

16. In a culture tube, at what phase of the bacterial growth curve do available nutrients become scarce and waste products begin to accumulate?

Back 13

Stationary phase

Front 14

17. In a bacterial growth curve, when the number of dying cells exceeds the number of new cells formed, what stage are they in?

Back 14

Decline

Front 15

18. As a culture of Clostridium enters the decline phase of the growth curve, the vegetative cells will ------

Back 15

Produce endospores

Front 16

19. Which disease does not involve endospores?

Back 16

Syphilis

Front 17

20. Endospores are heat stable resting forms of all of the bacteria except ------

Back 17

Escherichia coli

Front 18

21. Endospores are very difficult to destroy. Because of this, what technique will work to get rid of them?

Back 18

Heat them under high pressure for several hours

Front 19

22. Under what conditions would you find vegetative growth from Clostridium botulinum endospores?

Back 19

A vacuumed sealed can of food

Front 20

24. Endospores are found primarily in what kind of organism?

Back 20

Gram positive bacillus

Front 21

25. Which disease is not caused by endospore forming Clostridia?

Back 21

Rabies

Front 22

26. What conditions are most likely to affect the growth of bacteria?

Back 22

Temperature, Oxygen, & pH

Front 23

27. An organism that grows at 5 degrees C is classified as a ------

Back 23

Psychrophile

Front 24

28. Psychrophiles and thermophiles differ with respect to their ------

Back 24

Best temperature for growth

Front 25

29. A mesophilic bacterium could not -----

Back 25

Live near thermal vents

Front 26

30. Most of the human pathogens are ------

Back 26

Mesophiles

Front 27

31. An example of a mesophile that is most frequently identified cause of infective diarrhea is ------

Back 27

Campylobacter

Front 28

32. Bacteria that can grow only in the absence of oxygen are said to be ------

Back 28

Anaerobic

Front 29

33. Facultative bacteria are those that ------

Back 29

Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

Front 30

34. You have isolated an organism from the human intestinal tract. It grows better when you capped the culture tube with a semiporous plug than when you used a plug that is completely permeable to oxygen. This organism should be classified as a(n) ------

Back 30

Microaerophile

Front 31

36. Most bacteria grow best at ------

Back 31

Neutral pH

Front 32

37. ------- are important food producing bacteria because they can be used to produce dairy products like buttermilk, sour cream, and yogurt from milk and cream

Back 32

Acidophiles

Front 33

38. The stomach protects us from a large number of microbes that might be in our food because ------

Back 33

Of its high level of acidity

Front 34

39. What are organisms called that require high amounts of salt?

Back 34

Halophiles

Front 35

40. There are some mesophilic bacteria that are salt tolerant. An example is ------

Back 35

Staphylococcus

Front 36

41. Some organisms like Neisseria grow well in an atmosphere that is low in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide. This can be created by lighting a candle, putting it in a jar, inserting the culture medium, then closing the lid of the jar. What is the best name for these organisms?

Back 36

Capnophiles

Front 37

42. The agar in nutrient agar serves as a ------

Back 37

Solidifying agent

Front 38

43. An important contribution was made to microbiology with the introduction of agar by Robert Koch. What statement about agar is not correct?

Back 38

Agar can only be used alone, not combined with any other substances.

Front 39

44. Which type of media is an example of a chemically undefined medium, or complex medium?

Back 39

Nutrient agar

Front 40

45. A selective medium is one that ------

Back 40

Allows one type of bacterium to grow while inhibiting another type

Front 41

46. A soil sample is added to a culture medium that has been designed to promote the growth of the genus Pseudomonas while inhibiting the growth of fungi. This test uses a(n) ------

Back 41

Selective medium

Front 42

47. How can you take a mixed unknown sample and separate out pure colonies to identify them?

Back 42

1) The pour plate method
2) A Sterile loop
3) An individual colony

Front 43

48. What method of measuring population growth is a direct count?

Back 43

Standard plate count using a dilution series

Front 44

49. The interval of time between successive binary fissions of a cell is called ------

Back 44

Generation time

Front 45

50. ------ organisms may require an enriched medium containing special nutrients – they are picky

Back 45

Fastidious

Front 46

51. A ------ is a population of bacteria consisting of only one species.

Back 46

Pure culture

Front 47

52. A(n) ------ has an optimal growth temperatue that coincides with human body temperature.

Back 47

Mesophile

Front 48

53. The ----- period for a microbe is the time from the entry of a pathogen into the body until the first symptoms appear.

Back 48

Incubation

Front 49

54. Vegetative cells hang out and do nothing – they are not in an active phase.

Back 49

False

Front 50

55. Prefers environments without oxygen and does not need oxygen to grow, but can tolerate living in an environment with it

Back 50

Aerotolerant

Front 51

55. Prefers environments without oxygen and does not need oxygen
to grow, but can tolerate living in an environment with it

Back 51

Aerotolerant

Front 52

55. Prefers environments without oxygen but can grow with or without it

Back 52

Facultative aerobe

Front 53

55. Prefers environments with oxygen but can grow with or without it

Back 53

Facultative anaerobe

Front 54

The stomach protects us from large number of microbes that might be in our food because -------

Back 54

Of its high level of acidity

Front 55

1. The erythrogenic toxin in streptococcal disease is responsible for ------

Back 55

Skin Rash

Front 56

2. Streptococcus pyogenes cause all of the following disease, except -----

Back 56

Pneumococcal pneumonia

Front 57

3. What produces an erythrogenic toxin that causes a pink skin rash?

Back 57

It is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes and damages the capillaries

Front 58

4. Streptococcus pyogenes produces a protein that, anchored in the cell wall and cell membrane, allows the bacterial cells to adhere firmly to the pharyngeal tissue. This protein is called ------

Back 58

M protein

Front 59

5. What is the disease in which symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and swollen neck glands? Normally, an individual experiences only one case in a lifetime because the immune system produces special antibodies, called antitoxins.

Back 59

Scarlet fever

Front 60

6. Cases of diptheria are characterized by ------

Back 60

Pseudomembrane formation of the respiratory tract

Front 61

7. This is normally a disease of infants so we inoculate infants in our country. However, because most of us never get a booster shot, we are seeing more cases of this disease in college students and adults. What is this disesas?

Back 61

Whooping cough

Front 62

8. The material used in the pertussis vaccine consists of ------

Back 62

A cellular chemical extract of Bordetella pertussis.

Front 63

9. The exotoxin of Corynebacterium diphteriae -----

Back 63

Interrupts protein synthesis in epithelial cells

Front 64

10. All of the following are bacterial disease of the lower respiratory tract except ----

Back 64

Pertussis (whooping cough)

Front 65

11. A child suffering from repeated bouts of a violent, high-pitched cough is brought to her physician’s office. The physician is likely to diagnose the infection as -----

Back 65

Bordetella pertussis

Front 66

12. An important principal criterion for the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis is ------

Back 66

Gram negative diplococci in spinal fluid

Front 67

13. In some cases of meningococcal meningitis, hemorrhagic lesions form in the adrenal glands, causing hormonal imbalance. This condition is called ------

Back 67

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

Front 68

14. All of the following except ------ are causes of meningitis

Back 68

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Front 69

15. Haemophilus influenzae is currently recognized as an important cause of ------

Back 69

Meningitis in young children

Front 70

16. Cases of pneumococcal pneumonia commonly ------

Back 70

Affect the bronchial tubes and lungs

Front 71

18. The tuberculin skin test detects whether a person ------

Back 71

Has been exposed to tubercle bacilli

Front 72

19. In developing nations, world health officials report more deaths from this disease than any other infectious disease. What is it?

Back 72

Tuberculosis

Front 73

20. Vaccines are currently available against bacterial diseases except -----

Back 73

Chlamydial pneumonia

Front 74

21. All of the following are symptoms of lethal pneumonia except ------

Back 74

Increase in the elimination of carbon dioxide

Front 75

22. Penicillin is useless for the treatment of primary atypical pneumonia because the causative organisms ------

Back 75

Have no cell wall

Front 76

23. To perform the cold agglutinin screening test, cold red blood cells are combined with ------ from the patient

Back 76

A serum sample

Front 77

24. All of the following characteristics apply to the agent of primary atypical pneumonia except ------

Back 77

It is an extremely large bacterium

Front 78

25. A pleomorphic organism with no cell wall that causes a type of pneumonia is -----

Back 78

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Front 79

26. What is not a name for the organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia?

Back 79

Pneumococcus

Front 80

27. Cases of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to bacteria that ------

Back 80

Accumulate in standing water

Front 81

28. What statement describes Q fever?

Back 81

It is a rickettsial disease associated with livestock animals

Front 82

29. All of the following are possible methods of transmission for Q fever except ------

Back 82

Being bitten by a tick

Front 83

30. Cases of psittacosis may be acquired by ------

Back 83

Contact with infected parrots or parakeets

Front 84

31. Psittacosis is so named because -----

Back 84

It affects the psittacine family of birds

Front 85

32. Several bacterial diseases have symptoms similar to those of viral rickettisal, and chlamydial diseases. A bacterial disease similar to Q fever, psittacosis, and viral pneumonia is ------

Back 85

Pneumococcal pneumonia

Front 86

35. ------ are relatively large mucus particles that travel less than one meter

Back 86

Respiratory droplets

Front 87

36. ------ is a general term that refers to a disease that progresses gradually and often asymptomatically.

