Micro Final

Front 1

The first and second lines of defense againstmicrobial invasion are part of

Back 1

innate immunity

Front 2

One of the advantages of adaptive immunity over innateimmunity is

Back 2

the response is targeted against a single pathogen

Front 3

Which of the following statements concerningplasma cells is TRUE

Back 3

They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis

Front 4

After initial exposure to a pathogen, thephenomenon of ____produces faster, more effective response to subsequentexposures.

Back 4

immunological memory

Front 5

The protozoan that causesmalaria is an intracellular parasite of RBCs. Why is an adaptive immuneresponse problematic?

Back 5

red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the factthat they have been infected by presenting antigen

Front 6

Immunization has been ahighly successful public health strategy but has not been applied to allpathogens. Which of the following diseases are NOT vaccine-preventable?

Back 6

AIDS, colds, and malaria

Front 7

What type of vaccine is the hepatitis Bvaccine?

Back 7

a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen ofthe hepatitis virus

Front 8

OPV, the attenuated oralpoliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it

Back 8

can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-typevirulence.

Front 9

Titration is a serological procedure that

Back 9

determines the amount of an antibody in the blood.

Front 10

In precipitation tests, maximum precipitationtakes place when

Back 10

the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimalproportions.

Front 11

A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit thattests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay fromthe kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on thetest strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent?

Back 11

an immunochromatographic assay

Front 12

Exposure to HIV can be verified using a(n)________ assay

Back 12

western blot

Front 13

Which of the following is NOTconsidered a hypersensitivity reaction?

Back 13

immune system attack on the thyroid gland; autoimmune disorder

Front 14

The ________ is a layer of tough fibers and fatcells that anchors the skin to the deeper tissues.

Back 14

fascia holds organs

Front 15

A child has a rash on theface, arms, upper legs, and torso. It is splotchy and intensifies after beingin the sun. The child does not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs andsymptoms are consistent with

Back 15

fifth disease. Parvo caused

Front 16

Under some circumstances,________ is beneficial, but under other conditions the bacteria becomeoverabundant leading to inflammation of hair follicles.

Back 16

Propionibacterium acnes acne from hair follicles

Front 17

A pigment produced by anopportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is

Back 17

pyocyanin. Makes blue hue pseudomnia

Front 18

A small puncture wound on a woman's arm hasbecome swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissuenecrosis but it is not "gassy," and under the microscopeGram-positive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes islikely to be responsible?

Back 18

Streptococcus pyogenes

hot to the touch pyo means hot

Front 19

A child complains ofintensely itchy "pimples" on the folds of the hands and wrists. Thelesions are small inflamed streaks, but do not appear to contain pus. Thechild's condition may be the result of infection with

Back 19

Sarcoptes scabiei. Streaks

Front 20

) Which of the following immunoglobulins isproduced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?

Back 20

IgE allergy!First to an allergy

Front 21

Which of the followingreactions is the result of type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity?

Back 21

breathing difficulties after exposure to mold spores

Front 22

Immediate hypersensitivity reactions result whena first exposure to antigen results in

Back 22

activation of IgE-producing B cells.

Front 23

Which of the following is an example of a type Ihypersensitivity reaction?

Back 23

watery eyes after exposure to animal dander

Front 24

The events illustrated in thefigure are part of a(n) ________ disorder.
MAST CELL WITH POLLEN DOTS

Back 24

type I hypersensitivity

Front 25

How is hemolytic disease of the newbornprevented?

Back 25

administering anti-Rh IgG late in pregnancy and after pregnancy ends;

Front 26

An accident victim receives ablood transfusion. Shortly thereafter, he begins to have difficulty breathing,develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the followingis the most likely interpretation of these events?

Back 26

the transfusion was mismatched and the recipient hadpreviously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens. 1stexposure show no symptoms 2nd exposure full blown allergic reaction

Front 27

Which of the following couldresult in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

Back 27

Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father

Front 28

An agricultural worker experiences difficultybreathing, which becomes progressively worse. Tests show inflammation anddamage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in thenormal ranges. With which disorder of the immune system are these signs andsymptoms consistent?

