Microbio Lab Final

Front 1

In your Kimchee fermentation, where did the organisms come from?
A) The air
B) A starter culture
C) Your skin
D) Raw ingredients used for Kimchee
E) The soil

Back 1

D) Raw ingredients used for Kimchee

Front 2

Microbial succession occurs during the kimchee fermentaion because:

This is a multiple select question. Choose all that apply.
A) New bacteria are introduced during the fermentation
B) Acid accumulates making it difficult for some species to survive
C) Lipids accumulate making it difficult for some species to survive
D) Oxygen decreases over time killing off some organism.
E) Carbon dioxide decreases over time

Back 2

B) Acid accumulates making it difficult for some species to survive
D) Oxygen decreases over time killing off some organism.

Front 3

pH plays a an important role in this fermentation because

This is a multiple select question.
Choose all that apply:
A) A high pH is essential for survival of the organisms that ferment the cabbage.
B) A low pH favors the survival of pathogenic organisms.
C) Acid produced organisms during fermentation favors the growth of acid tolerant organisms
D) The organisms that ferment the raw ingredients used to make kimchee lower the pH.
E) The is not relevant to this fermentation. Only the oxygen available is important.

Back 3

C) Acid produced organisms during fermentation favors the growth of acid tolerant organisms
D) The organisms that ferment the raw ingredients used to make kimchee lower the pH.

Front 4

What types of organisms are present at the end of the fermentation?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Leuconostoc
C) Lactobacillus
D) Leuconostoc and Lactobacillus
E) Staphylococcus

Back 4

D) Leuconostoc and Lactobacillus

Front 5

What size are the colonies found at the end of kimchee fermentaion?
A) large
B) medium
C) large, medium, and small colonies are present
D) very small
E) very large

Back 5

D) very small

Front 6

Which of the following bacterial genera are important in the fermentation of Kimchee?

This is a multiple select question. Choose all that apply.
A) Leuconstoc
B) Lactobacillus
C) Pediococcus
D) Streptoccus
E) Lactococcus

Back 6

A) Leuconstoc
B) Lactobacillus
C) Pediococcus
D) Streptoccus
E) Lactococcus

Front 7

Salt is used in the production of kimchee because it:
A) extracts proteins
B) adds water to the kimchee
C) extracts water by osmosis
D) extracts water by osmosis and affects the rate of fermentation
E) It adds flavor

Back 7

D) extracts water by osmosis and affects the rate of fermentation

Front 8

Which of the following species would be found during kimchee fermentation? This is a multiple select question: Choose all that apply.
A) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Escherichia coli
E) Lactobacillus brevis
F) Lactobacillus plantarum
G) Pediococcus cerevisiae
H) Streptococcus faecalis
I) Lactobacillus homohoichi
J) Staphyloccus aureus
K) Corynebacterium diptheriae
L) Bordetella pertussis
M) Streptococcus pyogenes
N) Streptococcus faecium
O) Bacillus anthracis

Back 8

A) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
E) Lactobacillus brevis
F) Lactobacillus plantarum
G) Pediococcus cerevisiae
H) Streptococcus faecalis
I) Lactobacillus homohoichi
N) Streptococcus faecium

Front 9

Match the following terms related to the control of microbial growth to their descriptions.
A. sterilization
B. disinfection
C. antisepsis
D. sanitization

treatment is almost always by chemical antimicrobials
usually done by steam under pressure or a sterilizing gas
may be done with high-temperature washing or by dipping into a chemcial disinfectant
may make use of physical or chemical methods

Back 9

C
A
D
B

Front 10

Ultraviolet light is part of the spectrum of light that comes from the sun. For us, ultraviolet light causes sun burn and with prolonged exposure may lead to skin cancer and cataracts. The more damage the less repair. The same two factors that determine the amount of sun damage that we suffer are part of the design for beneficial uses of germicidal UV. These are (1)_____________ and (2)_________.
A) oxygen availability
B) duration of exposure
C) presence of carbon dioxide
D) elimination of the ozone layer
E) wavelength of UV radiation