Back 87

Insidious

Front 88

37. ------ refers to pain in the muscles or muscle groups

Back 88

Myalgia

Front 89

38. A disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans is called a ------

Back 89

Zoonotic disease

Front 90

1. ------ are illnesses in which bacterial toxins are ingested with food and water

Back 90

Intoxications

Front 91

2. Intoxications are illnesses in which ------ are ingested with food and water

Back 91

Bacterial toxins

Front 92

3. ------ are illnesses in which live bacterial pathogens are ingested and grow in the body

Back 92

Infections

Front 93

4. Infections are illnesses in which ------ are ingested and grow in the body

Back 93

Live bacterial pathogens

Front 94

6. ------ is the time between consumption of contaminated material and the appearance of symptoms

Back 94

Incubation period

Front 95

7. ------ such as age or sanitary conditions, can make individuals more or less prone to food and waterborne illnesses.

Back 95

Demographics

Front 96

8. ------ is the number of organisms consumed to give rise to symptoms.

Back 96

Infectious dose

Front 97

9. Describe 2 ways in which food and water can become contaminated

Back 97

1)Fruits and vegetables can be washed in contaminated water

2) Meat can be infected during improper slaughter procedure

Front 98

10. Name 2 locations in the kitchen where cross-contamination of foods can occur.

Back 98

1)Knife

2) Cutting board

Front 99

11. How can contamination of public water sources, like swimming pools occur?

Back 99

Defecation of infected individuals

Front 100

12. Intoxication usually has a brief incubation period but a long duration

Back 100

False

Front 101

13. Name 2 of the 3 bacterial species that secrete exotoxins, which can cause life threatening diseases.

Back 101

1) Clostridium botulinum

2) Clostridium perfringens

Front 102

14. What is the type of exotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum?

Back 102

Neurotoxin

Front 103

15. ------ causes botulism

Back 103

Clostridium botulinum

Front 104

16. ------ is the most dangerous of all foodborne intoxications

Back 104

Botulism

Front 105

17. Botulism can be treated successfully with antibiotics

Back 105

False

Front 106

18. Most outbreaks of ------ are related to home-canned foods or from foods eaten cold

Back 106

Clostridium botulinum

Front 107

19. Infant botulism, also known as ----, frequently occurs when an infant is fed ------

Back 107

Floppy baby syndrome, honey

Front 108

20. Some cases of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome have been linked to ------

Back 108

Infant botulism

Front 109

21. Name 2 conditions that botulinum toxin can treat.

Back 109

1) Facial wrinkles

2) Hyperhidrosis

Front 110

22. A(n) ------ is a general term for a toxin that takes effect in the intestines.

Back 110

Enterotoxin

Front 111

23. ------ food poisoning often occurs when protein rich foods are consumed, and with ham in particular because the bacteria are salt tolerant.

Back 111

Staphylococcal

Front 112

24. ------ is the second most reported of all types of foodbornes illnesses.

Back 112

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 113

25. The key reservoir of Staphylococcus aureus is the ------

Back 113

Human nose

Front 114

26. The most common mode of transmission of Staphyloccus aureus is via ------

Back 114

Boils or abscesses on a food handler’s skin

Front 115

27, Heating Staphylococcus aureus toxins at 100C for 30 mins will not denature them

Back 115

True

Front 116

28. A guy walks into an emergency room at midnight complaining of food poisoning. He says that he ate a weird tasting sandwich for lunch that day. What is he likely infected with?

Back 116

Clostridium perfringens

Front 117

29. ------ is caused by Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi

Back 117

Typoid fever

Front 118

30. Name 2 things that transmit Salmonella typhi

Back 118

1) Fingers

2) Flies

Front 119

31. Infections have shorted incubation periods than intoxications because the bacteria need to establish themselves.

Back 119

False

Front 120

32. A patient is diagnosed with Salmonella typhi and begins showing rose spots on the abdomen. What are the rose spots indicative of?

Back 120

Blood hemorrhage

Front 121

33. Gastroenteritis caused by salmonellosis requires a large infectious dose.

Back 121

True

Front 122

34. Why do cases of salmonellosis peak at Easter time?

Back 122

People give chicks as gifts and they may carry salmonella

Front 123

35. Shigellosis, also known as ------, occurs where sanitary conditions are lacking

Back 123

Bacterial dysentery

Front 124

36. In the US, shigellosis is primarily caused by ------

Back 124

Shigella sonnei

Front 125

37. People who have shigellosis can recover and become carriers for six months or more

Back 125

False

Front 126

38. Cholera is caused by -----

Back 126

Vibrio cholerae

Front 127

39. Vibrio cholerae is susceptible to stomach acid, but high numbers of them can survive and colonize the intestines.

Back 127

True

Front 128

40. How do you contract cholera?

Back 128

Contaminated water

Front 129

41. ------ causes unrelenting loss of fluid and eletrolytes through diarrhea

Back 129

Cholera toxin

Front 130

42. If cholera is left untreated, fluid loss thickens the blood, leading to ------

Back 130

Shock and coma

Front 131

43. Antibiotics and restoration of water and electrolyte balance are effective in treating cholera

Back 131

True

Front 132

44. ------ are the effects of an infection or disease experience by a patient

Back 132

Symptoms

Front 133

45. ------ refers to the lack of adequate immune response resulting from disease, exposure to radiation, or treatment with immunsuppressive drugs

Back 133

Immunocompromised

Front 134

46. ------ is the study of the causes or origins of disease

Back 134

Etiology

Front 135

48. ------ are illnesses in which bacterial toxins are ingested in food or water

Back 135

Intoxications

Front 136

50. Of all food-borne intoxications in humans, none is more dangerous than ------

Back 136

Botulism

Front 137

51. A ------ is a substance that damages, destroys, or impairs the functioning of nervous tissue.

Back 137

Neurotoxin

Front 138

52. A ------ is a collection of symptoms.

Back 138

Syndrome

Front 139

53. A ------ is the natural host or habitat of a pathogen

Back 139

Reservoir

Front 140

54. ------ are closely related groups of microorganism or structures distinguished by a specific set of antigens, much like subspecies of animals

Back 140

Serotypes

Front 141

55. ------ is a syndrome manifested by waves of intense abdominal cramps and frequent passage of small volume, blood mucoid stools

Back 141

Dysentery

Front 142

56. ------ is a condition in which there is yellowing of the whites of the eyes, skin, and mucous membranes caused by bile pigment in the blood

Back 142

Jaundice

Front 143

58. Ms. Mallon, infamously known as ------ knowingly exposed numerous families and hospital patients with Salmonella enterica Typhi when she served as a cook and refused treatment for her infection.

Back 143

Typoid Mary

Front 144

59. ------ is normally found in the human intestine, but certain serotypes are pathogenic

Back 144

Escherichia coli

Front 145

60. Last week your friend returned from a tropical vacation out of the country and is now complaining of diarrhea. You suggest that he get checked for ------ E. coli.

Back 145

Enterotoxigenic

Front 146

61. ------ E. coli causes diarrhea in infants, particularly where sanitation is lacking.

Back 146

Enterophatogenic

Front 147

62. You are visiting a friend and they prepare you a delicious meal of unpasteurized milk, juice, sprouts, lettuce, and salami. A few days later you realize you may be infected with E.coli because you are suffering from hemorrhagic ------

Back 147

Colitis

Front 148

63. ------ causes gastric ulcers

Back 148

Helicobacter pylori

Front 149

64. Half of the world’s population is infected with H.pylori

Back 149

True

Front 150

65. A non-invasive ----- is used to detect the presence of H.pylori

Back 150

Urea Breath Test

Front 151

66. ------ is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis in the US

Back 151

Campylobacter jejuni

Front 152

67. Guillain Barre syndrome is a rare ------ disease that may develop from a campylobacter infection

Back 152

Nervous system

Front 153

68. Listeriosis is not transmissible from person to person

Back 153

True

Front 154

69. A contaminated sandwick made of cold cuts and soft cheeses may cause you to get ------

Back 154

Listeriosis

Front 155

70. Listeriosis is caused by ------

Back 155

Listeria monocytogenes

Front 156

71. ------- is a blood disease involving high numbers of infected monocytes

Back 156

Septicemia

Front 157

72. ------- species can cause flu like symptoms in people who work with large ruminant animals

Back 157

Brucella

Front 158

73. Brucellosis is also called ------ because of a specific fever pattern

Back 158

Undulat fever

Front 159

74. ------ is transmitted by oysters and clams and can caused a deadly systemic infection with necrotic skin lesions and cellulitis

Back 159

Vibrio vulnificus

Front 160

75. ------ is a diffuse inflammation of the connective tissues of the skin

Back 160

Cellulitis

Front 161

76. Bacillus cereus can cause diarrhea or vomiting, and infections usually occur form eating contaminated cooked ------

Back 161

Grains

Front 162

77. In 1990, there was an outbreak of ------ enterocolitica in Georgia linked to raw chitterlings (pork intestines)

Back 162

Yersinia

Front 163

1. ------ are animals having jointed appendages and segmented bodies like ticks, lice, fleas, mosquitos that transmit disease.

Back 163

Arthropods

Front 164

2. Bacteria in soil have to withstand environmental extremes so they often form ----

Back 164

Endospores

Front 165

3. ------ causes anthrax

Back 165

Bacillus anthracis

Front 166

4. Anthrax is primarily endemic to large, domestic herbivores like cattle, sheep, and goats

Back 166

True

Front 167

5. Animals ingest anthrax endospores during grazing and once inside the animal, the spores become active ------- cells

Back 167

Vegetative

Front 168

6. ------ anthrax occurs in people who work with animal hides and wool

Back 168

Inhalation

Front 169

7. ------ anthrax occurs through the consumption of contaminated, undercooked meat and has up to 60% mortality rate

Back 169

Intestinal

Front 170

8. ----- anthrax accounts for 95% of all anthrax infections occurs through the contact of skin abrasions with spore contaminated animal products.

