Micro - Sch Prior To Final

Front 1

1. The characteristic feature that applies to all microorganisms is
(a) They are multicellular.
(b) Their cells have distinct nuclei.
(c) They are visible only with a microscope.
(d) They perform photosynthesis.

Back 1

(c) They are visible only with a microscope (sch1)

Front 2

2. Among the foods produced for human consumption by microorganisms is
(a) milk
(b) ham
(c) yogurt
(d) cucumbers

Back 2

(c) yogurt (sch1)

Front 3

3. Among the first scientists to see microorganisms was
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Joseph Lister
(d) James T. Watson

Back 3

(a) Robert Hooke (sch1)

Front 4

4. The theory of spontaneous generation states that
(a) Microorganisms arise from lifeless matter.
(b) Evolution has taken place in large animals.
(c) Humans have generated from apes.
(d) Viruses are degenerative forms of bacteria.

Back 4

(a) Microorganisms arise from lifeless matter (sch1)

Front 5

5. Extensive studies on the microorganisms were performed in the 1670s by the Dutch merchant
(a) van Gogh
(b) van Hoogenstyne
(c) van Dyck
(d) van Leeuwenhoek

Back 5

(d) van Leeuwenhoek (sch1)

Front 6

6. Louis Pasteur’s contribution to microbiology was that he
(a) discovered viruses
(b) supported the theory of spontaneous generation
(c) attacked the doctrine of evolution
(d) called attention to the importance of microorganisms in everyday life

Back 6

(d) called attention to the importance of microorganisms in everyday life (sch1)

Front 7

7. Cures for established cases of disease were introduced to microbiology with the
(a) work of Hooke
(b) discovery of antibiotics
(c) description of the structure of DNA
(d) developments of genetic engineering

Back 7

(b) discovery of antibiotics (sch1)

Front 8

8. Effective work with the viruses depended upon the development of the
(a) light microscope
(b) dark- field microscope
(c) ultraviolet light microscope
(d) electron microscope

Back 8

(d) electron microscope (sch1)

Front 9

9. All the following characteristics are associated with viruses except
(a) They have little or no chemistry.
(b) Antibiotics are used to interfere with their activities.
(c) They cause measles, mumps, and rubella.
(d) They are not types of bacteria.

Back 9

(b) Antibiotics are used to interfere with their activities (sch1)

Front 10

10. A packet of nucleic acid enclosed in protein best describes a(n)
(a) alga
(b) RNA molecule
(c) virus
(d) bacterium

Back 10

(c) virus (sch1)

Front 11

11. The two components of the binomial name of a microorganism are the
(a) order and family
(b) family and genus
(c) genus and species modifier
(d) genus and variety

Back 11

(c) genus and species modifier (sch1)

Front 12

12. The two groups of organisms found in the kingdom Fungi are
(a) viruses and yeasts
(b) yeasts and molds
(c) molds and bacteria
(d) bacteria and protozoa

Back 12

(b) yeasts and molds (sch1)

Front 13

13. Robert Koch is remembered in microbiology because he
(a) proved the germ theory of disease
(b) successfully cultivated viruses in the laboratory
(c) developed a widely accepted classification scheme
(d) devised the term “prokaryote”

Back 13

a) proved the germ theory of disease (sch1)

Front 14

14. Among the single- celled algae of importance in microbiology are the
(a) amoebas and ciliates
(b) rods and cocci
(c) RNA and DNA viruses
(d) dinoflagellates and diatoms

Back 14

(d) dinoflagellates and diatoms (sch1)

Front 15

15. The cyanobacteria are notable for their ability to perform
(a) binary fission
(b) heterotrophic nutrition
(c) photosynthesis
(d) movement

Back 15

(c) photosynthesis (sch1)

Front 16

1. Among the smallest known agents that can cause human disease are the
(a) protozoa
(b) bacteria
(c) viruses
(d) rickettsiae

Back 16

(c) viruses (sch3)

Front 17

2. To determine the resolution of a microscope system, one must be aware of the
(a) ocular and objective magnifications
(b) size of the condenser and diaphragm
(c) numerical aperture and wavelength of light
(d) working distance of the microscope

Back 17

(c) numerical aperture and wavelength of light (sch3)

Front 18

4. Which of the following represents a series of microorganisms of increasing size
(a) fungi, viruses, bacteria
(b) viruses, bacteria, fungi
(c) protozoa, fungi, rickettsiae
(d) rickettsiae, viruses, protozoa

Back 18

(b) viruses, bacteria, fungi (sch3)

Front 19

5. Which of the following dyes is used in the Gram stain technique
(a) methylene blue and Congo red
(b) nigrosin and carbolfuchsin
(c) safranin and crystal violet
(d) Congo red and methylene blue

