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150 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Protists include |
Algae and Protozoa |
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Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but NOT in the cells of bacteria |
Nucleus, Mitochondria, Endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes |
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Eukaryotic flagella differ from bacteria flagella because only eukaryotic flagella |
Are long whip-like structures |
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Cilia are structures for motility found primarily in |
Protozoa |
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Cell walls are not usually found in |
Protozoa |
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The eukaryotic cells glycocalyx is |
Mostly polysaccharide |
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Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryotes glycocalyx |
Movement |
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The eukaryotic cell membrane is composed of |
Sterols, proteins, phospholipids, cholesterol |
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What is the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis |
Nucleolus |
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Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of |
Fungi |
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When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its Associated proteins appear as invisible network of dark fibers called |
Chromatin |
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What best describes histones |
Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus |
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The cells series of tunnel like membranes functioning in transport and storage are known as |
Endoplasmic reticulum |
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Which best describes as organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify and package proteins for cell secretion
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Golgi Apparatus
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Protists with contractile vacuoles
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use them to expel excess water from the cell
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Which organelle is found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi
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Chloroplast
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Which BEST describes the cytoskeleton
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anchors organelles, provides support, functions in movements of the cytoplasm, helps maintain cell shape
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What are filamentous fungi called
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Molds
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Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called
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Dimorphic
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All of the following are helminths
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tapeworms, flukes, flatworms, roundworms
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Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of
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Helminths
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Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host
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Definitive Host
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Larval development of helminths occurs in which host
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Intermediate (Secondary) host
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After returning from a trip to Africa, Tom begins to feel very tired and weak. He has severe anemia. A blood smear reveals a protozoan is present in his blood. The health care provider tells Tom he has malaria. Which of the following could be the causative agent of his disease
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Plasmodium falciparum
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Viruses have all of the following
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metabolism, genes, the ability to infect host cells, ultramicroscopic size
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Who developed a rabies vaccine by separating bacteria from virus using a filter
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Louis Pasteur
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Virus capsids are made from subunits called
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Capsomeres
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What is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus called
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Capsid
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A naked virus has a
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Nucleocapsid
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Which of the following is not correct related to virus envelopes
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are located between the capsid and the nucleic acid
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Viral spikes
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protrude from the envelope
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What does the core of every virus particle ALWAYS contain
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Either DNA or RNA
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Which of the following is NOT associated with every virus
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Envelope
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Reverse transcriptase synthesizes
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DNA from RNA
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In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's ______ while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's______
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Nucleus, Cytoplasm
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Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect
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inclusions in the nucleus, multinucleated giant cells, inclusions in the cytoplasm, cells change shape
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Viruses attach to their hosts via
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Host glycoproteins
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What are persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically called
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Chronic latent viruses
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What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors
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Tail fibers
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Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called
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latent
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What does lysogeny refer to
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viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome
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What are viruses that infect bacteria specifically called
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bacteriophages
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Which of the following is INCORRECT about prophages
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cause lysis of host cells
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What type of phage enters an inactive prophage stage
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Temperate
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The activation of a prophage is called
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Induction
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What do cells grown in a culture form
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monolayer
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A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called ________cultures
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Cell
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What are infectious protein particles called
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prion
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What is Creutzfeld-Jacob disease
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A spongiform encephalopathy of humans
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What organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found
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mitochondria
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When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms, the process is called
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Genetic engineering
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Which of the following is not considered a microorganism
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mosquito
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All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
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are too small to be seen with the unaided eye
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Which activity is an example of biotechnology
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Eschericia coli producing human insulin
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Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed
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microorganisms
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The study of the immune response to infection caused by microorganisms is called
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immunology
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Which of the following does not indicate microbe involvement in energy and nutrient flow
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formation of oxygen by an oxygenic photosynthesis
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The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called
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decomposers
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The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
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Prokaryotes
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The first prokaryotes appeared about _____ billion years ago
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3.5