Back 10

B) duration of exposure
E) wavelength of UV radiation

Front 11

Under the right circumstances, ultraviolet light has germicidal activity. Match the terms with their definition/explanation.
A. 100 - 400 nanometers
B. 400 - 800 nanometers
C. forms new covalent bonds between adjacent bases
D. short and middle wave UV
E. damages cell membrane

ultraviolet light spectrum
visible light spectrum
germicidal mechanism
UV-C and UV-B

Back 11

A
B
C
D

Front 12

Match the following microbiology laboratory terms to their definition.
A. ASEPTIC
B. FOMITE
C. DISINFECT
D. STERILIZE

To free from pathogenic organisms, or to render them inert
means the complete absence or destruction of all microorganisms
the absence of contamination, free from living organisms
Objects through which pathogens are transmitted

Back 12

C
D
A
B

Front 13

In Table 20.1, the minimal bactericidal concentration of antibiotic X is
A) 15 ug/ml.
B) Can't tell.
C) 2 ug/ml.
D) 25 ug/ml.
E) 10 ug/ml.

Back 13

A) 15 ug/ml.

Front 14

The antibiotic erythromycin binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.3. The effect is to
A) Prevent attachment of tRN
B) None of the above.
C) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA
D) Prevent transcription.
E) Prevent peptide bond formation.

Back 14

C) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA

Front 15

The antibiotic streptomycin binds to the 30S subunit of ribosome as shown in Figure 20.4. The effect is to
A) A. Prevent binding of tRNA in eukaryotes.
B) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes.
C) Cause misreading of mRNA in 70S ribosomes.
D) Prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.

Back 15

C) Cause misreading of mRNA in 70S ribosomes.

Front 16

The antibiotic cycloheximide binds to the 60S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.2. The effect is to
A) Prevent mRNA-ribosome binding in eukaryotes.
B) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes.
C) Prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.
D) Prevent transcription in prokaryotes.

Back 16

B) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes.

Front 17

In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against Staphylococcus?
A) C
B) Can't tell
C) D
D) A
E) B

Back 17

A) C

Front 18

Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?
A) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis
B) Injury to plasma membrane
C) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
D) None of the above
E) Inhibition of RNA synthesis

Back 18

A) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis

Front 19

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are
A) Chloramphenicol.
B) Macrolides.
C) Lincomycin.
D) Tetracyclines.
E) Aminoglycosides.

Back 19

D) Tetracyclines.

Front 20

Which of these disinfectants acts by denaturing proteins?
A) Alcohols
B) All of the above
C) Phenolics
D) Halogens
E) Aldehydes

Back 20

B) All of the above

Front 21

Which of the following substances can sterilize?
A) Ethylene oxide
B) Chlorine
C) Alcohol
D) Soap
E) Phenolics

Back 21

A) Ethylene oxide

Front 22

Which of the following is not a direct result of heat?
A) Breaking sulfhydryl bonds
B) Denaturing enzymes
C) Breaking hydrogen bonds
D) None of the above
E) Cell lysis

Back 22

A) Breaking sulfhydryl bonds

Front 23

Which of the following does not achieve sterilization?
A) Ethylene oxide
B) Pasteurization
C) Autoclave
D) Formaldehyde
E) Dry heat

Back 23

B) Pasteurization

Front 24

Drug resistance occurs
A) Against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents.
B) All of the above.
C) Because bacteria are normal microbiot
D) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
E) When antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear.

Back 24

D) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately.

Front 25

Glutaraldehyde is considered one of the most effective disinfectants for hospital use. Which of the following would not be true about glutaraldehyde?
A) Stains and corrodes.
B) Attacks all microorganisms.
C) Not hampered by organic material.
D) Safe to transport.

Back 25

A) Stains and corrodes.

Front 26

If you had fresh lettuce containing 9.3 × 103 organisms/ml, how many colonies would you expect to see on a plate that represents a 10–2 dilution?
A) 930
B) 9
C) 93
D) 9300

Back 26

C) 93

Front 27

Which of the following bacterial concentrations would produce a TFTC plate at the 10–4 dilution?
A) 2 × 106 organisms/ml
B) 2 × 108 organisms/ml
C) 2 × 105 organisms/ml
D) 2 × 107 organisms/ml

Back 27

C) 2 × 105 organisms/ml

Front 28

A. Effective just against gram positive, gram negative or only a few species
B. Effective against both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
C. Toxic only to specific organisms
D. Selection of antibiotic resistant normal microbiota within an individual

