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114 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Gelatin Hydrolysis
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M: Nutrient Gelatin Deep
S: Gelatin E: Gelatinase I/R: None EP: Amino Acids |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Starch Hydrolysis
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M: Starch Agar
S: Starch E: Amylase I/R: Iodine EP: Glucose |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Casein Hydrolysis
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M: Milk Agar
S: Casein (Milk Protein) E: Caseinase I/R: None EP: Amino Acids |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Phenol Red Broth Sugar Fermentation Test
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M: Phenol Red Fermentation Broth
S: Glucose, Lactose, Sucrose, or Mannitol E: Fermentation Set of Enzymes I/R: Phenol Red (initial pH 7.4) EP: Small amounts of acids, alcohol, and gases (CO2 + H2) |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Litmus Milk
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M: Litmus Milk (initial pH 6.8)
S: Casein, Lactose E: Lactase, Caseinase I/R: Litmus Blue EP: Acids, Alcohol, Ammonia, Soft Curd |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Indole Test
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M: 1% Tryptone Broth
S: Trptophan E: Tryptophanase I/R: Kovac's reagent EP: Indole |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Methyl Red Test
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M: MR-VP Broth (Initial pH 6.9)
S: Glucose E: Complete Fermentation Set of Enzymes I/R: Methyl Red EP: Large amounts of acids |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Voges-Proskauer Test
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M: MR-VP Broth (initial pH 6.9)
S: Glucose E: Incomplete Fermentation Set of Enzymes I/R: VP Reagent I & II EP: Acetoin |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Citrate Test
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M: Simmon's Citrate Agar Slant
S: Citrate E: Citrase I/R: Brom Thymol Blue EP: Sodium Carbonate |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Nitrate Reduction Test
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M: Nitrate Broth
S: Nitrate & Ammonia can be substrates E: Nitratase I/R: Nitrate Reagent A & B EP: Nitrite, Ammonia, or Nitrogen Gas |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Hydrogen Sulfide Production Test
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M: Triple Sugar Iron Agar Slant
S: Cysteine E: Cysteine Desulfurase I/R: Ferrous Sulfate EP: Hydrogen Sulfide Gas (invisible EP), Ferric Sulfide (visible EP) |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Urea Test
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M: Urea Broth
S: Urea E: Urease I/R: Phenol Red EP: Ammonia |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Oxidase Test
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M: Tryptose Agar Slant
S: Oxidase reagent E: Oxidase I/R: Oxidase reagent EP: Indophenol |
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Medium, Substrate, Enzyme, Indicator/Reagent, and End Products of Catalase Test
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M: Tryptose Agar Slant
S: 3% Hydrogen Peroxide E: Catalase I/R: 3% Hydrogen Peroxide EP: Oxygen bubbles and Water |
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Optimal temperature for Psychrophiles, Mesophiles, and Thermophiles
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P: 15-20C
M: 35-40C T: 50-60C |
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What are the 3 major types of media?
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Nonsynthetic media
Synthetic Media Living Media |
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Describe the composition of the Nonsynthetic, Synthetic, and Living media
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Non: Not chemically defined
Syn: Chemically defined Living: Composed of living cells |
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Milk, blood, urine, and tissue extracts from plants & animals are used to make what type of medias?
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Nonsynthetic
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Nutrient agar is what type of media? What type of special media is it?
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-Synthetic
-Maintenance |
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Tissue culture cells (cell lines) and Lab animals & plants are what type of media?
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Living
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What is an isolation media?
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-Rich media
-Supplies optimal growth requirements |
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Sabouraud, Typticase Soy, Zobell 2216, and Blood agar are what type of special media
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Isolation media
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Describe the maintenance media
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-Maintains minimal growth req.
-Slow growth to prevent build up of wastes & depletion of nutrients |
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What is an enrichment media?
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-Rich media
-Req. for growth of fastidious microbes |
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Define Differential Media
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Differentiates groups or types of organisms by a specific chemical reaction usually observed by a color change, due to the presence of an indicator
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Blood, Eosin Methylene Blue, and Mannitol Salt agars are what type of special media?
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Differential media
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Phenyl Ethyl Alcohol, Eosin Methylene Blue, Sabouraud, and Mannitol Salt agar are what type o specialized media?
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Selective media
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Describe a positive reaction for Alpha, Beta, and Gamma hemolysis
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Alpha: Incomplete, green-blue color
Beta: Complete, clear Gamma: No hemolysis |
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What makes Eosin Methylene Blue agar a selective media? What makes it differential?
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Sel: EMB inhibits the growth of gram positive bacteria
Dif: EMB causes only E. coli to produce a green metallic sheen |
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What makes Mannitol Salt Agar a selective media? What makes it differential?
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Sel: 7.5% Salt allows only Staphlococcus species to grow
Dif: Phenol red will turn yellow when mannitol is fermented by Staph. aureus |
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What makes Phenyl Ethyl Alcohol agar a selective media?