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Which of the following is not a human use of microorganisms
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manufacturing copper wire
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Using microorganisms to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of
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bioremediation
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Disease-causing microorganisms are called
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Pathogens
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The most prevalent worldwide infectious diseases are
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respiratory diseases
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Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms
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lack cell structure
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Helminths are
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parasitic worms
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Organisms called parasites are
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always harmful to their host
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacteria
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Its DNA is wrapped around histones
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What are the two functions of bacterial appendages
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attachment and motility |
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Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except
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cilia
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Chemotaxis refers to the ability to
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move in response to a chemical
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Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed
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positive chemotaxis
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What is the term that refers to the presence of a tuft of flagella emerging from the same site
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Lophotrichous
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What is the term that refers to the presence of flagella over the cell surface
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Peritrichous
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The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called
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Fimbriae
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Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized by white blood cells
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capsule
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The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's
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wall
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The cell ______can be composed of three layers; the cytoplasmic membrane, the cell wall and the outer membrane
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envelope
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During the Gram stain, ____cells decolorize when the alcohol is applied
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Gram negative
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If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the
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cell wall
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The _____ stain is used to stain and differentiate Mycobacterium and Nocardia from other bacteria
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Acid fast
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The enzyme _____ found in tears and saliva, can hydrolyze the bonds in the glycan chains of certain bacterial cell walls
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Lysozyme
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Lysozyme is most effective against
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Gram positive organisms
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Which of the following does not pertain to endotoxin
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Is found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls
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The site(s) for most ATP synthesis in bacterial cells is (are) the
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cell membrane
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All bacterial cells have
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one or more chromosomes
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Which statement best describes plasmids
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are often the site of pathogenic genes
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The function of bacterial endospores is
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protection of genetic material during harsh conditions
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The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following
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Inoculation, Incubation, Isolation, Identification, inspection
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A pure selective culture contains
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none of these-only one species of microorganism, only bacteria, a variety of different microbes from one source, a variety of species from the same genus
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The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is known as the
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Inoculum
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The three physical forms of laboratory media are
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solid, semisolid and liquid
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Which of the following is not an inoculating tool
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petri dish
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Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen
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Objective lens
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Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the virtual image of the specimen
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Ocular lens
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Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the specimen
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Iris diaphragm
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A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is not chemically definable would be termed
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Complex
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A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanantion
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The culture medium must be selective
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A reducing medium contains
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Hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors
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Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium
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Differential
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Be able to explain why microorganisms need macronutrients
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Microorganisms need macronutrients because they are needed in relatively large quantities and play principle roles in cell structure and metabolism.
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Be able to identify what compound makes-up the dry weight of a microbial cell, and highest concentration of a cell.
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97% of the dry cell weight is composed of organic materials and 96% of the dry cell weight is composed of 6 elements (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Sulfur) CHONPS
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Be familiar with the purpose of mineral ions (i.e., magnesium) for a microbial cell.
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The mineral ions have either a positive or negative charge. On the molecular level the element has either too few or too many electrons, this unstable state ionic state allows the element to bond readily with water, making it possible for the cell to absorb it the cell can then make changes to move nutrients to the areas that need them
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Photoheterotrophs
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have sunlight as their energy source, they are organic. Example-purple and green photosynthetic bacteria
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Chemoheterotrophs
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are organisms that derive their energy and carbon from organic molecules-example-protozoa, fungi, many bacteria, animals (the majority of heterotrophic microorganisms are chemoheterotrophs. Release energy in the form of ATP. energy source is from metabolic conversion of the nutrients from other organisms, their carbon source is organic. Examples protozoa, fungi, many bacteria and animals
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Heterotrophs
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are organisms that must obtain its carbon in an organic form, get their energy from other organisms or sunlight, (fungi are saprobes which obtain substrates from dead plants or animals in soil or aquatic habitats)
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Phototrophs
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are microbes that photosynthesize (categorized via their energy source), sunlight is their energy source, their carbon source is CO2, examples are photosynthetic organisms such as algae, plants, cyanobacteria
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Autotrophs
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use inorganic CO2 as its carbon source, they have a special capacity to convert CO2 into organic compounds and not nutritionally dependent on other living things,get their energy from nonliving sources
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Saprobes
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energy source is metabolizing the organic matter of dead organisms, their carbon source is organic example fungi and bacteria (decomposers)
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What is diffusion?