Back 19

(c) safranin and crystal violet (sch3)

Front 20

6. A differential stain technique is one that
(a) shows different structures in a microorganisms
(b) can be used under different circumstances
(c) separates bacteria into different groups
(d) uses different microscopes for observing bacteria

Back 20

(c) separates bacteria into different groups (sch3)

Front 21

7. The acid- fast stain technique is an important diagnostic tool in patients who have
(a) pneumonia
(b) diphtheria
(c) tuberculosis
(d) meningitis

Back 21

(c) tuberculosis (sch3)

Front 22

8. All the following apply to the negative stain procedure except
(a) It utilizes a dye such as nigrosin.
(b) Microorganisms repel the dye.
(c) Microorganisms stain deeply.
(d) An acidic dye is used.

Back 22

(c) Microorganisms stain deeply (sch3)

Front 23

9. The process of heat fixing is performed
(a) prior to staining
(b) at the conclusion of the staining procedure
(c) only during multistep procedures
(d) only with electron microscopy

Back 23

(a) prior to staining (sch3)

Front 24

13. At the conclusion of the alcohol decolorizer step, Gram- negative bacteria
(a) appear blue- purple
(b) appear red
(c) appear colorless
(d) appear deep green

Back 24

(c) appear colorless (sch3)

Front 25

1. All the following microorganisms are considered prokaryotes except
(a) bacteria
(b) viruses
(c) chlamydiae
(d) mycoplasmas

Back 25

(b) viruses (sch4)

Front 26

2. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in that
(a) Eukaryotes do not have organelles.
(b) Eukaryotes have a single chromosome.
(c) Eukaryotes have a nucleus and organelles.
(d) Eukaryotes do not divide by mitosis.

Back 26

(c) Eukaryotes have a nucleus and organelles (sch4)

Front 27

3. Among the common features shared by prokaryotes and eukaryotes are
(a) the same shapes and sizes
(b) the same types of movement
(c) common organic substances such as proteins and carbohydrates
(d) ribosomes of the same weight

Back 27

(c) common organic substances such as proteins and carbohydrates (sch4)

Front 28

4. The three basic shapes found in most common bacteria are
(a) triangles, squares, and rectangles
(b) hexagons, icosahedrons, and helices
(c) spheres, spirals, and rods
(d) cubes, filaments, and rhomboids

Back 28

(c) spheres, spirals, and rods (sch4)

Front 29

5. The shape of a bacterium is determined by
(a) the genetic material contained in its chromosome
(b) the structural composition of its cell wall
(c) whether or not it forms spores
(d) the cytoskeleton located in its cytoplasm

Back 29

(a) the genetic material contained in its chromosome (sch4)

Front 30

6. The flagella found in bacteria
(a) number the same in all bacteria
(b) are composed of carbohydrate
(c) are found only at one end of the cell
(d) are composed of protein

Back 30

(d) are composed of protein (sch4)

Front 31

7. Substances move across the membranes of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells by all the following methods
except
(a) active transport
(b) facilitated diffusion
(c) osmosis
(d) translation

Back 31

(d) translation (sch4)

Front 32

8. The ribosomes of prokaryotic cells
(a) are found in the nucleus
(b) exist free in the cytoplasm
(c) are located along the endoplasmic reticulum
(d) can be seen with the light microscope

Back 32

(b) exist free in the cytoplasm (sch4)

Front 33

9. Mitochondria are found
(a) in all bacteria
(b) in all prokaryotic cells
(c) within the nucleus of a prokaryote
(d) in eukaryotic cells

Back 33

(d) in eukaryotic cells (sch4)

Front 34

10. In eukaryotic cells, the process of endocytosis permits
(a) cell motion
(b) the breakdown of carbohydrates and the release of energy
(c) materials to pass into a cell
(d) mitosis to take place

Back 34

(c) materials to pass into a cell (sch4)

Front 35

11. In the prokaryotic cell, DNA is found in the
(a) cell membrane and Golgi body
(b) chromosome and plasmid
(c) flagellum and cilium
(d) cell wall and cell membrane

Back 35

(b) chromosome and plasmid (sch4)

Front 36

12. The fluid mosaic model describes the
(a) chromosomal material of prokaryotes
(b) structure of the flagellum in eukaryotes
(c) structure of the capsule in prokaryotes
(d) structure of the cell membrane in prokaryotes

Back 36

(d) structure of the cell membrane in prokaryotes (sch4)

Front 37

13. The cell walls of Gram- positive and Gram- negative bacteria
(a) are the sites of spore formation
(b) both contain peptidoglycan
(c) are connected to the cell nucleus by the endoplasmic reticulum
(d) are composed exclusively of proteins