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Phenyl Ethyl Alcohol inhibits the growth of all gram neg. bacteria
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What makes Sabouraud agar a Selective and Isolation media?
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pH 5.6 is an optimal req. for molds & yeast and an inhibitory agent for other types of microbes
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What type of special media is Blood Agar?
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Enrichment, DIfferential, and Isolation
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What bacteria is positive for the Gelatin hydrolysis? Negative?
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(+) Bacillus subtilis
(+) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (-)Escherichia coli |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Gelatin hydrolysis test
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(+) Liquefaction of media
(-) Non-liquefaction of media |
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Define Hydrolysis reaction
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Chemical reaction that requires hydrolases (exoenzymes) and water to breakdown large macromolecules
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Starch hydrolysis test.
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(+) Clear area around edge of colony
(-) Purple-black area, no clearing, around colony |
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What bacteria is positive for the starch hydrolysis test? Negative?
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(+) Bacillus subtilis
(-) Escherichia coli (-) Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Casein hydrolysis test.
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(+) Clear area around edge of colony
(-) No clearing around colony |
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What bacteria is positive for the Casein hydrolysis test? Negative?
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(+) Bacillus subtilis
(-) Escherichia coli (-) Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Phenol red broth fermentation test
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(+) Yellow color (pH < 7.0)
(+) Gas (-) Red color (pH 7+) |
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Describe the reaction for the Litmus Milk test
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Acidic: pink tube, fermentation of lactose (pH 4.5 or less), and soft curd formation
Alkaline: purple, proteolysis of casein (pH 8.3 or above), and soft curd formation |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Indole test
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(+) Red ring at top of tube
(-) Yellow ring at top of tube |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Methyl red test
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(+) pH 4.5 or less, red color
(-) pH above 4.5, yellow color |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Voges-Proskauer test
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(+) Red tube
(-) Yellow tube |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Citrate test
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(+) Blue, growth
(-) Green, no growth |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Nitrate reduction test
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Pre-zinc powder:
(+) Red = reduction of nitrate to nitrite Post-zinc powder: (+) Colorless (-) Red, zinc reduces nitrate to nitrite |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Hydrogen sulfide test
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(+) Black ppt
(-) No black ppt |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Urea test
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(+) Hot pink color
(-) No color change, light orange |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Oxidase test
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(+) Purple
(-) No color change |
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Describe a positive and negative reaction for the Catalase test
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(+) Oxygen bubbles
(-) No oxygen bubbles |
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What bacteria is positive/negatiive for the Phenol red broth sugar fermentation test
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(+) Escherichia coli
(+) Enterobacter aerogenes (+) Proteus vulgaris (-) Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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What bacteria is positive/negatiive for the Indole test
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(+) Escherichia coli
(-) Enterobacter aerogenes |
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What bacteria is positive/negatiive for the Methyl red test
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(+) Escherichia coli
(-) Enterobacter aerogenes |
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What bacteria is positive/negatiive for the Voges-Proskauer test
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(+) Enterobacter aerogenes
(-) Escherichia coli |
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What bacteria is positive/negatiive for the Citrate test
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(+) Enterobacter aerogenes
(-) Escherichia coli |
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What bacteria is positive/negatiive for the Nitrate reduction test
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(+) Escherichia coli
(+) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (-) Micrococcus luteus |
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What bacteria is positive/negatiive for the Hydrogen sulfide test
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(+) Proteus vulgaris
(-) Escherichia coli |
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What bacteria is positive/negatiive for the Urea test
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(+) Proteus vulgaris
(-) Escherichia coli |
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What bacteria is positive/negatiive for the Oxidase test
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(+) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(-) Escherichia coli |
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What bacteria is positive/negatiive for the Catalase test
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(+) Staphylococcus epidermidis
(+) Micrococcus luteus (-) Streptococcus faecalis |
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What organism is this?
A, B, C, D, E |
Amoeba proteus
A: Macronucleus B: Food vacuoles C: Pseudopods D: Ectoplasm E: Endoplasm |
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What organism is this? Form?
A, B, C, D, E |
Entamoeba histolytica (Trophozoite)
A: Macronucleus B: Food vacuoles C: Pseudopods D: Ectoplasm E: Endoplasm |
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What organism is this? Form?
A & B |
Entamoeba histolytica (Cyst)
A: 4 nuclei B: Chromatid bodies |
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What is this organism?
A & B |
Foraminifera (Calcium carbonate) & Radiolaria (Silicon dioxide)
A: Pseudopods B: Exoskeleton |
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What is this organism?
A, B, C, D, E, F |
Euglena viridis
A: Pellicle B: Macronucleus C: Chloroplasts D: Flagella E: Eye spot F: Cytostome |
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What organism is this?
A, B, C |
Trypanosoma gambiense/ rhodesiense
A: Undulating membrane B: Flagella C: Macronucleus |
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What organism is this?