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The phenomenon of molecular movement, in which atoms or molecules move in a gradient from an area of higher density or concentration to an area of lower density or concentration
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What is osmosis?
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The diffusion of water through a selectively or differentially permeable membrane (has passageways that allow free diffusion of water, but block certain other dissolved molecules, when the membrane is placed between solutions of differing concentrations of solute and the solute cannot pass through the membrane, water will diffuse at a faster rate from the side that has more water to the side that has less water. This will continue until the concentration of water is equalized on both sides of the membrane
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Be able to define/describe active transport.
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The transport of nutrients against the diffusion gradient or in the same direction as the natural gradient but at a rate faster than by diffusion alone. The presence of specific membrane proteins (permeases and pumps), the expenditure of energy. Examples of substances transported actively are monosaccharides, amino acids, organic acids, phosphates and metal ions
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Hypertonic
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having a greater osmotic pressure than a reference solution
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Hypotonic,
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, having a lower osmotic pressure than a reference solution
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Isotonic
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-two solutions having the same osmotic pressure such that when separated by a semipermeable membrane there is no net movement of solvent in either direction
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Psychotroph
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grow slowly in cold temps but have an optimum temp between 15 and 30 degrees Celsius (staphylococcus aureus and listeria monocytogenes) are able to grow at refrigerator temps and cause food borne disease
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Psychrophiles-
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optimum temp below 15 degrees Celsius but capable of growth at 0 degrees Celsius, obligate with respect to cold and cannot grow above 20 degrees Celsius, storage at refrigerator temps incubates rather than inhibits them, natural habitats of psychochrophillic bacteria, algae and fungi and algae are lakes, rivers, snowfields, polar ice and the deep ocean, they are rarely pathogenic
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Mesophiles
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majority of medically significant microorganisms, grow at intermediate temps between 20 and 40 degrees Celsius, inhabit animals and plants as well as soil and water in temperate, subtropical, and tropical regions, human pathogens have optimal temps between 30 and 40 degrees Celsius
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Thermoduric
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can survive short exposure to high temps but are normally Mesophiles, common contaminants of heated or pasteurized foods, examples are heat-resistant cysts such as Giardia and sporeformers such as Bacillus and Clostridium
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Thermophile
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grows optimally at temps greater than 45 degrees Celsius, they live is soil and water associated with volcanic activity, compost piles, and in habitats exposed directly to the sun. vary in heat requirements with a range growth of 45 to 80 degrees Celsius, most eukaryotic forms cannot survive above 60 degrees Celsius
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Extreme thermophiles
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grow between 80 and 121 degrees Celsius
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What are the three main types of symbiosis?
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a symbiosis is a general term to denote a situation in which two organisms live together in a close partnership. Mutualism-organisms live in an obligatory but mutually beneficial relationship Commensalism-the partner called the commensal receives benefits while its partner is neither harmed nor benefitted Parasitism-a relationship in which the host organism provides the parasitic microbe with nutrients and a habitat, parasite usually harms the host to some extent
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What are the four stages in the Normal Growth Curve? Be familiar with the characteristics that describe each stage.
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Death phase-cells begin to die at an exponential rate due to the build-up of wastes, speed with which death occurs depends on the resistance of the species and how toxic the conditions are, slower than the exponential growth phase. Lag phase-is a “flat” period of growth to newly inoculated cells that require a period of adjustment, enlargement, and synthesis, cells are not yet multiplying at their maximum rate, population of cells is so sparse or dilute that sampling misses them. Exponential phase-growth increases geometrically, will continue as long as cells have adequate nutrients and the environment is favorable. Stationary phase-cell birth and deaths are equal, cell division rate is slowing down and is caused by depleted nutrients and oxygen, plus excretion of organic acids and biochemical pollutants into the growth medium
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What are enzymes?