Back 28

type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity ;his body is making ab against the ag exposure to some chemical

Front 29

If circulating immune complexes are deposited inthe glomeruli, the ensuing type III hypersensitivity reaction can resultin

Back 29

kidney damage. glomerularnephritis

Front 30

A person with no siblings orchildren receives a kidney transplant. The kidney is an example of a(n)

Back 30

allograft. –same species

Front 31

Which of the following blood types can be safelytransfused into someone with O blood type?

Back 31

O

Front 32

If a T cell is exposed to a"hidden" antigen, what kind of immune reaction will result?

Back 32

an autoimmune disease t cell sees it when it shouldn’tbecomes auntoimmune recognize it as foreign

Front 33

Which of the followingstatements concerning rheumatoid arthritis is TRUE?

Back 33

Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation in anddestruction of the joints

Front 34

Primary immunodeficiency diseases

Back 34

are detectable close to birth.

Front 35

Which of the following wouldtest positive for the tuberculin response?

Back 35

someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or haspreviously had tuberculosis

Front 36

What is the underlying problem in most acquiredimmunodeficiencies?

Back 36

declining cell-mediated immunity happens first

Front 37

The name systemic lupus erythematosus refers inpart to the distinctive rash resulting from

Back 37

antibody-antigen complexes accumulating in the skin. SLE is type 3

Front 38

Hypotheses explaining the development ofautoimmune disease include

Back 38

molecular mimicry, genetic factors, and hormonal stimulation ofcytotoxic T cells.

Front 39

The production of cytotoxic Tcells specific for the myelin sheath of neurons leads to the disorder knownas

Back 39

multiple sclerosis.

Front 40

Which condition occurs when antibodies bind toand stimulate receptors that elicit production of thyroid hormone and growth ofthe thyroid gland?

Back 40

Graves' disease- hyperthyroid, hashimoto is hypo

Front 41

The tuberculin response is mediated by

Back 41

memory T cells

Front 42

Which of the following statements concerning softorgan allografts is TRUE?

Back 42

They induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must betreated with immunosuppressive drugs.

Front 43

The disease known as ________ is a disorder inwhich phagocytes are inefficient at killing bacteria.

Back 43

chronic granulomatous disease – collection of phagocytes cant digest thepatho

Front 44

A combination of genetic predisposition andviral infection is suspected in the development of

Back 44

type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Don’t know why it happens but get infection thendistruction of vagus nerve in pancreas.

Front 45

Antigen-antibody complexestrapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast celldegranulation are characteristic of

Back 45

type III hypersensitivity.

Front 46

The responses observed intype IV hypersensitivities result from the action of

Back 46

T cells and phagocytes.

Front 47

a person who has beenexposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injectednear the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategyrepresent?

Back 47

active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy

Front 48

Toxoid vaccines are commonlyused when

Back 48

immunity to the toxins produced by a pathogen is sufficient to preventdisease

Front 49

An infectious disease researcher isolates thepathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the labfor many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treatedwith ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. Whattype of vaccine is this?

Back 49

inactivated whole;
blew it up and made it broken

Front 50

Immunization levels in a population are high, whatprovides protection from infection for those who cannot be immunized.

Back 50

herd immunity

Front 51

Which of the followingvaccines is an infection?

Back 51

attenuated;
polio can revert and make you sick

Front 52

) The discovery of antibodiesand the understanding of their actions lead to ________ treatments fordisease.

Back 52

passive immunotherapy; vaccine

Front 53

The vaccine against smallpox developed by EdwardJenner is an example of a(n) ________ vaccine.

Back 53

attenuated

Front 54

Which of the following statements regardinginactivated vaccine is CORRECT?