Back 37

(b) both contain peptidoglycan (sch4)

Front 38

14. In the process of active transport, molecules move
(a) down the concentration gradient
(b) with the concentration gradient
(c) against the concentration gradient
(d) toward a region of low molecular concentration

Back 38

(c) against the concentration gradient (sch4)

Front 39

15. The lysosomes of eukaryotic cells contain
(a) enzymes that function in digestion
(b) chlorophyll molecules for photosynthesis
(c) storehouses of ATP molecules
(d) the chromosomes of the organism

Back 39

(a) enzymes that function in digestion (sch4)

Front 40

1. Psychrophilic bacteria are those bacteria that grow best
(a) in oxygen- free environments
(b) at pH levels of 8 or above
(c) at cold temperatures
(d) only in the presence of viruses

Back 40

(c) at cold temperatures (sch5)

Front 41

2. Microorganisms that survive in moisture- free environments do so because they
(a) form spores
(b) metabolize glucose molecules only
(c) have no cell membranes
(d) have no chromosomes

Back 41

(a) form spores (sch5)

Front 42

3. Mannitol salt agar is an example of a medium that will support
(a) viruses only
(b) chlamydiae and rickettsiae
(c) protozoa as well as fungi
(d) only certain bacterial species

Back 42

(d) only certain bacterial species (sch5)

Front 43

4. A laboratory medium for bacteria can be enriched by
(a) adding ATP
(b) adding blood
(c) including salt in the medium
(d) increasing the level of potassium

Back 43

(b) adding blood (sch5)

Front 44

5. Those bacteria designated microaerophilic are distinguished by their ability to grow
(a) in high concentrations of salt
(b) in low concentrations of oxygen
(c) without ATP or glucose
(d) only in the presence of viruses

Back 44

(b) in low concentrations of oxygen (sch5)

Front 45

6. The process of mitosis occurs
(a) only in bacteria
(b) in viruses as well as bacteria
(c) in eukaryotic organisms
(d) only in chemically defined media

Back 45

(c) in eukaryotic organisms (sch5)

Front 46

7. The process of budding takes place
(a) primarily in viruses
(b) in bacteria that form branches
(c) only within the protozoa
(d) in yeasts

Back 46

(d) in yeasts (sch5)

Front 47

8. During the stationary phase of growth in microorganisms
(a) The rate of cell division increases.
(b) The rate of cell division decreases.
(c) The population is at its most vigorous state.
(d) The population is at its least vigorous state.

Back 47

(b) The rate of cell division decreases (sch5)

Front 48

9. Fungi and protozoa live primarily at temperatures
(a) close to 100C
(b) about 50 to 60C
(c) close to room temperature
(d) between 5 and 10C

Back 48

(c) close to room temperature (sch5)

Front 49

10. A pure culture is a culture in which
(a) Only one species of microorganism is present.
(b) Only one nutrient is required by the bacterium for growth.
(c) Only one organism other than the main organism is present.
(d) There are no waste products in the culture.

Back 49

(a) Only one species of microorganism is present (sch5)

Front 50

11. A differential medium is one in which
(a) Fungi and viruses grow differently.
(b) Two different bacteria can be distinguished.
(c) A particular nutrient is used differently by two different bacteria.
(d) Two different temperatures are utilized in the incubation period.

Back 50

(b) Two different bacteria can be distinguished (sch5)

Front 51

12. Inoculating bacteria deep into a tube of solid medium provides
(a) conditions for anaerobic growth
(b) an opportunity to remove waste products
(c) enhanced oxygen atmospheres
(d) increased numbers of potassium and sodium ions

Back 51

(a) conditions for anaerobic growth (sch5)

Front 52

13. Direct microscopic counts can be used to determine the number in a population of all of the following except
(a) protozoa
(b) fungal spores
(c) bacteria
(d) viruses

Back 52

(d) viruses (sch5)

Front 53

14. Barophilic microorganisms are those microorganisms able to grow
(a) at cold temperatures
(b) at high pressures
(c) at high temperatures
(d) at high pH values

Back 53

(b) at high pressures (sch5)

Front 54

15. Those bacteria that live at pH levels from 5 to 8.5 are known as
(a) thermophiles
(b) mesophiles
(c) neutrophiles
(d) capnophiles

Back 54

(c) neutrophiles (sch5)

Front 55

1. The synthesis of proteins in a microorganism represents an aspect of metabolism known as
(a) catabolism
(b) photosynthesis
(c) anabolism
(d) chemiosmosis

Back 55

(c) anabolism (sch7)

Front 56

2. The chemical units of both DNA and RNA are
(a) amino acids
(b) nucleotides
(c) enzyme molecules
(d) NAD and FAD

Back 56

(b) nucleotides (sch7)

Front 57

3. All of the following refer to both cytosine and thymine except
(a) Both are nitrogenous bases.
(b) Both are pyrimidine molecules.
(c) Both may be found in RNA.
(d) Both may be found in DNA.