Direct selection
Selectively toxic
Narrow spectrum antibiotics
Broad spectrum antibiotics

Back 28

D
C
A
B

Front 29

A. Zone of inhibition
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Narrow spectrum antibiotics
D. Minimum Inhibitory Concentration

more likely to affect normal microbiota of host
The lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent capable of preventing growth of the test organism
more targeted to actual pathogen
The area around the antimicrobial disk in which there is no growth

Back 29

B
D
C
A

Front 30

What is the mode of action for each of the following?
A. Bacitracin
B. Nystatin
C. Tetracycline
D. Ciprofloxin

inhibits peptidoglycan sysnthesis
inhibits protein synthesis
alters the cytoplasmic membrane
interferes with DNA synthesis

Back 30

A
C
B
D

Front 31

Select three mechanisms by which microbes might become resistant to the action
of an antimicrobial drug.
A) Producing enzymes which detoxify or inactivate the antibiotic
B) Altering the target site in the bacterium to reduce or block binding of the antibiotic
C) Preventing transport of water into the bacterium:
D) Increasing the production of antimicrobial drugs
E) Preventing transport of the antimicrobial agent into the bacterium

Back 31

A) Producing enzymes which detoxify or inactivate the antibiotic
B) Altering the target site in the bacterium to reduce or block binding of the antibiotic
E) Preventing transport of the antimicrobial agent into the bacterium

Front 32

What were the results of the Kirby-Bauer test for S. epidermidis? Give the measurements you observed. Interpret these as resistant or sensitive.

Back 32

There is some variability in result among the individual strains of S. epidermidis
isolated by the students with the antibiotic Gentamicin as it can show both resistance and sensitivity. However, S. epidermidis is sensitive to Novobiocin, and resistant to Penicillin.

Front 33

Which of the following is a good target for a chemotherapeutic used to treat a bacterial infection?
A) bacterial ribosomes
B) the peptidoglycan cell wall
C) DNA gyrase
D) A, B, and C are all good targets
E) none of the above

Back 33

D) A, B, and C are all good targets

Front 34

What effect would tetracycline likely have on an infecting bacterium?
A) a weakened peptidoglycan layer
B) disruption of the cell membrane
C) inability to replicate DNA by blocking DNA gyrase
D) a reduction in protein synthesis by interfering with tRNA

Back 34

D) a reduction in protein synthesis by interfering with tRNA

Front 35

Which chemotherapeutic agent interferes with the integrity of the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane?
A) streptomycin
B) chloramphenicol
C) polymyxin
D) tetracycline

Back 35

C) polymyxin

Front 36

Which chemotherapeutic agent blocks the formation of peptide crosslinks in bacterial cell walls?
A) sulfonamide
B) tetracycline
C) rifampin
D) penicillin

Back 36

D) penicillin

Front 37

Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents would prevent the formation of THF in a bacterial cell?
A) sulfonamide
B) chloramphenicol
C) penicillin
D) fluoroquinolone

Back 37

A) sulfonamide

Front 38

Which of the following characteristics does NOT need to be standardized in a Kirby-Bauer assay?
A) The method used to develop a bacterial lawn on the agar plate
B) The thickness of the agar
C) The size of the antibiotic disk
D) The number of bacteria plated

Back 38

A) The method used to develop a bacterial lawn on the agar plate

Front 39

What is a zone of inhibition?
A) The area between two antagonistic antibiotics
B) The area around the Bunsen burner that is considered sterile
C) The area around the antibiotic disk in which bacteria cannot grow
D) The area in which antibiotics are inhibited from killing bacteria

Back 39

C) The area around the antibiotic disk in which bacteria cannot grow

Front 40

What does the Kirby-Bauer test assess?
A) The susceptibility of an organism to a set of antibiotics
B) The ability of a microorganism to swim away from an antibiotic
C) The ability of a microorganism to secrete an antibiotic
D) The ability of an organism to mutate in the presence of an antibiotic

Back 40

A) The susceptibility of an organism to a set of antibiotics

Front 41

What is an antibiotic?
A) An organism that inhibits the growth of other organisms
B) A synthetic chemical that kills bacteria
C) A chemical that inhibits microbial growth
D) All available answers are characteristics of an antibiotic.