Back 54

It is safer than attenuated vaccines

Front 55

Genetic manipulation of a microbe to remove oneor more virulence factors is a method for producing a(n) ________ vaccine.

Back 55

attenuated

Front 56

Which of the following statements regardingattenuated vaccines is FALSE?

Back 56

They are poorly immunogenic and require multiple immunizations(boosters).

Front 57

The appendix and the Peyer's patches of theintestines are components of the

Back 57

MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)

Front 58

What type of immunity is produced by the bodywhen a person contracts a disease?

Back 58

naturally acquired active immunity

Front 59

A sick child may have influenza or RSV. Thesevirus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requestsantibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies areprimarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of thefollowing is the most appropriate interpretation?

Back 59

the child currently has influenza and has previouslybeen exposed to RSV.

Front 60

What is the result when a dendritic cellphagocytizes a microbe and processes it?

Back 60

display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on thecell surface

Front 61

Leukocytes migrate to a site of infection inresponse to

Back 61

chemokines.

Front 62

Vaccination triggers an immune response whichproduces ________ immunity.

Back 62

artificial active

Front 63

IgE antibodies are best described as

Back 63

a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation

Front 64

Howis the development of autoimmunity normally prevented?

Back 64

Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokinesignals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive Tcells.

Front 65

Adaptive immunity issometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statementsprovides a basis for the alternative name?

Back 65

To become activated,lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they arespecific

Front 66

Whichof the following is an exogenous antigen?

Back 66

a bacterium outside a cell-exo is outside

Front 67

Largeaccumulations of unactivated self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillancefor specific antigenic determinants are found in

Back 67

the MALT and lymph nodes

Front 68

Inwhat way is the lymphatic system similar to the circulatory system?

Back 68

The composition oflymphatic fluid is similar to that of blood plasma

Front 69

Thewhite blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

Back 69

B lymphocytes and Tlymphocytes.

Front 70

Youstep on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleedfreely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely endup in the

Back 70

lymph nodes of the groin(inguinal).

Front 71

TheFc portion of an antibody is formed by

Back 71

portions of both of the heavy chains only. F-constant

Front 72

Theantibody immune response is attributed to the action of

Back 72

B lymphocytes.

Front 73

Whichof the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE?

Back 73

They can penetrate hostcells to bind intracellular antigens.

Front 74

Whichof the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes?

Back 74

interleukins

Front 75

Clonaldeletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in thebody?

Back 75

the thymus

Front 76

Phagocytic cells in theepidermis known as ________ contribute to its ability to prevent microbialinvasion.

Back 76

dendritic cells

Front 77

Responseto specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is

Back 77

the third line of defense.

Front 78

Whichof the following cells increase in number during a helminth infection?

Back 78

eosinophils

Front 79

Whatdo the nasal cavity, mouth, and urinary system have in common?

Back 79

They are lined with mucous membranes.

Front 80

)Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of

Back 80

both the absence ofnecessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.

Front 81

Thesurface of the skin serves as a barrier to microbial invasion in part becauseit is

Back 81

an acidic, high-saltenvironment

Front 82

Which of the followingcontributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?

Back 82

tears contain lysozyme andsalt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

Front 83

Whichof the following is the BEST definition of "microbialantagonism"?

Back 83

the presence of normal microbiota that protect thebody by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens frominvading the body

Front 84

Mucousmembranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue providedefense against microbial invaders?

Back 84

the mucus physically traps microbes, contains avariety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with theoutermost layer of cells.

Front 85

Which of the following are chemotactic factors for phagocytes?

Back 85

chemokines and peptidefragments from complement

Front 86

Whatis the function of NK cells?

Back 86

They identify and poison virus-infected cells.

Front 87

Mucusand sweat contain ________ which damage and kill bacteria.

Back 87

antimicrobial peptides

Front 88

Thecomplement cascade and its by-products contribute to

Back 88

triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

Front 89

Whichof the following leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that stain bluewith methylene blue?