Back 57

(c) Both may be found in RNA (sch7)

Front 58

4. All of the following apply to the DNA of bacteria except
(a) The DNA is concentrated in the nucleoid.
(b) The DNA contains histone proteins.
(c) The DNA is a single, closed loop.
(d) The DNA contains the genetic code.

Back 58

(b) The DNA contains histone proteins (sch7)

Front 59

5. In the double helix arrangement of DNA in the chromosome, the base cytosine stands opposite the base
(a) adenine
(b) thymine
(c) cytosine
(d) guanine

Back 59

(d) guanine (sch7)

Front 60

6. During the replication of the DNA molecule, one of the original DNA strands
(a) combines with the other original DNA strand
(b) is broken down for nucleotide units
(c) combines with one of the new strands of DNA
(d) is converted into carbohydrate molecules for energy metabolism

Back 60

(c) combines with one of the new strands of DNA (sch7)

Front 61

7. The instructions for building a protein from amino acids pass from the DNA to
(a) a molecule of RNA
(b) an enzyme molecule containing FAD
(c) a series of protein enzymes
(d) the cell membrane where the protein is synthesized

Back 61

a) a molecule of RNA (sch7)

Front 62

8. A single amino acid is encoded by a group of
(a) three enzymes
(b) three nucleotides
(c) three anticodons
(d) three molecules of ATP

Back 62

(b) three nucleotides (sch7)

Front 63

9. The terminator and promoter regions functioning in protein synthesis exist on the
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) DNA molecule
(c) ribosome
(d) nuclear membrane

Back 63

(b) DNA molecule (sch7)

Front 64

10. In eukaryotic microorganisms, the messenger RNA molecule consists of a collection of
(a) introns
(b) enzymes
(c) protein fragments
(d) exons

Back 64

(d) exons (sch7)

Front 65

11. Transfer RNA molecules exist in the metabolizing cell in the
(a) nucleus
(b) mitochondrion
(c) cytoplasm
(d) Golgi body

Back 65

(c) cytoplasm (sch7)

Front 66

12. Translation and transcription are subdivisions of the general process of
(a) DNA replication
(b) glycolysis
(c) protein synthesis
(d) the electron transport chain

Back 66

(c) protein synthesis (sch7)

Front 67

13. In order to form proteins in the metabolizing cell, all the following factors are required except
(a) ATP molecules
(b) enzymes
(c) messenger RNA molecules
(d) fatty- acid molecules

Back 67

(d) fatty- acid molecules (sch7)

Front 68

14. A mutation occurring in the cell is most often due to
(a) disrupting the genetic code
(b) eliminating the supply of ATP
(c) breaking down enzyme molecules
(d) depleting the supply of glucose molecules

Back 68

(a) disrupting the genetic code (sch7)

Front 69

15. The operon that encodes an enzyme in E. coli is an example of
(a) how enzymes work in the cell
(b) how gene control exists in the cell
(c) how proteins are converted to energy compounds in the cell
(d) how eukaryotic organisms have evolved from prokaryotic organisms

Back 69

(b) how gene control exists in the cell (sch7)

Front 70

1. When a mutation occurs in bacteria, the effects are seen on the
(a) rate of ATP utilization
(b) rate of nutrient ingestion
(c) proteins synthesized
(d) ATP taken into the cell

Back 70

(c) proteins synthesized (sch8)

Front 71

2. Ultraviolet light causes mutations in bacteria
(a) by breaking the chromosome
(b) by causing a frameshift
(c) by binding together adjacent thymine bases
(d) by reversing a segment of DNA

Back 71

(c) by binding together adjacent thymine bases (sch8)

Front 72

3. A recombination process occurring in bacteria always refers to the
(a) affect of a physical nature changing the nature of the genes
(b) reversal of a microbial mutation
(c) loss of genes from a cell
(d) acquisition of DNA by an organism

Back 72

(d) acquisition of DNA by an organism (sch8)

Front 73

4. The process of transformation in bacteria does not require
(a) a competent recipient cell
(b) a disrupted donor cell
(c) a virus
(d) a series of enzymes

Back 73

(c) a virus (sch8)

Front 74

5. All the following apply to plasmids except
(a) They are self- replicating loops of DNA.
(b) They have 10 to 50 genes.
(c) They are essential for the survival of a bacterium.
(d) They are acquired in transformations.