Back 170

Cutaneous

Front 171

9. Tetanus is caused by ------

Back 171

Clostridium tetani

Front 172

10. Tetanospasmin inhibits compounds needed to inhibit ------

Back 172

Muscle contraction

Front 173

11. Tetanus is one of the least dangerous human diseases

Back 173

False

Front 174

12. Trismus =
Risus sardonicus =
Opisthotonus =

Back 174

Lockjaw
Fixed smile
Muscle spasms causing arching of the back

Front 175

13. Endospores from Clostridium perfringens enter the body from contaminated dirt through a severe open wound and cause ------

Back 175

Gas gangrene

Front 176

14. In the condition gas gangrene, large amounts of gas accumulate under the -----, causing a crackling sound

Back 176

Skin

Front 177

15. Leptospira interrognas colonize the ----- of infected animals

Back 177

Kidney

Front 178

16. Leptospira interrogans is a bacillus.

Back 178

False

Front 179

17. Patients with tetanus can experience violent deaths due to ------ and seizures in the diaphragm and rib cage

Back 179

Spasmodic Inhalation

Front 180

18. Gas gangrene, also known as -----, causes massive tissue damage when blood flow ceases to a part of the body.

Back 180

Myonecrosis

Front 181

19. Name 2 treatments for gas gangrene

Back 181

1) Amputation

2) Antibiotics

Front 182

20. The first phase of leptospirosis involves flu like symptoms and -------

Back 182

Conjunctivitis

Front 183

21. The mortality rate for leptospirosis is high

Back 183

False

Front 184

22. In leptospirosis, ------ form when bacteria localize in the lymph nodes and hemorrhaging occurs.

Back 184

Buboes

Front 185

23. Name one disease that can result when Yersinia pestis bacilli spread to the bloodstream from the lymph nodes

Back 185

Septicemic plague

Front 186

24. Septicemic cases of plague can progress to the lungs and cause ------ plague

Back 186

Pneumonic

Front 187

25. When plague is detected early, antibiotics can be used to effectively treat it

Back 187

True

Front 188

26. ------ tularensis, an extremely virulent bacillus, causes tularemia

Back 188

Francisella

Front 189

27. Ever since you got a great job taking care of rabbits, you have been showing signs of respiratory illness, swollen lymph nodes, and pain under the breastbone. You believe you must be suffering from ------ tularemia

Back 189

Inhalation

Front 190

28. ------ is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi.

Back 190

Lyme Disease

Front 191

30. The early localized stage of Lyme disease involves a slowly expanding red rash that resembles a bull’s eye, also known as erythema ------

Back 191

Migrans

Front 192

31. The early disseminated stage of Lyme disease begins days after a tick bite.

Back 192

False

Front 193

32. If left untreated, the late stage of Lyme disease occurs months to years later and involves chronic ------

Back 193

Arthritis

Front 194

33. There is a Lyme disease vaccine available for dogs and cats.

Back 194

False

Front 195

34. ------, carried by ticks and lice, causes infected individuals to go through periods of fever and chills interspersed with recovery.

Back 195

Relapsing fever

Front 196

35. Endemic relapsing fever is transmitted by Ornithodoros ticks that cohabitate with -------

Back 196

Rodents

Front 197

36. Epidemic relapsing fever is caused by ------ recurrentis

Back 197

Borrelia

Front 198

37. Epidemic relapsing fever is an infection that occurs when a ------ is crushed into its bite wound

Back 198

Body louse

Front 199

38. Rickettsial infections are transmitted by ------

Back 199

Arthtropods

Front 200

39. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by ------

Back 200

Rickettsia rickettsii

Front 201

40. A Rocky Mountain spotted fever infection is characterized by a skin rash that reflects damage to small blood vessels, and it can progress to a ------ rash

Back 201

Maculopapular

Front 202

41. Epidemic typhus is a deadly disease transmitted by the feces of ------ that flourish when sanitation and hygiene is poor

Back 202

Body lice

Front 203

42. In epidemic typhus, symptoms can include delirium.

Back 203

True

Front 204

43. Name one specific disease caused by Rickettsia typhi.

Back 204

Mexican Typhus

Front 205

44. Rickettsia typhi is carried by oriental rat fleas that feed on ----- and deposit the organism into the wound.

Back 205

Human skin

Front 206

46. Ticks, lice, fleas, and mosquitoes are ----- animals that have jointed appendages and segmented bodies and transmit disease among animals and humans

Back 206

Arthropods

Front 207

47. A ------ is a raised itchy bump that resembles an insect bite

Back 207

Papule

Front 208

48. A pustule is a ------ containing pus

Back 208

Papule

Front 209

49. When a wound is ------, it refers to the removal of dead, damaged, or infected tissue

Back 209

Debrided

Front 210

50. ------ is an inflammation of the conjunctiva of the eye.

Back 210

Conjunctivitis

Front 211

51. ------ refers to the growth of bacterial cells in the blood

Back 211

Septicemia

Front 212

52. A ------ lesion is a rash in which pink spots fuse together into a broad base that slopes from a raised center

Back 212

Maculopapular

Front 213

53. You are working for the Peace Corp in the scrublands of Asia and the SW Pacific, but you suddenly come down with fever and a rash. You think you may be suffering from a disease called ------

Back 213

Scrub typhus

Front 214

54. Brill-Zinsser disease appears to be a relapse of ------ typhus.

Back 214

Epidemic

Front 215

55. ----- is also known as tsutsugamushi fever

Back 215

Scrub typhus

Front 216

56. During WWI, about 1 million soldiers were infected by body lice with the disease ------ fever.

Back 216

Trench

Front 217

57. Symptoms of Ehrlichial infections which cause lower WBC counts are similar to Lyme disease except that -----

Back 217

They come and go more quickly

Front 218

58. Human ------ ehrlichiosis is caused by Ehrlichia chaffeensis

Back 218

Monocytic

Front 219

59. Human monocytic ehrlichiosis is transmitted by the ------ tick

Back 219

Lone Star

Front 220

60. Human ------ehrlichiosis is caused by Ehrlichia phagocytophila

Back 220

Granulocytic

Front 221

62. Human granulocytic ehrlichiosis is transmitted by which kinds of 2 ticks?

Back 221

1) Dog ticks
2) Deer ticks

Front 222

29. How do ticks transmit Lyme Disease?

Back 222

By defecating into the bite wound

Front 223

1. Syphilis is caused by ------ palladium

Back 223

Treponema

Front 224

2. ------- are the only host for syphilis

Back 224

Humans

Front 225

3. Primary syphilis is characterized by a ------ where the bacteria entered the body

Back 225

Chancre

Front 226

4. Relapses of secondary syphilis can occur during a ------ stage

Back 226

Chronic latent

Front 227

5. In tertiary syphilis, name one things gummas can cause.

Back 227

Insanity

Front 228

6. Congenital syphilis can lead to birth defects like the condition ------ which includes deafness, impaired vision and notched peg shaped teeth

Back 228

Hutchinson's triad

Front 229

7. Gonorrhea is commonly known as -------

Back 229

The Clap

Front 230

8. Gonorrhea is caused by ------ gonorrhoeae

Back 230

Neisseria

Front 231

9. Name 2 parts of the body, aside from the reproductive organs, that Gonorrhea can affect

Back 231

1) Eyes

2) Rectum

Front 232

10. Infants can contact gonococcal ------ while passing through the birth canal

Back 232

Ophthalmia

Front 233

11. Name one condition that Gonorrhea can cause in females if it spreads to the fallopian tubes

Back 233

Ectopic pregnancy

Front 234

12. PID stands for ------

Back 234

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

Front 235

13. The singular for bacteria is ------

Back 235

Bacterium

Front 236

14. Is bacteria singular or plural?

Back 236

Plural

Front 237

15. Some females who have Gonorrhea are asymptomatic

Back 237

True

Front 238

16. Gonorrhea is a serious condition in males but it cannot cause infertility

Back 238

False

Front 239

17. The common name for Chlamydial urethritis is ------

Back 239

Chlamydia

Front 240

18. Chlamydia is caused by Chlamydial ------

Back 240

trachomatis

Front 241

19. The organism that causes Chlamydia is a(n) ------ parasite

Back 241

Obligate energy

Front 242

20. Why is the nickname for Chlamydia the Silent Disease?

Back 242

85-90% of infected individual are asymptomatic

Front 243

21. The ------ body is the infectious phase of Chlamydia

Back 243

Elementary

Front 244

22. The ------ body is the noninfectious phase of Chlamydia

Back 244

Reticulate

Front 245

23. Newborns can contract chlamydial ophthalmia or chlamydial ------ during delivery

Back 245

Pneumonia

Front 246

24. Chancroid is caused by Haemophilus -------

Back 246

Ducreyi

Front 247

25. Chancroid causes ------

Back 247

Genital ulcers

Front 248

26. Ureaplasmal ------ causes symptoms that are similar to those of gonorrhea and Chlamydia but are often milder

Back 248

Urethritis

Front 249

27. The microbe Ureaplasma urealyticum can colonize the ------ during pregnancy, causing miscarriage or premature birth

Back 249

Placenta

Front 250

28. LGV stands for Lymphogranuloma ------

Back 250

Verenium

Front 251

29. ------inguinale is caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

Back 251

Granuloma

Front 252

30. Tissue samples from lesions produced by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis reveal masses of bacterial cells called ------ bodies within WBC