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They are protein catalyst that facilitates metabolic reactions
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Be able to list the characteristics that make-up enzymes (i.e., they can be used over and over, etc.).
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most enzymes are proteins and may require cofactors, they are considered macromolecules, great example of catalysts which speed up the rate of cellular reactions, they have unique characteristics such as shape, specificity and function, enable metabolic reactions to proceed at a speed compatible with life, have an active sight for target molecules called substrates, are much larger in size than their substrates, are not used up or permanently changed by the reaction, can be recycled, thus can function in extremely low concentrations, are greatly affected by temperature and Ph, can be regulated by feedback and genetic mechanisms (pg 169 table 7.1) side note coenzymes are derived from vitamins
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What are cofactors
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are either organic molecules (coenzymes) or inorganic elements (metal ions)
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What is a holoenzyme
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referred to as a conjugated enzyme and it’s a combination of a protein and one or more cofactors
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What are substrates-
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the specific molecule upon which an enzyme acts (pg 169-170)
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What is peptidase
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an enzyme that hydrolyzes a peptide bond
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Ligase
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catalyze the formation of bonds with the input of ATP and the removal of water
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Be familiar with linear pathways and cyclic pathways-
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the product of one reaction is often the reactant (substrate)for the next forming a linear pathway, may have branches that that provide alternate methods for nutrient processing. Cyclic pathways in which the starting molecule is regenerated to initiate another turn on the cycle
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Be able to state the outcome when energy is released by electrons in the cell. (Hint: what is the energy release by electrons used for?)
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It’s used to phosphorylate ADP
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Be able to list the process/characteristics of glycolysis
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- the energy yielding breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid or lactic acid. It is often called anaerobic glycolysis because no molecular oxygen is consumed in the degradation
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How do eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes?
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in a bacterium the chromosome consists of a single naked circle of DNA, in eukaryotes each chromosome consists of a single linear DNA molecule
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Genome
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the complete set of chromosomes and genes in an organism
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Plasmid-
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extra chromosomal genetic units characterized by several features. A plasmid is a double stranded DNA that is smaller than and replicates independently of the cell chromosome; it bears genes that are not essential for growth, it can bear genes that code for adaptive traits and it is transmissible to other bacteria
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Genotype
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the genetic makeup of an organism the genotype is usually responsible for an organism’s phenotype or expressed characteristics
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Phenotype
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the observable characteristics of an organism produced by the interaction between its genetic potential (genotype) and the environment
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Histones-
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proteins associated with eukaryotic DNA, these simple proteins serve as winding spools to compact and condense chromosomes
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Amino acids
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the building blocks of proteins, they exist in 20 naturally occurring forms that impart different characteristics to the various proteins they compose
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Nucleotides
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the basic structural unit of DNA and RNA; each nucleotide consists of a phosphate, a sugar and a nitrogenous base such as adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine (DNA only) or uracil (RNA only)
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Purines
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a nitrogenous base that is an important encoding component of DNA and RNA. The two most common purines are adenine and guanine
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Mutation
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a permanent inheritable alteration in the DNA sequence or content of a cell
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Be able to describe nitrogenous bases-
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a nitrogen containing molecule that has the same chemical properties as a base, they make up the building blocks of DNA and RNA (adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine and uracil
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Transcription?
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Master code of DNA that is first used to synthesize an RNA molecule
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Translation?
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And then the information contained in the RNA is then used to produce proteins
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What are codons
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Mrna nucleotides are read in groups of three, three nucleotides are called a codon, and it is the codons that dictate which amino acid is added to a growing peptide chain
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Introns
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the segments on split genes of eukaryotes that do not code for polypeptides. They can have regulatory functions
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exons
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a stretch of eukaryotic DNA coding for a corresponding portion of mRNA that is translated into peptides, intervening stretches of DNA
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