Back 74

(c) They are essential for the survival of a bacterium (sch8)

Front 75

6. The DNA molecule that transforms a bacterium
(a) is single stranded
(b) contains uracil
(c) has no functional genes
(d) contains three strands of DNA

Back 75

(a) is single stranded (sch8)

Front 76

7. Which of the following is necessary for the process of conjugation in bacteria
(a) one live recipient cell and one dead recipient cell
(b) a large concentration of glucose molecules
(c) viruses that multiply within bacteria
(d) two live bacteria

Back 76

(d) two live bacteria (sch8)

Front 77

8. An Hfr bacterium is one that contains
(a) many unusual plasmids
(b) chromosomal material acquired from a recipient cell
(c) a plasmid integrated into its chromosome
(d) the ability to undergo transduction

Back 77

(c) a plasmid integrated into its chromosome (sch8)

Front 78

9. When the F factor enters a recipient cell during conjugation, the recipient cell
(a) undergoes lysis
(b) multiplies rapidly
(c) becomes a donor cell
(d) develops mitochondria

Back 78

(c) becomes a donor cell (sch8)

Front 79

10. When a virus remains with the chromosome of a host bacterium for a long period of time, the viral DNA is
called
(a) an adenovirus
(b) a provirus
(c) a baculovirus
(d) an enterovirus

Back 79

(b) a provirus (sch8)

Front 80

11. Which of the following characteristics is associated with specialized transduction?
(a) The virus attaches to the bacterial chromosome.
(b) A virus immediately replicates within a host bacterium.
(c) The virus fails to replicate within the host bacterium.
(d) The viral DNA is destroyed immediately on entering the bacterium.

Back 80

(a) The virus attaches to the bacterial chromosome (sch8)

Front 81

12. A bacterium that has been transduced contains
(a) an enhanced supply of ATP
(b) numerous new plasmids
(c) fewer DNA segments than it originally had
(d) new DNA segments

Back 81

(d) new DNA segments (sch8)

Front 82

13. Bacterial recombinations are an essential feature of the process of
(a) photosynthesis
(b) chemiosmosis
(c) genetic engineering
(d) anaerobic fermentation

Back 82

(c) genetic engineering (sch8)

Front 83

14. The restriction enzymes used in biotechnology function by
(a) binding nucleotide molecules together
(b) cleaving the DNA molecule at certain points
(c) binding amino acids together to form proteins
(d) restricting the entry of plasmids into cells

Back 83

(b) cleaving the DNA molecule at certain points (sch8)

Front 84

15. In order to perform a successful genetic engineering experiment, all the following are required except
(a) bacterial cells
(b) the enzyme DNA ligase
(c) bacterial plasmids
(d) molecules of starch and glycogen

Back 84

(d) molecules of starch and glycogen (sch8)

Front 85

1. All the following are considered fungi except
(a) mushrooms
(b) yeasts
(c) molds
(d) amoebas

Back 85

(d) amoebas (sch11)

Front 86

2. A mycelium occurs in molds and is a
(a) type of reproductive spore
(b) structure of the cell wall
(c) mass of branching filaments
(d) structure for motility

Back 86

(c) mass of branching filaments (sch11)

Front 87

3. Biphasic fungi are those having a
(a) multiple format of reproduction
(b) multiple type of spores
(c) mold and yeast form
(d) alternating type of motility

Back 87

(c) mold and yeast form (sch11)

Front 88

4. All the following apply to yeast cells except
(a) They do not form hyphae.
(b) They are typically oval cells.
(c) They can be seen only with the microscope.
(d) They are multicellular fungi.

Back 88

(d) They are multicellular fungi (sch11)

Front 89

5. The important feature in the reproduction of a fungus is the
(a) septa
(b) spore
(c) structure of the cell wall
(d) type of nutrition

Back 89

(b) spore (sch11)

Front 90

6. Both blastospores and arthrospores are
(a) types of sexual spores
(b) produced by yeasts
(c) similar to bacteria
(d) various kinds of asexual spores

Back 90

(d) various kinds of asexual spores (sch11)

Front 91

7. The process of mitosis occurring at the tips of aerial hyphae accounts for the
(a) motility of the fungus
(b) synthesis of energy compounds by the fungus
(c) production of asexual spores
(d) production of ATP in the fungus

Back 91

(c) production of asexual spores (sch11)

Front 92

8. Five classes of the fungi are separated according to the
(a) means for locomotion
(b) method for sexual reproduction
(c) ability to form cross walls
(d) presence of varying numbers of chromosomes

Back 92

(b) method for sexual reproduction (sch11)

Front 93

9. Which of the following characteristics applies to fungi of the class Zygomycetes?
(a) The fungi are prokaryotic.
(b) The fungi have chlorophyll pigments.
(c) Rhizopus is a member of the class.
(d) The sexual spore is called an ascospore.