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J |
Paramecium caudatum
A: Cilia B: Pellicle C: Macronucleus D: Micronucelus E: Contractile vacuole F: Anal pore G: Food vacuole H: Cytopharynx I: Cytostome J: Peristome (oral groove) |
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What cycle & phase is this? What organism is this?
A, B, C, D, E, F, G |
Schizogony phase (Erythrocytic cycle)
Plasmodium ovale/ falciparum A: Ring trophozoite B: Late trophozoite C: Schizont D: Segmenter stage E: Merozoites released F: Macronucleus G: Microgametocyte |
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What organism is this?
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J |
Plasmodium malariae/ vivax
A: Macrogamete (1N) B: Microgamete (1N) C: Fertilization D: Zygote (2N) E: Meiosis & Mitosis F: Oocyst G: Oocyst H: Sporozoites (1N) I: Rupture of oocyst J: Sprorozoites travel to mosquito's salivary glands |
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What organism is this?
A, B, C, D, E |
Nostoc
A: Gelatinous envelope B: Trichome C: Veg. cells D: Heterocyst E: Akinete |
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What organism is this?
A, B, C, D |
Spirogyra
A: Helical chloroplast B: Zygote (2N) C: Conjugation tube D: Cell wall |
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What organism is this?
A, B |
Volvox
A: Reproductive cells B: Veg./ Somatic cells |
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What type of microbes are these?
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Pennate diatoms (Bilateral symmetry)
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What type of microbes are these?
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Centric Diatoms (Radial symmetry)
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What is this cell?
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Ring trophozoite
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What is this cell?
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Schizont
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What is this cell?
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Segmenter stage
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Name the organism
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Paramecium caudatum
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Name the organism
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Euglena viridis
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Name the organism
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Trypanosoma gambiense/ rhodesiense
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Name the organism
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Entamoeba histolytica
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Name the organisms
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Pennate & Centric diatoms
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Name the organism
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Amoeba proteus
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Name the organism
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Nostoc
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Name the organism
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Volvox
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Name the organism
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Spirogyra
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What is this cell?
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Neutrophil
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What is this cell?
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Lymphocyte
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What is this cell?
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Eosinophil
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What is this cell? (Left to right)
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Neutrophil
Monocyte Neutrophil |
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Describe the blood hemolysis reaction for Staph. aureus, E. coli, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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(+) Staphylococcus aureus (beta)
(+) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (beta) (+) Escherichia coli (alpha) |
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Describe the EMB reaction for Staph. aureus, E. coli, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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(+) Escherichia coli
(+) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (-) Staphylococcus aureus |
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Describe the Phenyl Ethyl Alcohol reaction for Staph. aureus, E. coli, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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(+) Staphylococcus aureus
(-) Escherichia coli (-) Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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Describe the result of the bacteriophage reaction
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Plaque (clear spots) formed within the agar
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What phylum do Amobea proteus, Entamoeba histolytica, Radiolaria & Foraminifera belong to?
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Sarcodina
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What phylum do Euglena viridis and Trypanosoma gambiense/ rhodesiense belong to?
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Mastigophora
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What phylum does Paramecium caudatum belong to?
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Ciliophora
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What phylum do Plasmodium malariae/ vivax/ ovale/ falciparum belong to?
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Sporozoa
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What type of bacteria are Nostoc and Spirogyra?
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Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae)
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What type of bacteria are Volvox, Diatoms, and Euglena viridis?
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Algae
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What are the 2 forms that protozoans exist in? Describe them
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Trophozoite: Active form, produces disease symptoms
Cyst: Dormant, resistant form, transmission of disease |
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What percentage of protozoans are saprophytes? Pathogens?
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95% Saprophytes
4-5% Pathogens |
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Are protozoans prokaryotic or eukaryotic
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Eukaryotic
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How are protozoans classified?
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Based on method of motility
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What are characteristics of the phylum sarcodina
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-Pseudopods
-Motility by amoeboid movement |
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What is a characteristic of the phylum mastigophora
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Motility by flagella
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What are characteristics of the phylum Ciliophora
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-Motility: cilia
-Most structurally advance -Many have both macro & micro nucleus |
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What are characteristics of the phylum sporozoa
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-Non-motile
-All species = pathogen |
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Which protozoans discussed in lab are pathogens and which are non-pathogens
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Non-pathogens:
Amoeba proteus Radiolaria & Foraminifera Euglena viridis Paramecium caudatum Pathogen: Entamoeba histolytica Trypanosoma gambiense/ rhodesiense Plasmodium malariae/ vivax/ ovale/ falciparum |
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Is cyanobacteria prokaryotic or eukaryotic? What structure do they have?
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Prokaryotic
Thylakoids |
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Is algae prokaryotic or eukaryotic? What structure do they have?
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Eukaryotic
Chloroplast |
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What are the 2 photosynthetic pigments of algae? Describe them
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-Chlorophyll a (green)
-Carotenoids: Carotenes & xanthophylls (brown color) |
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What are the 2 photosynthetic pigments of cyanobacteria? Describe them
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Phycocyanin (blue)
Phycoerythrin (red) |