Back 89

basophils

Front 90

Thecomponents of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterizedas

Back 90

responders to invasion.

-2nd gotten inalready

Front 91

Whichof the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens isTRUE?

Back 91

TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmicmembrane bind surface structures of microbes.

Front 92

Whichcomplement protein is the key to activating the alternative pathway ofcomplement activation?

Back 92

C3

Front 93

Whichof the following substances is/are responsible for the edema associated withinflammation?

Back 93

both leukotrienes and histamine

Front 94

The process shown in thefigure will lead to

Back 94

vasodilation.#96 on packet for pic

Front 95

Whatfeature of the skin creates a physical barrier to microbial invasion?

Back 95

The outer layers are deadcells, tightly linked together, and are frequently shed.

Front 96

)Which of the following characteristics is shared by the skin and mucousmembranes?

Back 96

they are both constantlyshedding and replacing cells

Front 97

Phagocytes are brought to asite of infection by

Back 97

detection of chemokines and complement factorgradients.

Front 98

Thephenomenon of ________ facilitates the binding of phagocyte pseudopodia topathogens

Back 98

opsonization

-also make MAC

Front 99

The________ play a role in preventing neoplastic cells from progressing tocancer.

Back 99

NK cells

Front 100

Whichof the following statements is TRUE of eosinophils?

Back 100

They secrete toxins ontothe surface of helminth parasites.

Front 101

Structuresand products of pathogens that immune cells detect and respond to arecalled

Back 101

PAMPs.

Front 102

Phagocytescan directly detect microbial molecules like LPS and peptidoglycan by means of

Back 102

toll-like receptors.

Front 103

Theleukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes

Back 103

are nonspecific leukocytesthat secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

Front 104

First line of defense may bedescribed as

Back 104

intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and soforth.

Front 105

A series of nodular lesionson an arm that fill with pus and ulcerate through the skin is characteristic ofinfection with

Back 105

Sporothrix schenckii.

Front 106

Ultraviolet illumination isthe quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following?

Back 106

Malassezia furfur

Front 107

"Ringworm"is caused by

Back 107

dermatophytes growing inthe upper dead tissue layers of the skin.

Front 108

Whichof the following can cause birth defects?

Back 108

rubella

Front 109

Commonskin warts are the result of infection with

Back 109

papillomaviruses.

Front 110

Aherpetic lesion on the finger or hand is known as a

Back 110

whitlow.

Front 111

Infection known as ________frequently begins as an injury that rapidly becomes red, swollen, hot to thetouch, and intensely painful.

Back 111

necrotizing fasciitis

Front 112

Apetechial (pinpoint) rash starting on the hands and feet and spreading to thetorso is characteristic of

Back 112

Rocky Mountain SpottedFever.

Front 113

Spreadingblack necrosis, swelling, pain and froth or bubbles are characteristic of

Back 113

gas gangrene.

Front 114

Somestrains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to

Back 114

integrate into the host cell DNA.

Front 115

Rash with macules whichswell, fill with fluid and then pus, then rupture and become crusty lesions, ischaracteristic of

Back 115

poxvirus infection. –chicken pox

Front 116

)Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease?

Back 116

the appearance of eschars on the skin

Front 117

Localized swelling of a scratch accompaniedby fever, malaise, and swollen lymph nodes may result from infection with

Back 117

Bartonella henselae.

Front 118

Thesigns and symptoms of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome are caused by

Back 118

exfoliative toxins.

Front 119

A(n)________ is a large mass of inflammation and accumulated pus under the surfaceof an area of thick skin

Back 119

carbuncle – bunnies in acar

Front 120

Virulentstrains of Staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin because they produce

Back 120

beta-lactamase. –penn isb-lactam antibiotic

Front 121

Functions of the meningesinclude

Back 121

support for the brain and spinal cord and protectionfrom external shock.

Front 122

Whichof the following nervous system diseases is treated with both passive andactive immunization?