Back 252

Donovan

Front 253

31. ------ is a general term of various mild infections of the vagina or vulva

Back 253

Vaginitis

Front 254

33. ------ vaginosis is the most common form of vaginitis

Back 254

Bacterial

Front 255

34. Mycoplasmal urethritis is caused by Mycoplasma ------

Back 255

Hominis

Front 256

35. Hansen disease is also known commonly as ------

Back 256

Leprosy

Front 257

36. Leprosy is caused by a(n) ------ parasite

Back 257

Obligate intracellular

Front 258

37. Leprosy is caused by ------ leprae

Back 258

Mycobacterium

Front 259

38. About 45% of the world’s population is immune to leprosy

Back 259

False

Front 260

39. Leprosy is spread from person to person through ------

Back 260

Nasal secretions

Front 261

32. ------- vaginalis causes bacterial vaginosis

Back 261

Gardnerella

Front 262

40. Name one physical result of having leprosy

Back 262

Loss of facial features

Front 263

41. The immune system does not react against an infection with the organism that causes Leprosy

Back 263

True

Front 264

42. ------- is an infection at the base of a hair follicle

Back 264

Folliculitis

Front 265

45. ------ is a skin infection that is common in children and involves oozing blisters in the epidermis

Back 265

Impetigo

Front 266

47. If your hands are red, wrinkled, and tender, and the skin is peeling, you are likely suffering from ------ syndrome

Back 266

Scalded skin

Front 267

48. If you are a woman and you think you may have forgotten to remove a very important female hygiene item from your nether regions, you risk developing ------ syndrome

Back 267

Toxic shock

Front 268

50. A(n) ------ occurs when a fertilized egg develops outside the womb, often in fallopian tube

Back 268

Ectopic pregnancy

Front 269

49. Chlamydia trachomatis can be transmitted by flies

Back 269

True

Front 270

51. ------ is an inflammation and swelling of the cornea

Back 270

Keratitis

Front 271

52. A(n) ------ is a narrow zone of redness that surrounds a papule in a chancroid infection

Back 271

Erythema

Front 272

53. ------ is an inflammation of the membrane lining the abdomen

Back 272

Peritonitis

Front 273

54. Among health agencies, WHO stands for ------

Back 273

World Health Organization

Front 274

55. Among health agencies, CDC stands for ------

Back 274

Centers for Disease Control

Front 275

56. ------ are microbes that are resistant to a wide variety of antibiotics

Back 275

Superbugs

Front 276

57. A(n) ------ is a circumscribed pus-filled lesion

Back 276

Abscess

Front 277

58. A(n) ------ is a boil, a warm painful abscess below the skin surface

Back 277

Furnuncle

Front 278

59. An) ------ is a group of connected deep abscesses.

Back 278

Carbuncle

Front 279

46. ------ is a disease of the eyes and is the world’s leading cause of preventable blindness

Back 279

Trachoma

Front 280

60.What is the difference between a furuncle and carbuncle?

Back 280

A furuncle is an abscess and a carbuncle is a group of connected deep abscesses

Front 281

61. ------ is the term for a disease characterized by sudden fever and circulatory collapse, and was not well known until 1980 when outbreaks occurred in women who used a particular brand of highly absorbent tampons

Back 281

Toxic shock syndrome

Front 282

62. About 30% of ------ that live along the Gulf Coast of the US are carriers of leprosy

Back 282

Armadillos

Front 283

63. If you have an infection of Chlamydia trachomatis, your upper eyelid can turn in, causing abrasions on your ------ with your eyelashes

Back 283

Cornea

Front 284

64. ------ is often caused by Haemophilus aegyptus

Back 284

Bacterial conjunctivitis

Front 285

65. ------ is the world’s leading cause of preventable blindness

Back 285

Trachoma

Front 286

66. Haemophilus aegyptius causes a condition commonly known as ------

Back 286

Pink eye

Front 287

67. Pink eye can be transmitted via air droplets

Back 287

True

Front 288

68. The common name for yaws is -------

Back 288

Frambesia

Front 289

69. Yaws is caused by Treponema ------

Back 289

Pertenue

Front 290

70. Proliferation of pathogenic ------ bacteria is usually suppressed by natural host resistance

Back 290

Endogenous

Front 291

71. Over use of ------ can eliminate intestinal bacterial species that keep pathogens in check.

Back 291

Antibiotics

Front 292

72. You have sustained an intestinal injury and are now suffering from abdominal abscesses. You may be infected with Bacteroids ------

Back 292

Fragilis

Front 293

73. Infection by Clostridium difficile causes pseudomembranous ------

Back 293

Colitis

Front 294

75. Nocardia asteroids causes ------ when inhaled

Back 294

Pneumonia

Front 295

76. Actinomyces israelli infects tissues following -------

Back 295

Trauma

Front 296

77. Pasteurella multocida is common in the pharynx of ------ and can be transmitted to humans via a bite

Back 296

Dogs and cats

Front 297

78. Cat-scratch disease is associated with the microbe ------ henselae

Back 297

Bartonella

Front 298

79. Your cat licked your arm yesterday where you have a small open wound. You fear you may develop ------ disease.

Back 298

Cat-scratch

Front 299

80. You are working on a super cool research project in the US studying rats when one of your subjects playfully bites you. You may end up developing a condtion called ------

Back 299

Rat-bite fever

Front 300

81. Your colleague is working on a super cool research project in Asia studying rats when their subjects playfully bites them. They may become infected with ----- minus

Back 300

Spirillum

Front 301

82. At least 600 species of bacteria inhabit the human mouth

Back 301

True

Front 302

83. Oral biofilms contain salivary ------, food debirs, and bacterial cells and products

Back 302

Proteins

Front 303

84. Most oral bacteria in biofilms are aerobic

Back 303

False

Front 304

85. Dental caries is commonly known as ------

Back 304

Tooth decay

Front 305

86. Name 2 things that cause dental caries.

Back 305

1) Dietary carbohydrates

2) Acidogenic bacteria

Front 306

87. A major cause of dental caries is ------- mutans

Back 306

Streptococcus

Front 307

88. Fusospirochetal disease is commonly known as ------ disease

Back 307

Periodontal

Front 308

89. Name one result of infection with Fusospirochetal disease

Back 308

Loosened or lost teeth

Front 309

90. Urinary tract infections can occur in the urethra, bladder, and/or kidneys

Back 309

True

Front 310

91. UTI stands for ------

Back 310

Urinary tract infection

Front 311

92. Back pain is a symptom of UTI

Back 311

True

Front 312

93. Pyelonephritis is an infection of the ------

Back 312

Kidneys

Front 313

95. Cyclists and other athletes who wear tight fitting clothing are more likely to develop ------

Back 313

Urinary tract infections

Front 314

96. A nosocomial infection is one that is contracted at ------

Back 314

Healthcare facility

Front 315

97. Why are nosocomial infections common?

Back 315

Many patients are already immune compromised when they enter the healthcare facility, making them more susceptible

Front 316

98. Most nosocomial diseases are caused by opportunistic organisms that patients already have

Back 316

True

Front 317

99. ------ between patient exams is critical in preventing nosocomial infections

Back 317

Washing your hands

Front 318

1. Who was the one early natural philosopher who coined the name cella for the empty cork spaces that became the word we use today, cells?

Back 318

Robert Hooke

Front 319

2. Leeuwenhoek was the first person to -----

Back 319

Describe bacteria

Front 320

3. Francisco Redi is famous for discovering one of the first experiments over the debate regarding spontaneous generation. What was his experiment?

Back 320

He covered some jars of meat with gauze and left other open.

Front 321

4. What is an idea of spontaneous generation?

Back 321

Sick people give rise to microorganism in their body

Front 322

5. Semmelweiss showed that the transmission of disease could be interrupted by ---

Back 322

Washing hands in chlorine water

Front 323

6. In 1854, John Snow determined that contaminated water transmits ----.

Back 323

Cholera

Front 324

7. John Snow traced the source of an 1854 outbreak of cholera to ----------

Back 324

Contaminated municipal water supply

Front 325

8. Pasteur’s studies of fermentation was critical to the development of microbiology because -----

Back 325

It showed that microorganisms bring about chemical changes.

Front 326

9. Pasteur’s studies proved that grape juice was a fermentation product of -----.

Back 326

Yeasts

Front 327

10. Pasteur first suggested that bacteria could cause disease in humans by showing that bacteria could -----

Back 327

Sour wine

Front 328

11. Pasteur’s observations that protozoa were related to the silkworm disease strengthened his belief in the ------

Back 328

Germ theory of disease

Front 329

12. What did Lister use to clean wounds and surgical instruments?

Back 329

Carbolic acid

Front 330

13. Koch’s postulates provided guidelines for -----

Back 330

Relating certain microorganisms with certain diseases.

Front 331

14. Koch was responsible for thorough observations on the organisms of ---------

Back 331

Tuberculosis and anthrax

Front 332

16. The accomplishments of Koch include the development of the rabies vaccine.

Back 332

False

Front 333

17. Chickenpox is an emerging disease.

Back 333

False

Front 334

18. Bacteria are prokaryotes.

Back 334

True

Front 335

19. The antibiotic penicillin is produced by ----

Back 335

A fungus

Front 336

20. What makes this the third golden age of microbiology?

Back 336

The use of biotechnology to manipulate microbes for our benefit

Front 337

21. The ------ golden age was a discovery of which microbes cause which diseases

The ------ golden age was finding antimicrobials to control those infections.