Back 93

(c) Rhizopus is a member of the class (sch11)

Front 94

10. The technical name of the common brewing and baking yeast is
(a) Candida albicans
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Amanita toxicans
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Back 94

(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (sch11)

Front 95

11. The common mushrooms, puffballs, and truffles belong to the class of fungi called
(a) Ascomycetes
(b) Basidiomycetes
(c) Zygomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes

Back 95

(b) Basidiomycetes (sch11)

Front 96

12. The cause of thrush, yeast infection, and other maladies in humans is the fungus
(a) Cryptococcus neoformans
(b) Agaricus nigricans
(c) Candida albicans
(d) Rhizopus stolonifer

Back 96

(c) Candida albicans (sch11)

Front 97

13. All the following characteristics can be found in fungi except
(a) They lack chlorophyll.
(b) They have a heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
(c) They are generally motile.
(d) They are unicellular or multicellular.

Back 97

(c) They are generally motile (sch11)

Front 98

14. The unique substance chitin is found in the fungal
(a) cytoplasm
(b) spore
(c) cell wall
(d) mitochondrion

Back 98

(c) cell wall (sch11)

Front 99

15. Vegetative hyphae are those hyphae used for
(a) producing reproductive structures
(b) absorbing nutrients
(c) forming mitochondria
(d) forming septa

Back 99

(b) absorbing nutrients (sch11)

Front 100

16. Most fungi live in the presence of
(a) oxygen gas
(b) high- alkaline environments
(c) oxygen- free environments
(d) environments rich in carbon dioxide

Back 100

(a) oxygen gas (sch11)

Front 101

17. The carbon dioxide released by yeast cells during their metabolism is used
(a) for producing silk
(b) to flavor liqueurs
(c) to produce spores
(d) to make bread rise

Back 101

(d) to make bread rise (sch11)

Front 102

18. The asexual reproductive process of budding occurs in
(a) all fungi
(b) yeasts
(c) fungi undergoing sexual reproduction
(d) none of the fungi

Back 102

(b) yeasts (sch11)

Front 103

19. Sporangia are fungal structures
(a) in which spores are formed
(b) used for obtaining nutrients from the environment
(c) where energy is released from carbohydrates
(d) where ribosomes are synthesized

Back 103

(a) in which spores are formed (sch11)

Front 104

20. The common edible mushroom is a
(a) mass of fungal spores
(b) type of hypha
(c) tightly packed mycelium
(d) structure used for producing asexual spores

Back 104

(c) tightly packed mycelium (sch11)

Front 105

1. All the following characteristics apply to the protozoa except
(a) Protozoa are unicellular.
(b) Protozoa display a heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
(c) Many species of protozoa have the ability to move.
(d) Protozoa have chlorophyll dissolved in their cytoplasm.

Back 105

(d) Protozoa have chlorophyll dissolved in their cytoplasm (sch12)

Front 106

2. The characteristics displayed by protozoa are most closely similar to the characteristics of
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) bacteria
(d) viruses

Back 106

(b) animals (sch12)

Front 107

3. All the following mechanisms are used as means of motion in various species of protozoa except
(a) pili
(b) cilia
(c) pseudopodia
(d) flagella

Back 107

(a) pili (sch12)

Front 108

4. Both pinocytosis and phagocytosis are processes used by protozoa to
(a) bring materials into the cytoplasm
(b) perform chemiosmosis
(c) synthesize carbohydrates using energy from the sun
(d) synthesize proteins from amino acids

Back 108

(a) bring materials into the cytoplasm (sch12)

Front 109

5. The feeding form of a protozoan is known as the
(a) cyst
(b) heterocyst
(c) tronchodon
(d) trophozoite

Back 109

(d) trophozoite (sch12)

Front 110

6. Members of the class Sarcodina include the protozoa that
(a) display no organs for locomotion
(b) have cell walls
(c) form spores
(d) move by pseudopodia

Back 110

(d) move by pseudopodia (sch12)

Front 111

7. The slipper- shaped Paramecium has both
(a) spores and cysts
(b) cilia and flagella
(c) a macronucleus and a micronucleus
(d) the ability to cause disease in humans

Back 111

(c) a macronucleus and a micronucleus (sch12)

Front 112

8. Fully half the deaths associated with AIDS are due to infection by the protozoan
(a) Euglena gracilis
(b) Pneumocystis carinii
(c) Giardia lamblia
(d) Anopheles nigricans