Back 122

rabies

Front 123

Ayoung man is experiencing fever and severe headaches, and is having difficultystaying awake. He reports having spent time in Africa on a missionary tripseveral months ago. Recently he spent time in a park where he went swimming inthe lake and was bitten by a bat he attempted to catch. His cerebrospinal fluidis nearly clear, and contains long, slender, mobile cells. This descriptionindicates infection with

Back 123

Trypanosoma brucei. TRIP TO AFRICA

Front 124

Whichof the following vessels carries blood from the heart to the rest of thebody?

Back 124

the aorta

Front 125

Infectionof the lymphatic vessels is known as

Back 125

lymphangitis.

Front 126

Whichof the following is/are transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?

Back 126

both dengue fever and yellow fever

Front 127

Whichof the following is known to be teratogenic(causing birth defects in utero)?

Back 127

cytomegalovirus aka CMV alot of ppl have it

Front 128

Depletion of clottingproteins from the serum leads to the uncontrollable hemorrhaging seen in________ infections.

Back 128

Ebola virus– hemorrhagic fever

Front 129

Which of the following is anopportunistic pathogen commonly present in the nasal cavity as a member of themicrobiota?

Back 129

Staphylococcusaureus

Front 130

Whichof the following is a fungus that commonly lives in the large intestine?

Back 130

Candida – woman alsohave in vagina , men in gut

Front 131

thedisorder ________ is a complication of systemic infections with Streptococcusin which antigen-antibody complexes form in the blood and get trapped in thekidneys

Back 131

glomerulonephritis

Front 132

Which of the following foodproducts is prepared by the fermentation of cabbage?

Back 132

kimchi

Front 133

Whyare "fortified" foods more likely to spoil than are unfortifiedfoods?

Back 133

The addition of vitamins orminerals makes the food more nutritious for microbes as well as humans.

Front 134

The fermentation productknown as silage is

Back 134

a means of making plantmaterials more appealing to livestock.-Add bacteria for digestion

Front 135

which of the followingresults when ethanol is allowed to oxidize to acetic acid following thefermentation of fruit, grain, or vegetables?

Back 135

vinegar acidicacid

Front 136

Pickling is an effectivemeans of food preservation involving

Back 136

increasing saltconcentration or reducing pH or both.

Front 137

Sugarand salt act as preservatives by

Back 137

drawing water out of food. Lysis the cell

Front 138

Whichof the following methods of preserving food sterilizes it?

Back 138

gamma radiation

Front 139

Significanceof the industrial practice of waiting for cultures to enter the stationaryphase of growth before harvest?

Back 139

Secondary metabolites are often the desired product,and are only produced in stationary phase.- prophage insert dna w/ genome getsecondary met…

Front 140

Theeukaryote ________ is a common food contaminant that can lead to foodborneillness.

Back 140

Toxoplasma gondii

Front 141

Foodcontaminated with ________ may contain a potent neurotoxin.

Back 141

Listeria monocytogenes-may or may not

Front 142

Duringtreatment of water to make it potable, about 90% of the microbes areremoved

Back 142

in the filtration step

Front 143

Potable water is waterthat

Back 143

contains low amounts ofmicroorganisms and is considered safe to drink.

Front 144

Chlorinated watercontains

Back 144

a decreased microbial load.

Front 145

Which of the followingmicroorganisms is the most commonly used indicator organism for water qualitytesting?

Back 145

Escherichia coli

Front 146

) Aspecific example of bioremediation is

Back 146

the degradation of crude oil spilled into the Gulf ofMexico. –example of artificial bioremediation

Front 147

Whichof the following is the correct sequence of microbial associations fromsmallest to largest?

Back 147

populations, guilds,communities, microhabitats, ecosystem

Front 148

A new industrial park in yourcommunity dumps its wastewater into a large aerated pond, to which nutrientsare added. The water from this pond makes its way into a nearby marsh, whicheventually drains into a slow-moving stream. This is

Back 148

natural bioremediation.