The ------ golden age was finding organisms that weren’t known before and finding that more than one disease can be caused by one organism

Back 337

First
Second
Third

Front 338

23. What is an example of bioterrorism?

Back 338

The intentional use of biological agents to create fear or inflict disease or death on a large population

Front 339

24. Biofilms represent complex communities of microorganisms.

Back 339

True

Front 340

25. Curing infectious diseases is a role of bioremediation.

Back 340

False

Front 341

26. A ----- is any microorganism capable of causing disease

Back 341

Germ

Front 342

27. A(n) ------- vaccine is one that contains a pathogen that is reduced or weakened in its virulence.

Back 342

Attenuated

Front 343

28. ----- is the use of microorganisms to remove or decontaminate toxic materials in the environment.

Back 343

Bioremediation

Front 344

29. Semmelweiis found that women were dying during childbirth because medical students would go from working with ------- straight into the delivery room

Back 344

Cadavers

Front 345

30. The Third Golden Age of Microbiology is happening right now.

Back 345

True

Front 346

22. Pasteur was able to prepare a vaccine for rabies even though ------

Back 346

He couldn't see them

Front 347

15. The accomplishments of Koch include all of the following except for ------

Back 347

Development of a rabies vaccine

Front 348

1. Living things have a simple organization

Back 348

False

Front 349

2. One important ability that all cells must have to survive in maintaining a relatively stable internal environment.

Back 349

Homeostasis

Front 350

3. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ primarily with regard to the absence or presence of a ---------

Back 350

Nucleus

Front 351

4. What are characteristics of prokaryotes?

Back 351

1) They have ribosomes
2) Lack a nucleus
3) Have genes

Front 352

5. Prokaryotes reproduce by mitosis only.

Back 352

True

Front 353

6. What is not a function of the Golgi apparatus?

Back 353

Synthesis of proteins

Front 354

7. Prokaryotes go through the same kinds of energy reactions as eukaryotes, but without the double membrane organelles. Instead, they use ----------

Back 354

The cytosol and cell membranes

Front 355

8. How do bacterial cells control water balance?

Back 355

Water moves in and out by osmosis

Front 356

9. The binomial system of nomenclature for microorganisms uses the ---------

Back 356

Genus and species epithet

Front 357

11. In the scientific name Bacillus anthracis, the term Bacillus is the ----

Back 357

Genus name

Front 358

12. In the bacterial name Vibrio cholerae, the word cholerae represents the -------

Back 358

Species epithet

Front 359

13. Carolus Linnaeus was important to biology because of his work with classification of organisms in --------

Back 359

Systema Naturae and binomial nomenclature

Front 360

14. Starting with Linnaeus, a hierarchical system was established for cataloging different things, What did this mean at that time?

Back 360

Grouping species by shared and common characteristics

Front 361

15. What is the correct listing of a hierarchical system from large to small for bacteria.

Back 361

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

Front 362

16. In 1866, Ernst Haeckel, devised a three kingdom system to classify organisms. What was the third kingdom and what did it include?

Back 362

Protists: included bacteria, protozoa, algae and fungi

Front 363

17. In the five kingdom system of classification, which one is not one of the kingdom?

Back 363

Virus

Front 364

18. Bergey’s Manual of Systematic (or Determinative) Bacteriology may be used to --

Back 364

Classify an unknown organism

Front 365

19. Carl Woese proposed a new classification system of three domains. What are they?

Back 365

1) Archaea
2) Bacteria
3) Eukarya

Front 366

20. What organisms are included in Bergey’s Manual of Systemic Bacteriology

Back 366

Bacteria

Front 367

21. What tests are used to help identify bacteria today?

Back 367

1) Physical characterisitics
2) Biochemical tests
3) Serological tests

Front 368

22. The smallest unit of size is ---------

Back 368

Nanometer

Front 369

23. Viruses to bacteria to protozoa exhibit a sequence of increasing size.

Back 369

True

Front 370

24. Yeasts are smaller than traditional bacteria

Back 370

False

Front 371

24. Yeasts are smaller than traditional bacteria

Back 371

False

Front 372

25. What group is not resolved with a light microscope?

Back 372

Viruses

Front 373

26. An ocular lens with a magnification of 10x and an objective lens of 40x has a total magnification of ----

Back 373

400x

Front 374

27. At the conclusion of the negative stain technique, one can observe ---------

Back 374

Clear bacteria on a dark background

Front 375

28. What stain is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis, with its thick waxy walls?

Back 375

Acid Fast stain

Front 376

29. Dark-field microscopy is valuable for observing ----------

Back 376

Live microorganisms

Front 377

30. What bacterial organisms is capable of photosynthesis

Back 377

Cyanobacteria

Front 378

31. Bacteria and archaea are both classified as ----------, major group of organisms that have no nucleus or membrane bound organelles in the cytoplasm

Back 378

Prokaryotes

Front 379

32. Humans are in the kingdom -------

Back 379

Animalia

Front 380

33. --------- & --------- transport are the 2 functions of the endoplasmic reticulum

Back 380

1) Lipid
2) Protein

Front 381

34. Proteins are made by -----

Back 381

Ribosomes

Front 382

35. ------- are chemical substances that are poisonous.

Back 382

Toxins

Front 383

36. ------- is the process by which a substance moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

Back 383

Diffusion

Front 384

1. What is not true about the Archaea?

Back 384

They are not common in human pathogens

Front 385

3. What characteristic is similar for both Archaea and Eukarya?

Back 385

Presence of DNA

Front 386

4 Bacteria does not participate in sexual reproduction.

Back 386

True

Front 387

5. This group of bacteria are gram negative and includes most human pathogens.

Back 387

Proteobacteria

Front 388

6. In the endosymbiotic theory, it is likely that the mitochondria of the Eukarya came from an ancestor of this clade. What is it?

Back 388

Protebacteria

Front 389

7. Rickettsiae are generally transmitted ------

Back 389

Arthropods

Front 390

8. This is a group of photosynthesizing prokaryotes called cyanobacteria. What domain do they belong to?

Back 390

Bacteria

Front 391

9. Thermophiles need --------- to grow.

Back 391

High temperatures

Front 392

10. An organism that grows at 75 degrees C is classified as a -----

Back 392

Hyperthermophile

Front 393

11. An acidophile would grow best at a pH of ------

Back 393

2

Front 394

12. Extreme halophiles live in environments that have high levels of -------

Back 394

Salt

Front 395

13. The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus appears microscopically as -----

Back 395

Grape like clusters of spheres

Front 396

14. What is not a variation of cocci arrangement?

Back 396

Spirillum

Front 397

15. A bacterial arrangement called a sarcina has which of the following morphological shapes?

Back 397

Spheres in packets of eight

Front 398

16. Spherical organisms arranged in irregular groups of cells that resemble bunches of grapes are referred to as ------

Back 398

Staphylococci

Front 399

17. An example of a bacillus or rod shaped bacterium is -----

Back 399

Salmonella typhi

Front 400

18. An example of a coccus in pairs is a -----

Back 400

Diplococcus

Front 401

19. An example of spiral bacteria that can be curved, helical or spiral shaped is -----

Back 401

Vibrio cholerae

Front 402

20. An organism having fimbriae has the advantage over one that lacks fimbriae because it can ------

Back 402

Attach to specific surfaces

Front 403

21. Fimbriae protrude from the surface of most ------

Back 403

Gram negative bacteria

Front 404

22. All apply to pili except -------

Back 404

They are found primarily in gram positive bacteria

Front 405

23. What structure is used by some bacteria to exchange genetic information through conjugation?

Back 405

Pili

Front 406

24. What are characteristics of the bacterial flagellum?

Back 406

1) It is composed of flagellin
2) It has a hook-like insertion to a basal body in the cell wall
3) Counterclockwise rotation moves bacteria forward

Front 407

25. What does not apply to the bacterial glycocalyx?

Back 407

It is enclosed by the cell wall

Front 408

26. A thin, loosely bound glycocalyx is referred to as a -----

Back 408

Slime layer

Front 409

27. Cell wall and cell membrane comprise part of the -----

Back 409

Cell envelope

Front 410

28. The cell wall contains a rigid macromolecule that is known as ------

Back 410

Peptidoglycan

Front 411

29. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is found in the ------

Back 411

Gram negative outer membrane

Front 412

30. Endotoxins are located in the ------

Back 412

Outer layer of the LPS

Front 413

31. Lysozyme and penicillin are similar in that both ------

Back 413

Act on the bacterial cell wall

Front 414

32. All of functions of the bacterial cell membrane except -------

Back 414

Lends rigidity to the cell wall

Front 415

33. Penicillin is an antibiotic that prevents ------

Back 415

Cell walls from being formed

Front 416

34. The peptidoglycan of a bacterium ------

Back 416

Are affected by penicillin if it is present

Front 417

35. The fluid mosaic model best describes -------

Back 417

The structure of the cell membrane

Front 418

36. What are components of the bacterial cytoplasm?

Back 418

1) Chromosome
2) Plasmid
3) Ribosome

Front 419

37. Small molecules of DNA that exist in bacteria as independent circular units are known as ------

Back 419

Plasmids

Front 420

38. Bacterial ribosomes are smaller than eukaryotic ribosomes, but they have the same function of ------

Back 420

Assembling protein

Front 421

39. Some aquatic and marine prokaryotes have an ability to float on the surface due to ------

Back 421

Gas vesicles that make them lighter

Front 422

40. A(n) ------ is a pathogen produced molecule or structure that allows the pathogen to invade or evade the immune system of the host and possibly cause disease.

Back 422

Virulence Factor

Front 423

41. ------ are protein structures on the surface of bacteria that used for attachment to surfaces

Back 423

Pili

Front 424

42. A(n) ------ is a poison released by bacteria that can activate the inflammatory response of the host, leading to high fever, shock, and organ failure.