Back 41

C) A chemical that inhibits microbial growth

Front 42

What are the three possible outcomes for each antibiotic: microorganism pair in a Kirby-Bauer assay?
A) Susceptible, resistant, or indeterminate
B) Susceptible, resistant, or intermediate
C) Similar, reversion, or indeterminate
D) Stunted, robust, or intermediate

Back 42

B) Susceptible, resistant, or intermediate

Front 43

A technique used to identify bacteria carrying a specific gene is
A) Southern blot.
B) Transformation.
C) Cloning.
D) Shotgun sequencing.
E) None of the above.

Back 43

A) Southern blot.

Front 44

Which organism naturally possesses the Ti plasmid?
A) Saccharomyces cervisiae
B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
C) Pseudomonas
D) Thermus aquaticus
E) Bacillus thuringiensis

Back 44

B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Front 45

A eukaryote used in genetic engineering is
A) Thermus aquaticus.
B) Pseudomonas.
C) Bacillus thuringiensis.
D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Back 45

E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Front 46

The use of an antibiotic resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes
A) The recombinant cell unable to survive.
B) Direct selection possible.
C) Replica plating possible.
D) The recombinant cell dangerous.
E) All of the above.

Back 46

B) Direct selection possible.

Front 47

Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that
A) A chromosome is composed of complementary strands.
B) Pairing between complementary bases occurs.
C) DNA is composed of genes.
D) The strands of DNA cannot be separated.
E) None of the above.

Back 47

B) Pairing between complementary bases occurs.

Front 48

Data collected to date indicate that
A) Marine mammals do not get infectious diseases.
B) There are no new species to be discovered.
C) Humans and marine mammals cannot be infected by the same pathogens.
D) Marine mammals don't have an immune system.
E) None of the above.

Back 48

E) None of the above.

Front 49

Which of the following is not a purpose of genetic engineering?
A) To create multiple copies of a gene of interest.
B) To remove antibiotic resistant plasmids from bacteria.
C) To create proteins used in vaccines (e.g. hepatitis B vaccine).
D) To create hormones such as insulin or human growth hormone.
E) To modify the characteristics of an organism.

Back 49

B) To remove antibiotic resistant plasmids from bacteria.

Front 50

An E. coli strain makes insulin because
A) It picked up the insulin gene from another cell.
B) It's an ancient gene that now has no function.
C) The insulin gene was inserted into it.
D) It needs to regulate its cell-glucose level.
E) No reason; it doesn't make insulin.

Back 50

C) The insulin gene was inserted into it.

Front 51

Assume a cloning vector contains an antibiotic resistance gene and an appropriate restriction enzyme recognition site in the lacZ site. The gene of interest, if inserted, will
A) inactivate the beta-galactosidase gene.
B) have no effect of either the beta-galactosidase gene or the ampicillin resistance gene.
C) activate the beta-galactosidase gene.
D) activate the antibiotic resistance gene.
E) inactivate the antibiotic resistance gene.

Back 51

A) inactivate the beta-galactosidase gene.

Front 52

Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a
A) Vector.
B) Library.
C) PCR.
D) Southern blot.
E) Clone.

Back 52

A) Vector.

Front 53

Which of the following is true for restriction enzymes?
A) Any restriction enzyme can cut any piece of DNA.
B) A different restriction enzyme must be used to open the vector DNA than to excise the gene sequence to be cloned.
C) A given restriction enzyme will always recognize the same DNA sequence, but it will cut differently depending on the species of origin of the DNA.
D) Restriction enzymes are useful in genetic engineering when they make staggered cuts in DNA.
E) Each restriction enzyme known is able to make a staggered cut at its recognition site.

Back 53

D) Restriction enzymes are useful in genetic engineering when they make staggered cuts in DNA.

Front 54

In Figure 9.3, the purpose of this experiment is to
A) Put an insecticide on plant leaves.
B) Isolate Pseudomonas from a plant.
C) Put a gene in Bacillus.
D) Put a gene into a plant.
E) None of the above.

Back 54

A) Put an insecticide on plant leaves.

Front 55

Why are ELISAs used to detect diseases such as HIV?
A) It is a relatively rapid method.
B) They are very specific.
C) They are relatively inexpensive.
D) All available answers are true.