Front 149

Whichof the following sets of characteristics describes the highest level of threatpotential from biological weapons?

Back 149

a human pathogen easily produced as an aerosol andtransmissible by respiratory aerosols

Front 150

Whichof the following bacteria is a common soil bacterium that may cause disease inhumans?

Back 150

Bacillus anthracis

Front 151

Which of the following is anapplication of

proteases?

Back 151

meat tenderizer

Front 152

Streptokinase is useful forwhich of the

following?

Back 152

dissolving blood clots

Front 153

When bacteria invade thekidney, the result can be

Back 153

pyelonephritis

Front 154

Whichof the following transmits

leptospirosis?

Back 154

infected animal urine

Front 155

) During the spring calvingseason, a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel nauseous and achy. After hedevelops a headache and vomiting, he goes to a clinic. A microscopic exam of aurine sample reveals long thin microbes ,which move very rapidly in acorkscrewing pattern. The man may have contracted

Back 155

leptospirosis.

Front 156

Themajority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome occur in

Back 156

menstruating women.

Front 157

Whichof the following is a characteristic of bacterial vaginosis frequently used toconfirm diagnosis?

Back 157

the presence of clue cells

Front 158

Whydoes taking antibacterial medications put women at risk for candidiasis?

Back 158

Antibacterials depletethe normal bacterial microbiota, resulting in a change of pH.

Front 159

Untreatedinfection of males with Neisseriagonorrhoeae may result in

Back 159

gummas. Kankor sores come and go

Front 160

Which of the followingcontributes to the invasiveness of Treponemapallidum?

-syphilis: kankor petechialrash whole body, spinal fluid swish cheese brain, target mucosal cells

Back 160

hyaluronidase – enzymehelps it get thru the layers to get to spine

Front 161

Which of the followingstatements is TRUE regarding gonorrhea?

Back 161

The causative agent can grow on most mucous membranesof the body.

Front 162

Neisseriagonorrhoeae most commonly infects which of the following in females?

Back 162

the cervix-mucus cells form the plug, softens at peak fertility in mens cycle

Front 163

Thepresence of Gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis isdiagnostic for

infection by

Back 163

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Front 164

Thetypical sign of primary syphilis is

Back 164

a chancre at the site of infection.

Front 165

Adistinctive feature of secondary syphilis is

Back 165

a widespread rash that caninclude the palms and soles.

Front 166

A young adult shows up at afree clinic complaining of painful swellings in the groin. The young woman hasa history of occasional casual sex, but denies noticing any genital sores orexperiencing painful urination. The young woman is most likely infectedwith )

Back 166

Chlamydia trachomatis.

Front 167

Chancroid is caused by

Back 167

Haemophilus ducreyi. – chancroid will make “you cry”replicates in nodes

Front 168

Themajor sign of Haemophilus ducreyi infection is similar to theinitial sign of infection by

Back 168

Treponema pallidum.

Front 169

which of the followingstatements is TRUE r

egarding genital herpes?

Back 169

Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence oflesions, but is not a cure.

Front 170

Some strains of the virusresponsible for genital warts can cause the development of

Back 170

cervical cancer. HPV

Front 171

Observationof the microbes shown in the figure from a vaginal discharge specimen isdiagnostic for

#173 in packet

Back 171

trichomoniasis.

Front 172

Thebacterium ________ adheres to and grows on teeth, contributing to dental plaqueformation.

Back 172

Streptococcus mutans - mouth

Front 173

Most peptic ulcers are theresult of colonization of the stomach by

Back 173

Helicobacter pylori.

Front 174

)Urease is an important virulence factor of which of the following?