Back 112

(b) Pneumocystis carinii (sch12)

Front 113

9. The contractile vacuole of protozoa is used for
(a) storing phosphate granules
(b) maintaining optimal fluid levels
(c) producing disease- causing toxins
(d) motility

Back 113

(b) maintaining optimal fluid levels (sch12)

Front 114

10. Domestic housecats are important in the transmission of the protozoan that causes
(a) dysentery
(b) malaria
(c) toxoplasmosis
(d) spinal meningitis

Back 114

(c) toxoplasmosis (sch12)

Front 115

11. The formation of a cyst permits a protozoan to
(a) move
(b) synthesize protein
(c) survive in the external environment
(d) remain alive in the tissues of mosquitoes

Back 115

(c) survive in the external environment (sch12)

Front 116

12. The cause of African sleeping sickness belongs to the same class of protozoa as
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Giardia lamblia
(c) Paramecium
(d) radiolaria

Back 116

(b) Giardia lamblia (sch12)

Front 117

13. Which of the following may not be found in protozoal cells?
(a) mitochondria
(b) Golgi bodies
(c) lysosomes
(d) cell walls

Back 117

(d) cell walls (sch12)

Front 118

14. All protozoa are known to possess a
(a) cyst form
(b) cytopharynx
(c) set of cilia
(d) cell membrane

Back 118

(d) cell membrane (sch12)

Front 119

15. The human disease malaria occurs primarily in the
(a) brain
(b) red blood cells
(c) tubules of the urinary system
(d) sacs of the lungs

Back 119

(b) red blood cells (sch12)

Front 120

1. Which of the following statements applies to the viruses:
(a) They metabolize organic materials and grow actively.
(b) They are noncellular particles.
(c) They produce various waste products.
(d) They adapt quickly to their local environment.

Back 120

(b) They are noncellular particles (sch14)

Front 121

2. In order to see the viruses
(a) The oil immersion lens must be used.
(b) A dark- field microscope must be employed.
(c) An electron microscope is necessary.
(d) The low- power objective is sufficient.

Back 121

(c) An electron microscope is necessary (sch14)

Front 122

3. All of the following are possible components of viruses except
(a) a capsid of protein
(b) a genome of nucleic acid
(c) a membranelike envelope
(d) a cytoplasm with enzymes

Back 122

(d) a cytoplasm with enzymes (sch14)

Front 123

4. The genome of a virus may be composed of
(a) DNA but not RNA
(b) RNA but not DNA
(c) both RNA and DNA together in the same virus
(d) either DNA or RNA

Back 123

(d) either DNA or RNA (sch14)

Front 124

5. Substances used by the virus to unite with its host cell are often contained in the
(a) genome
(b) spikes
(c) DNA portion of the virus
(d) RNA portion of the virus

Back 124

(b) spikes (sch14)

Front 125

6. The icosahedral shape assumed by many viruses resembles
(a) a spiral coil
(b) a boxlike arrangement
(c) a geometric figure of 20 equilateral triangles
(d) a rectangle with triangular corners

Back 125

(c) a geometric figure of 20 equilateral triangles (sch14)

Front 126

7. In order for viruses to replicate in their host cells, all the following must occur except
(a) The genome must be released in the host cell cytoplasm.
(b) ATP must be synthesized within the virus.
(c) The virus must unite with the correct host cell.
(d) The host cell must contain ribosomes for the synthesis of proteins.

Back 126

(b) ATP must be synthesized within the virus (sch14)

Front 127

8. All of the following are considered in categorizing a virus except
(a) the type of nucleic acid it has
(b) the single- strandedness or double- strandedness of the genome
(c) the symmetry of the capsid
(d) the Gram reaction

Back 127

(d) the Gram reaction (sch14)

Front 128

9. Most of the organic compounds and structures necessary for the synthesis of new viruses are contained
(a) in the viral capsid
(b) in the host cell
(c) in the viral genome
(d) in the viral envelope

Back 128

(b) in the host cell (sch14)

Front 129

10. A lysogenic virus is one which
(a) remains in the host cell nucleus
(b) multiplies immediately after it enters the host cell
(c) contains its own ATP for replication
(d) contains its own enzymes for replication

Back 129

(a) remains in the host cell nucleus (sch14)

Front 130

11. An envelope is acquired by certain viruses when they
(a) enter the host cell nucleus
(b) combine the genome and capsid
(c) bud through the host cell membrane
(d) migrate to the Golgi body

Back 130

(c) bud through the host cell membrane (sch14)