Back 424

Endotoxin

Front 425

43. ------ are small molecules of nonessential DNA that may contain antibiotic resistance genes.

Back 425

Plasmids

Front 426

1. Viruses are nonliving agents composed of 1. ----- and 2. ------

Back 426

1) Nucleic Acid
2) Protein

Front 427

2. Viruses are small ------ parasites.

Back 427

Obligate intracellular

Front 428

3. Viruses lack the machinery for generating ------

Back 428

Energy

Front 429

4. Viruses often cause disease by ------

Back 429

Taking over a host cell's machinery for their own use

Front 430

5. The viral genome contains either DNA, but no RNA.

Back 430

False

Front 431

6. The ----- is the protein coat of a virus.

Back 431

Capsid

Front 432

7. The capsid of a virus is made up of ----- and gives the virus its shape.

Back 432

Capsomeres

Front 433

8. The capsid of a virus with its enclosed genome is called a ------

Back 433

Nucleocapsid

Front 434

9. What role do protein spikes play for a virus?

Back 434

They help the virus attach to and penetrate the host cell

Front 435

10. ------ viruses are composed only of a nucleocapsid.

Back 435

Naked

Front 436

11. A(n) ------ is a completely assembled, infectious virus outside its host cell.

Back 436

Virion

Front 437

12. A ----- refers to which organisms a virus can infect.

Back 437

Host range

Front 438

13. The host range for a virus depends on its ------ structure.

Back 438

Capsid

Front 439

14. ------ is the term used to describe the fact that many viruses infect certain cell or tissue types within the host.

Back 439

Tissue tropism

Front 440

15. T-even group ----- are virulent viruses that carry out a lytic cycle of infection.

Back 440

Bacteriophages

Front 441

16. T-even group bacteriophages are virulent viruses that carry out a ------ cycle of infection.

Back 441

Lytic

Front 442

17. A bacteriophage is a ------- that infects a bacterium.

Back 442

Virus

Front 443

20. The ------ cycle occurs when a bacteriophage inserts its DNA into the bacterial chromosome as a prophage.

Back 443

Lysogenic

Front 444

21. Animal viruses attach to host ----- via spikes on the capsid or envelope.

Back 444

Plasma membrane

Front 445

22. Since receptor sites vary from person to person, some people are more susceptible to a certain virus than others.

Back 445

True

Front 446

23. ------ is the separation of the viral capsid from the genome as it enters the host.

Back 446

Uncoating

Front 447

24. Some DNA viruses and retroviruses insert their genome into the host chromosome as a ------

Back 447

Provirus

Front 448

25. Retroviruses use ----- to transcribe their RNA to DNA.

Back 448

Reverse transcriptase

Front 449

26. Latent proviruses can still be attacked by the host body’s defenses.

Back 449

False

Front 450

27. Why don’t antibiotics work against viruses?

Back 450

Viruses lack the elements needed for antibiotics to interfere

Front 451

28. What is the role of interferons?

Back 451

To alert neighboring cells of a viral infection

Front 452

29. ------ prevent the spread of viral infections by binding to receptors on host cells, triggering them to produce antiviral proteins.

Back 452

Interferons

Front 453

30. ------ is an uncontrolled growth and spread of cells.

Back 453

Cancer

Front 454

31. A ----- is a clone of abnormal cells.

Back 454

Tumor

Front 455

32. Normally, the body surrounds a tumor with a capsule of connective tissue resulting in a ----- tumor.

Back 455

Benign

Front 456

33. If a tumor cells break free from a capsule and spread to other tissues of the body, it results in a ------ tumor.

Back 456

Malignant

Front 457

34. ------ occurs when tumor cells break free from a capsule and spread to other tissues of the body

Back 457

Metastasis

Front 458

35. WHO estimates 60-90% of human cancers are associated with ------.

Back 458

Carcinogens

Front 459

36. ----- virus is associated with cervical cancer.

Back 459

Human papilloma

Front 460

37. The ------ theory suggests that protoncogenes normally reside in the chromosomal DNA of a cell, but they can be transformed to oncogenes if they are exposed to radiation or carcinogens.

Back 460

Oncogene

Front 461

39. ----- are protooncogenes captures in the viral genome that reproduce with the virus.

Back 461

V-oncogenes

Front 462

40. ----- are tiny fragments of RNA that cause diseases in crop plants.

Back 462

Viroids

Front 463

42. Give one example of a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy.

Back 463

Mad Cow Disease

Front 464

1. Strike every year and causes most epidemics

Strikes every year but is not the most common

Causes mild respiratory illness but not epidemics

Back 464

Influenza A =
Influenza B =
Influenza C =

Front 465

2. Why do we need a new flu vaccine every year?

Back 465

A new strain evolves every year

Front 466

3. Which disease occurs as a result of an infection with the flu virus when the body damages its own peripheral nerve cells?

Back 466

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

Front 467

4. ------ is a disease that often occurs in children who take aspirin to treat pain and fever.

Back 467

Reye Syndrome

Front 468

5. ------ infections can cause the common cold and can induce the formation of inclusion bodies in host tissues.

Back 468

Adenovirus

Front 469

6. More than 100 different strains of the ------ can cause common colds.

Back 469

Rhinovirus

Front 470

7. Respiratory syncytial virus infects the bronchials and alveoli of the lungs, causing cells to fuse together into -----.

Back 470

Syncytia

Front 471

8. Parainfluenza infections are milder than influenza infections.

Back 471

True

Front 472

9. SARS is caused by a bacterium.

Back 472

False

Front 473

10. What does SARS stand for?

Back 473

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome

Front 474

11. ----- are believed to be the natural host of SARS.

Back 474

Bats

Front 475

12. HSV 1 =
HSV 2 =
VZV =
HHV 6 =
HHV 8 =

Back 475

Cold sores
Genital warts
Chickenpox
Roseola infantum
Kaposi sarcoma

Front 476

13. After a primary infection with HSV-1, the viruses become latent in which part of the body?

Back 476

Sensory ganglia

Front 477

14. A herpes infection of the eye that can cause scarring of the cornea and blindness is called ------.

Back 477

Herpes keratitis

Front 478

15. The most common complication associated with chickenpox is ------.

Back 478

Bacterial infection of the skin

Front 479

16. People who are infected with ----- can experience facial paralysis and severe “ice-pick” pains.

Back 479

Varicella zoster virus

Front 480

17. Postherpetic ----- is the persistence of shingles pain for years after the blisters have disappeared.

Back 480

Neuralgia

Front 481

18. Which virus do some researchers believe lies dormant for years and may be associated with multiple sclerosis later in life?

Back 481

Human Herpesvirus 6

Front 482

19. What are the red patches associated with measles called?

Back 482

Koplik spots

Front 483

20. The Epstein-Barr virus is oncogenic.

Back 483

True

Front 484

21. What is the common disease name for rubeola?

Back 484

Measles

Front 485

22. What is the common disease name for infectious parotitis?

Back 485

Mumps

Front 486

23. What is the common disease name for German measles?

Back 486

Rubella

Front 487

24. Infectious parotitis is characterized by enlarged jaw tissues caused by swollen ------.

Back 487

Salivary glands

Front 488

25. What is the common name of the disease called Erythema Infectiosum?

Back 488

Fifth Disease

Front 489

26. Common ------ are usually benign skin growths resulting from a specific strain of HPV.

Back 489

Warts

Front 490

27. Genital warts, also known as ------ are often transmitted through sexual contact.

Back 490

Condylomata

Front 491

28. Why is smallpox one of the most dangerous weapons of bioterrorism?

Back 491

Vaccinations against smallpox stopped in 1972, so many people are not immune and some still exists in labs around the world

Front 492

29. ------ is a viral disease that causes mildly-contagious, flesh toned, wart-like skin lesions that emit a milky substance.

Back 492

Molluscum contagiosum

Front 493

30. What do neuraminidase spikes on a flu virus do?

Back 493

Help the virion release from the host cell after replication and assembly

Front 494

31. What do the hemagglutin spikes on the flu virus do?

Back 494

Help the virion attach and penetrate the host cell

Front 495

1. An HIV test done during the first 3 months of infection is the most accurate.

Back 495

False

Front 496

2. What does AIDS stand for?

Back 496

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

Front 497

3. There are two types of HIV, and the second one progresses faster than the first.

Back 497

False

Front 498

4. What is the enzyme that the HIV genome is packaged with that allows it to transcribe its RNA into DNA?

Back 498

Reverse transcriptase

Front 499

6. Why are people who have HIV more likely to develop opportunistic infections?

Back 499

HIV attacks the T Cells that direct the activities in the immune system. If they die, then no one can direct the immune response

Front 500

7. HIV can infect and paralyze B lymphocytes.

Back 500

True

Front 501

8. ----- is the term used to describe when the immune system is activated against a virus, and the antibodies can be detected in the blood.

Back 501

Seroconversion

Front 502

9. Infected mothers can transmit HIV to their fetus or to the baby during birth or breastfeeding.

Back 502

True

Front 503

10. What happens during stage 1 of an HIV Infection?

Back 503

The person experiences flu like symptoms and seroconverts show antibodies in the blood

Front 504

11. What happens during stage 2 of an HIV infection, and how long does it last?

Back 504

The individual usually remains free of major disease and can las from 6-8 years

Front 505

12. What happens during Stage 3 of an HIV infection?

Back 505

The immune system loses its fight against HIV and HIV has progresses to AIDS

Front 506

13. An HIV test done during the first 3 months of infection is the most accurate.

Back 506

False

Front 507

14. What does HAART stand for?

Back 507

Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

Front 508

15. HAART is a cocktail of drugs that reduces the risk of ------ transmission and extends the life of patients by about 8 years.