Back 55

D) All available answers are true.

Front 56

What is attached to the well in an indirect ELISA?
A) An antigen
B) An enzyme
C) An antibody
D) None of the available answers

Back 56

A) An antigen

Front 57

Which of the following is a disease that ELISAs are used to diagnose?
A) Staphylococcal food poisoning
B) Toxic shock syndrome
C) Prion disease (e.g., Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease)
D) HIV

Back 57

D) HIV

Front 58

You run an ELISA for molecule X. You test your sample, a negative control, and a positive control. How would you interpret the following data?Positive control: The ELISA turns dark blue.Negative control: The ELISA turns dark blue.Sample: The ELISA turns dark blue.
A) The sample is contaminated.
B) You cannot accurately interpret these data, and you need to rerun the ELISA.
C) The sample is negative for molecule X.
D) The sample is positive for molecule X.

Back 58

B) You cannot accurately interpret these data, and you need to rerun the ELISA.

Front 59

You run an ELISA for molecule X. You test your sample, a negative control, and a positive control. How would you interpret the following data?Positive control: The ELISA turns a very dark yellow.Negative control: The ELISA turns a very pale yellow.Sample: The ELISA turns dark yellow.
A) The sample is negative for molecule X.
B) You cannot accurately interpret these data, and you need to rerun the ELISA.
C) The sample is contaminated.
D) The sample is positive for molecule X.

Back 59

D) The sample is positive for molecule X.

Front 60

PCR __________________________________.
A) makes billions of novel DNA sequences from only one original sequence.
B) all of the above.
C) none of the above.
D) rapidly increases the number of copies of a piece of DNA.
E) is a process that only microorganisms can perform.

Back 60

D) rapidly increases the number of copies of a piece of DNA.

Front 61

What is/are the role(s) of dNTPs in a PCR?
A) They provide energy for the DNA polymerization to occur.
B) Neither of the above answers applies.
C) They are the monomers for the DNA strand to be synthesized.
D) Both of the above answers apply.

Back 61

D) Both of the above answers apply.

Front 62

Which of the following is not a constituent of a PCR reaction?
A) DNA polymerase
B) target DNA
C) dATP
D) DNA primers
E) dUTP

Back 62

E) dUTP

Front 63

For a photoautotroph, the source of carbon is
A) Carbon dioxide
B) organic molecules

Back 63

A) Carbon dioxide

Front 64

For a photoheterotroph, the source of carbon is
A) Carbon dioxide
B) organic molecules

Back 64

B) organic molecules

Front 65

For a chemoautotroph, the source of carbon is
A) Carbon dioxide
B) organic molecules

Back 65

A) Carbon dioxide

Front 66

For a chemoheterotroph, the source of carbon is
A) Carbon dioxide
B) organic molecules

Back 66

B) organic molecules

Front 67

For a photoautotroph, the source of energy is
A) sunlight
B) organic molecules
C) inorganic molecules

Back 67

A) sunlight

Front 68

For a photoheterotroph, the source of energy is
A) sunlight
B) organic molecules
C) inorganic molecules

Back 68

A) sunlight

Front 69

For a chemoautotroph, the source of energy is
A) sunlight
B) organic molecules
C) inorganic molecules

Back 69

C) inorganic molecules

Front 70

For a chemoheterotroph, the source of energy is
A) sunlight
B) organic molecules
C) inorganic molecules

Back 70

B) organic molecules

Front 71

Nitrogen fixation is

This is a multiple select question. Choose all that apply.
A) removal of nitrogen gas from the atmosphere for usage
B) fixation of nitrogen ions by plants or animals
C) conversion of nitrates into nitrites
D) fixation of nitrogen in a usable form (ammonia) by bacteria

Back 71

A) removal of nitrogen gas from the atmosphere for usage
D) fixation of nitrogen in a usable form (ammonia) by bacteria

Front 72

In which of the following environments are you LIKELY to find microbial life.

This is a multiple select question. Choose all that apply.
A) a tub of margarine
B) raw hamburger meat
C) a banana
D) on your palms
E) an operating theater
F) soil in the Everglades
G) the ocean
H) a bottle of vodka

Back 72

B) raw hamburger meat
C) a banana
D) on your palms
F) soil in the Everglades
G) the ocean