Front 131

12. The type of disease caused by a virus is most dependent upon
(a) the type of nucleic acid in the viral genome
(b) the presence or absence of capsids in the virus
(c) the tissue infected by the virus
(d) whether there are spikes in the viral envelope

Back 131

(c) the tissue infected by the virus (sch14)

Front 132

13. Oncogenic viruses are those viruses believed involved in
(a) cases of hepatitis
(b) tumors and cancers
(c) skin diseases in animals only
(d) viral replication without the use of the genome

Back 132

(b) tumors and cancers (sch14)

Front 133

14. Most protection against viral disease in the body takes place through the activities of
(a) penicillin molecules
(b) antibody molecules
(c) antigen molecules
(d) interferon molecules

Back 133

(b) antibody molecules (sch14)

Front 134

15. Antiviral drugs are used to
(a) inhibit the replication of viruses within cells
(b) prevent the formation of enzymes within the viral genome
(c) inhibit the formation of the viral envelope
(d) stimulate the production of antibodies in the body

Back 134

(a) inhibit the replication of viruses within cells (sch14)

Front 135

1. All the following represent nonspecific mechanisms of body defense except
(a) mucus that traps particles in the respiratory tract
(b) stomach acid
(c) IgM
(d) phagocytosis

Back 135

(c) IgM (scg16)

Front 136

2. Fever accomplishes all the following in the body except
(a) It speeds blood to the infection site.
(b) It increases the efficiency of metabolism in body cells.
(c) It increases the efficiency of phagocytosis.
(d) It stimulates the recognition of antigens by B cells.

Back 136

(d) It stimulates the recognition of antigens by B cells (scg16)

Front 137

3. Which of the following is true of antibodies:
(a) They are also known as immunoglobulins.
(b) They are produced by T cells.
(c) They are composed of protein.
(d) They exist in five different types.

Back 137

(a) They are also known as immunoglobulins (scg16)

Front 138

4. The antibody secreted into the cavities of the body, such as the gastrointestinal tract, is
(a) IgD
(b) IgA
(c) IgG
(d) IgE

Back 138

(b) IgA (scg16)

Front 139

5. Monocytes and neutrophils are important cells participating in
(a) antibody production
(b) perforin production
(c) passive immunity
(d) phagocytosis

Back 139

(d) phagocytosis (scg16)

Front 140

6. All the following are true of lysozyme except
(a) It is found in tears and saliva.
(b) It is an enzyme.
(c) It is a type of antibody.
(d) It destroys the cell walls of Gram- positive bacteria.

Back 140

(c) It is a type of antibody (scg16)

Front 141

7. Those phagocytes found in the tissues but not in the bloodstream are
(a) plasma cells
(b) macrophages
(c) neutrophils
(d) basophils

Back 141

(b) macrophages (scg16)

Front 142

8. Small molecules function poorly as antigens
(a) because they are attracted to macrophages
(b) because they possess no epitopes
(c) because they do not enter the bloodstream
(d) because they are part of the nonspecific mechanism of defense

Back 142

(a) because they are attracted to macrophages (scg16)

Front 143

9. T cells originate from stem cells located in the
(a) liver
(b) bone marrow
(c) thyroid gland
(d) gastrointestinal tract

Back 143

(b) bone marrow (scg16)

Front 144

10. Among the organs of the body that are rich in mature T cells and B cells are the
(a) brain and spinal cord
(b) liver and gall bladder
(c) small and large intestine
(d) spleen and lymph nodes

Back 144

(d) spleen and lymph nodes (scg16)

Front 145

11. All basic antibody molecules consist of
(a) four polysaccharides
(b) four chains of amino acids
(c) four enzyme molecules
(d) four ATP molecules

Back 145

(b) four chains of amino acids (scg16)

Front 146

12. The concept of immunological tolerance explains
(a) why people do not develop immune responses to themselves
(b) why individuals mount immune responses to small molecules
(c) why B cells and T cells are different
(d) why the maturation site for B cells cannot be located

Back 146

(a) why people do not develop immune responses to themselves (scg16)

Front 147

13. For the first six months of its life, a child depends on antibodies
(a) received in food
(b) obtained from its mother
(c) acquired from the environment
(d) produced from its immune system cells

Back 147

(b) obtained from its mother (scg16)

Front 148

14. Cytotoxic T cells are known for their ability to unite with
(a) bacteria and viruses
(b) small molecules known as epitopes
(c) cells of fungi and protozoa
(d) human tissue cells

Back 148

(c) cells of fungi and protozoa (scg16)

Front 149

15. IgE is well known for its participation in the
(a) phagocytic reaction
(b) passive immunity reaction
(c) allergic reaction
(d) reticuloendothelial reaction

Back 149

(c) allergic reaction (scg16)