Back 508

HIV

Front 509

16. Describe one reason why it is difficult to develop a vaccine against HIV.

Back 509

HIV strain continually mutates and recombines

Front 510

17. Infectious mononucleosis is a blood disease caused by the ------.

Back 510

Epstein Barr Virus

Front 511

18. After recovery from infectious mononucleosis, the individual remains a carrier for several months, all the while shedding the virus in their saliva.

Back 511

True

Front 512

19. Diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis involves observation of elevated lymphocyte levels, as well as damaged B cells, also known as ------.

Back 512

Downey cells

Front 513

20. What disease, caused by EBV, is prevalent in Africa and is characterized by a tumor of the jaw?

Back 513

Burkitt Lymphoma

Front 514

22.Global health problem
Primary reason for liver transplant
Accompanied by another hepatitis
Chronic liver disease

Back 514

Hepatits B =
Hepatitis C =
Hepatitis D =
Hepatitis G -

Front 515

23. ------- was the first human disease associated with a virus.

Back 515

Yellow fever

Front 516

24. A patient shows up in the emergency room complaining of nausea, uncontrollable hiccups, black vomit, jaundice, hemorrhaging of the gums, mouth, and nose, and appears to be suffering from delirium. What disease might he have?

Back 516

Yellow fever

Front 517

25. A person goes to the emergency room and is complaining of high fever and sharp pains and sensations like her bones are breaking. What disease might she have?

Back 517

Dengue Fever

Front 518

26: If you live in the southwestern US and you come into contact with the saliva, urine, or feces of an infected deer mouse, you may contract a virus known only as “Sin Nombre,” which causes what syndrome?

Back 518

Hantavirus Pulmonary syndrome

Front 519

28. ----- is a condition with symptoms similar to Dengue fever, but it is transmitted by insects of the genus Phlebotomus.

Back 519

Sandfly Fever

Front 520

29. ----- is a zoonotic disease with fruit bats as a possible reservoir, and it damages endothelial cells, causing massive internal bleeding hemorrhaging.

Back 520

Ebola Hemorrhagic fever

Front 521

30. A rodent handler goes to the emergency room complaining of high fever and exhaustion, and after doing some test, the doctor finds he has patchy blood-filled hemorrhagic lesions of the throat. What disease may this person have?

Back 521

Lassa fever

Front 522

31. Hepatitis A is a disease of the gastrointestinal tract.

Back 522

True

Front 523

32. Rotavirus infections can be deadly in children because they invade the liver

Back 523

False

Front 524

33. Infections with ------- are a common cause of nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults, and recent outbreaks of it have been seen on cruise ships.

Back 524

Norovirus

Front 525

34. ----- virus has the highest mortality rate of any human disease.

Back 525

Rabies

Front 526

35. What do people who are infected with rabies ultimately die from?

Back 526

Respiratory paralysis

Front 527

36. If a coyote approaches you with wide eyes, he’s drooling, and he appears to want to attack you for no good reason, what phase of rabies might he be suffering from?

Back 527

Furious rabies

Front 528

37. If a coyote approaches you in the parking lot tonight after this exam and he seems docile and friendly, and even a bit lethargic, what phase of rabies might he be suffering from?

Back 528

Dumb rabies

Front 529

38. ----- is a term used to describe an acute inflammation of the brain.

Back 529

Encephalitis

Front 530

39. ----- is an emerging disease in the Western hemisphere

Back 530

West Nile Fever

Front 531

1. How do fungi take up nutrients?

Back 531

Absorption

Front 532

2. What are 2 main groups of fungi?

Back 532

1) Mold
2) Yeast

Front 533

3. Yeasts are multicellular fungi.

Back 533

False

Front 534

4. Some forms of fungi are dimorphic.

Back 534

True

Front 535

5. Most fungi, except yeasts, exists as -----, which are long, tangled filaments of cells in visible colonies.

Back 535

Hyphae

Front 536

6. A fungal ------- is a thick mass of hyphae.

Back 536

Mycelium

Front 537

7. Fungal cell walls are composed of ------.

Back 537

Chitin

Front 538

8. Hyphae containing many nuclei are considered --------.

Back 538

Coenocytic

Front 539

9. In many species of fungus, ---- divide the cytoplasm into separate cells

Back 539

Septa

Front 540

10. Fungi are heterotrophic.

Back 540

True

Front 541

11. ----- are fungi that live in mutualistic symbiosis with plant roots to help them take up water and minerals.

Back 541

Mycorrhizae

Front 542

12. Fungal ----- live in plant tissue, particularly leaves.

Back 542

Endophytes

Front 543

13. Fungi can reproduce sexually and asexually.

Back 543

True

Front 544

14. The ----- are related to the oldest known fungi, they are primarily aquatic, and they have flagellated reproductive cells.

Back 544

Chytridiomycota

Front 545

15. The ------- are a group of mycorrhizae that live in over 80% of plants’ roots.

Back 545

Glomeromycota

Front 546

16. ----- are terrestrial fungi that grow as mold on bread and produce.

Back 546

Zygomycetes

Front 547

17. ----- account for 75% of known fungi

Back 547

Ascomycetes

Front 548

18. ----- are a mutualistic association between a fungus and a photosynthetic organism, like algae.

Back 548

Lichens

Front 549

19. ----- is a fungus that can ferment sugars, and they are used in bread baking and alcohol production

Back 549

Saccharomyces

Front 550

20. ----- is a general term used to describe an infection of the body surface.

Back 550

Dermatophytosis

Front 551

21. Vulvovaginitis, often called a “yeast infection,” is caused by ------.

Back 551

Candida albicans

Front 552

22. What is the relationship between the overuse of antibiotics and yeast infections?

Back 552

Excessive antibiotic use may decrease protective bacteria in the vagina and intestine, allowing candida albicans to flourish

Front 553

23. Oral candidiasis, commonly called ------, involves white curd-like growth on the mucous membranes of the mouth.

Back 553

Thrush

Front 554

24. ------ is a fungal infection that involves the hardening, browning, and distortion of fingernails.

Back 554

Onychia

Front 555

25. ------ is found in urban soil and pigeon droppings, and when it is inhaled, it can penetrate to the air sacs of lungs leading to respiratory infection, ......

Back 555

Cryptococcus neoformans

Front 556

26. ------ is found in dry, dusty soil, chicken coops, and bat caves, and can cause mild influenza like symptoms if inhaled.

Back 556

Histoplasma capsulatum

Front 557

27. ------ is associated with dusty soil and bird droppings, and if inhaled can cause lung lesions, persistent cough, and chest pains, and it can cause pneumonia and may disseminate to other organs in AIDS patients.

Back 557

Blasomyces dermatitidis

Front 558

28. ------ is a common infection in AIDS patients, causing a lethal pneumonia

Back 558

Pneumocytic jiroveci

Front 559

29. What is the name of the fungus that is used in Beano to reduce flatulence?

Back 559

Aspergillus niger

Front 560

30. The technical term for a fungal toxin is a -------.

Back 560

Mycotoxin

Front 561

31. ----- is the technical term for the study of fungi.

Back 561

Mycology

Front 562

32. Ergotism is caused by -----, which grows on grains and was believed to be the cause of some odd behaviors during the time of the Salem Witch trials.

Back 562

Claviceps purpurea

Front 563

33. Fungi are considered ------ because they absorb nutrients from dead and decaying matter and recycle it into the environment.

Back 563

Saprobes

Front 564

34. Ringworm is a parasite.

Back 564

False

Front 565

1. Some parasites called ------- cause red tides

Back 565

Dinoflagellates

Front 566

2. Green algae =
Dinoflagellates =
Radiolarians =
Foraminiferans =

Back 566

Have chloroplasts and perform photosynthesis

Cause red tides

Have silica plates that form deposits on the ocean floor

Have chalky, snail shaped skeletons

Front 567

3. Live mutualistically in termite guts

Have bilateral symmetry

Cause sleeping sickness

Are mostly free living and use pseudopods to move

Are covered with rows of hair like structures

Back 567

Parabasilids =
Diplomonads =
Kinetoplastids =
Amoebozoans =
Ciliates =

Front 568

4. The sexual cycle of a parasite occurs in the definitive host.

Back 568

True

Front 569

5. The asexual cycle of a parasite occurs in the -------- host.

Back 569

Intermediate

Front 570

6. Leishmania is transmitted by sandflies of the genus ----------

Back 570

Phlebotomus

Front 571

7. Leismania donovani causes a visceral disease called ------ which affects the WBCs, spleen and liver

Back 571

Kala azar

Front 572

8. Amoebiasis, caused by --------, is the second leading cause of death from parasitic disease.

Back 572

Entamoeba histolytica

Front 573

9. ------ is a parasite that is transmitted through food or water contaminated with sewage containing the parasite’s cysts, and symptoms appear about 7 days after the parasites emerge in the host and attach to the intestinal lining.

Back 573

Giardia intestinalis

Front 574

10. In immunocompromised patients, cholera like diarrhea can result from an infection with parasites of the genus --------, which can be transmitted in contaminated water or by physical contact.

Back 574

Cryptosporidium

Front 575

11. ----- is a protozoan parasite that infects the urinary tract, often through sexual contact, and while females may experience itching, burning, and discharge, males may be asymptomatic.

Back 575

Trichomonas vaginalis

Front 576

12. Of all the parasites that cause malaria, which is the most dangerous?

Back 576

Plasmodium falciparum

Front 577

13. How does being infected with the parasite that causes malaria actually kill people?

Back 577

Plasmodium causes clustering of RBCs, which causes clots and send
out a signal to all infected cells to burst, leading to anemia, lack of oxygen to the cells of the body, and ultimately death.

Front 578

14. Human African sleeping sickness is caused by -------, and is transmitted by the ----------.

Back 578

Trypanosoma brucei, tsetse fly

Front 579

15. ----- is a condition found in Mexico and Central and South America and it is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi.

Back 579

Chagas disease

Front 580

16. ------ is a parasite that invades all mammalian cells except RBCs, and it is transmitted via contaminated undercooked beef, pork, and lamb

Back 580

Toxoplasma gondii

Front 581

17. You can become infected with ------- just by emptying your cat’s litterbox, or even by petting him if he is infected with the parasite.

Back 581

Toxoplasma gondii

Front 582

18. Next time you take a dip in the hot springs, you are not going to dunk your head under water for fear of contracting an infection of ------, which affects the nervous system and almost results in death.

Back 582

Naegleria fowleri

Front 583

19. In the life cycle of a trematode, eggs develop into larvae called ----- in water, which then invade -------

Back 583

Miracida, snails

Front 584

20. How do trematodes evade the host’s immune system?

Back 584

By having a surface similar to the host cells'

Front 585

21. Certain species of trematodes called ----- cause swimmer’s itch, releasing allergenic substances on the skin.

Back 585

Blood flukes

Front 586

22. Paragoniu westermani =
Fasciola hepatica =
Taenia saginta =
Taenia solium =
Echonococcus granulosus =

Back 586

Fluke that is transmitted by eating poorly cooked shellfish

Cysts that gather in vegetation and can cause liver damage

Beef tapeworm

Pork tapeworm

Dog tapeworm

Front 587

23. Humans are host to at least 50 roundworm disease

Back 587

True

Front 588

24. ------- is caused by several species of blood flukes that can cause damage in the liver, intestines, and bladder.

Back 588

Schistosomiasis

Front 589

25. ------- lives in pig intestines and can encyst in skeletal muscles. If consumed in raw or poorly cooked pork, larvae can migrate to the tongue, eyes, and ribs of the host.

Back 589

Trichenella spiralis

Front 590

26. Females of the species ------- produce a large number of eggs that can remain viable in soil for months, and they are transmitted by consuming contaminated food or water.

Back 590

Ascaris lumbricoides

Front 591

27. Humans are one of only 2 host that hookworms have.

Back 591

False

Front 592

28. The larvae of ------ infect the lymphatic system and damage vessels and glands. After years of infestation, elephantiasis, and lymphedema can develop.

Back 592

Wuchereria bancrofti

Front 593

29. In the condition called filariasis, larvae of which parasite swim below the skin surface of the host at the same time mosquitoes are swarming in the environment to increase the likelihood that they are picked up during the next blood meal?

Back 593

Wuchereria bancrofti

Front 594

30. Which species of parasite can you self-diagnose by placing tape on your butt then pulling it off and inspecting it for eggs under a microscope.

Back 594

Enterobius vermicularis

Front 595

1. ------ is a term that refers to the relationship between the host and microbe, and the competition for supremacy between them.

Back 595

Infection

Front 596

2. ------ are mircobes that reside in the body without causing disease.

Back 596

Microbiota

Front 597

3. What is the term used to describe the relationship between a host and a microbe when the microbe benefits and the host is unaffected?

Back 597

Commensalism

Front 598

4. What is the difference between pathogenicity and virulence?

Back 598

Pathogenicity is the microbe's ability to enter a host and cause disease

Virulence is the degree of pathogenicity

Front 599

5. Occurs if a pathogen breaches the host's external defense

Occurs if normal microbiota enter sterile tissue

Occurs in otherwise healthy bodies

Occurs in body weakened by another infection

Back 599

Exogenous infection =
Endogenous infection =
Primary infection =
Secondary infection =

Front 600

6. Time between entry of the microbe and symptom appearance

Time of mild signs and symptoms

Time when signs and symptoms are most intense

Time when signs and symptoms subside

Time when body systems return to normal

Back 600

Incubation period =
Prodromal period =
Acme period =
Decline period =
Convalescence =

Front 601

7. What is the difference between acute disease and a chronic disease?

Back 601

Acute disease develops rapidly cause severe symptoms and fade quickly

Chronic disease linger for long periods of time, and are slower to develop and receded

Front 602

8. The ------ is the route an exogenous pathogen uses to enter the body

Back 602

Portal of entry

Front 603

9. Forms a blood cot
Dissolves fibrin clots
Enhances pathogen penetration
Disintegrates
Dissolves RBCs

Back 603

Coagulase =
Streptokinase =
Hyaluronidase =
Leukocidins =
Hemolysins =

Front 604

10.Presence of toxins in the blood
Proteins produced
Toxins that act on the nervous system
Toxins that act on the GI tract
Produced by the host body
Toxins whose toxicity
Released upon disintegration

Back 604

Toxemia =
Exotoxin =
Neurotoxin =
Enterotoxin =
Antitoxin =
Toxoids =
Endotoxins =

Front 605

11. List 3 things that influence disease emergence or re-emergence.

Back 605

1) Climate change
2) International trade
3) Malnutrition

Front 606

12. Endemic disease =
Epidemic disease =
Outbreak =
Pandemic =

Back 606

Habitually present at low level
Occurs in region in excess
Contained epidemic
Worldwide epidemic

Front 607

1. Phagoctyes
Contain toxic compounds
Act in allergic reactions
Phagocytes that mature into macrophages
NK, T, & B cells

Back 607

Neutrophils =
Eosinophils =
Basophils =
Monocytes =
Lymphocytes =

Front 608

2. Name the 2 primary lymphoid tissues

Back 608

1) Thymus
2) Bone Marrow

Front 609

3. Name the 2 secondary lymphoid tissues

Back 609

1) Spleen
2) Lymph nodes

Front 610

4. ------ are chemical signals sent by many immune cells to tissues involved in initiating acquired immunity

Back 610

Cytokines

Front 611

5. What is the main difference between innate and acquired immune systems?

Back 611

Innate immune system is nonspecific attacking everything the same way

Acquired immune system provides a response that is specific to the pathogens

Front 612

6. ------ is the capture and digestion of foreign particles

Back 612

Phagocytosis

Front 613

7. ------ are cytokines that attract macrophages and neutrophils to infected tissues.

Back 613

Chemokines

Front 614

8. Name one way that a low or moderate fever supports the immune system.

Back 614

By encouraging rapid tissue repair

Front 615

9. When activated, ------ move into blood and lymph where they kill cancer cells and virus-infected cells.

Back 615

Natural killer cells

Front 616

10. The complement part of the immune system goes through a cascade of events that creates a ring of proteins that gets inserted into pathogens and causes them to lyse. This ring of proteins is called a ------

Back 616

Membrane attack complex

Front 617

11. Pathogen-associated molecular patterns help the innate immune system recognize ------.

Back 617

Pathogens

Front 618

12. ------ are signaling receptors on macrophages, dendritic cells, and endothelial cells that stimulate the secretion of cytokines.

Back 618

Toll-like receptors

Front 619

1.The ------ dose is the concentration of a drug that eliminates pathogens in a host

Back 619

Theraputic

Front 620

2. Nystatin =
Gentamicin =
Kanamycin =
Neomycin =

Back 620

Candida albicans infection
Gram negative infections in the urinary tract
Gram negative bacteria in wound tissue
Intestinal infections and as an ointment

Front 621

3. What happens to a parasite when a patient takes antiprotozoal agents such as aminoquinolines?

Back 621

The parasite starves to death

Front 622

4. What happens to resistant strains of bacteria when unnecessary large antibiotic doses are used?

Back 622

They can spread to other patients and a superinfection occurs

Front 623

5. Penicillin functions by ------

Back 623

Interfering with cell wall synthesis, causing the cell to burst

Front 624

6. One way in which bacteria can evolve to become antibiotic resistance is to enzymatically inactivate an antibiotic

Back 624

True

Front 625

7. What is a superinfection?

Back 625

An infection caused by resistant bacterial species

Front 626

8. Rifampin is ------

Back 626

A semisynthetic antibacterial drug

Front 627

9. Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease that starts in infancy and affects various glands in the body.

Back 627

True

Front 628

10. Aplastic anemia is a condition in which the bone marrow produces too many new blood cells

Back 628

False

Front 629

11. A ------ is a term used to describe a venous inflammation with an associated blood clot

Back 629

Thrombophlebitis

Front 630

1. Sand and soil or cyanobacterial bloom cloud the water
Inorganic and organic waste enters the water
Microorganisms enter the water from anthropogenic sources

Back 630

Physical pollution =
Chemical pollution =
Biological pollution =

Front 631

2. What are the 3 steps involved in water purification?

Back 631

1) Sedimentation
2) Filtration
3) Chlorination

Front 632

3. Masses of microbes called ------ are used in bioremediation to degrade toxic wastes

Back 632

Biofilms

Front 633

4. Most marine microorganism live in the ----- zone.

Back 633

Littoral

Front 634

5. Microorganisms play an important role in the cycles of elements in the environment. Name the 3 cycles.

Back 634

1) Carbon
2) Nitrogen
3) Sulfur

Front 635

6. Virbio vulnificus can cause intestinal illness if consumed

Back 635

True

Front 636

7. The membrane filter technique is a popular laboratory test in water microbiology.

Back 636

True

Front 637

8. ------ is a type of water that originates from deep wells and subterranean springs.

Back 637

Groundwater

Front 638

9. Polluted water usually contains ------ bacteria, a group of gram negative, non-spore forming bacilli usually found in the human intestine

Back 638

Coliform