Back 174

Helicobacter pylori

Front 175

Themost common bacterial cause of diarrhea that sends people to doctors in theUnited States is

Back 175

Campylobacter. - ppl in the US love to camp

Front 176

Ayoung woman being treated for serious burns develops severe diarrheaaccompanied by intense abdominal pain. She passes several watery,foul-smelling, bloody stools a day. A colonoscopy reveals patches of yellowishlesions in the large intestine. The probable causative agent is

Back 176

Clostridium difficile.

Front 177

Whichof the following statements is TRUE with regard to oral herpes?

Back 177

Lesions can be triggered by emotional stress orphysiologic changes.

Front 178

Whichof the following conditions usually results in severe acute liver damage?

Back 178

co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis deltaviruses – both at the same time-delta virus makes thingsmore infectious

Front 179

The primary treatment forviral gastroenteritis is

Back 179

rehydration therapy. Akawatchful waiting

Front 180

Alarge number of people in a community experience diarrhea with fever. Publichealth authorities investigate and find that the people are passing dark urine,and some have yellowish skin. Furthermore, all of the affected individualsrecently ate at a new restaurant in town known for its wide variety of freshimported vegetables. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

Back 180

hepatitis A virus

Front 181

Inflammationof the pharynx with pus-filled abscesses and swollen tonsils is known as

Back 181

streptococcalpharyngitis ("strepthroat").

Front 182

Diphtheria toxin kills cells byinterfering with which of the following processes?

Back 182

protein synthesis

Front 183

Whichof the following statements is TRUE concerning diphtheria?

Back 183

The signs and symptoms ofthe disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin

Front 184

Which of the followingstatements is TRUE regarding the common cold?

Back 184

Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminatedfomites.

Front 185

Whatis the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Back 185

the presence of a polysaccharide capsule

Front 186

The majority of cases ofpneumonia are caused by

Back 186

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Front 187

Apneumonia caused by Gram-positive diplococciis known as

Back 187

pneumococcal pneumonia.

Front 188

Bordetellapertussis causes whooping cough by

Back 188

interfering with theactivity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea.

Front 189

Bordetella pertussisproduces

Back 189

dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxins.

Front 190

The DTaP vaccine protectsagainst which of the following respiratory diseases?

Back 190

pertussis

Diphtheria tetanus pertussis

Front 191

Thetypical signs and symptoms of flu are largely a result of

Back 191

cytokines released as part of the immune response.

Front 192

Croup is often a result ofinfection with which of the following?

Back 192

respiratory syncytial virus- in children RSV/croup

Front 193

The factor primarilyresponsible for the ability of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to survive longperiods of time in dried droplets of respiratory aerosols?

Back 193

the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall- mycobacteria w/ mycolic acid lives for 2 weeks

Front 194

Limitingexposure to rodents and their waste materials is an important means ofpreventing

Back 194

Hantavirus pulmonarysyndrome.- in mice

Front 195

Duststorms in arid regions of the Southwestern U.S. may lead to outbreaks of

Back 195

valley fever.

Front 196

Whichof the following is a common cause of otitis media?

Back 196

Streptococcus pneumonia- microbiota

Front 197

Ayoung man who works on a ranch and lives in the log bunkhouse experiencessudden fever with muscle aches. A few days later he begins to cough and havedifficulty breathing, and goes to an urgent care clinic. A blood sample revealsa high leukocyte count and low platelets. A Gram stain of a sputum sample showsonly a few small bacteria present. Which of the following is the most likelyinfecting agent?

Back 197

Hantavirus-mice

Front 198

)Plasmodium (malaria) species reproduce sexually in

Back 198

Anopheles mosquitoes.

Front 199

"Swimmer'sitch" is an initial symptom of which of the following?

Back 199

schistosomiasis

Front 200

Anothername for brucellosis is ________ fever

Back 200

undulant - waxing and waning fever carried by COWS

Front 201

A young man who is an avidoutdoorsman goes to see his doctor complaining of fever with chills, headache,nausea, and diarrhea. Blood tests show that he has low levels of leukocytes andplatelets. He may have contracted

Back 201

ehrlichiosis. – tick q/contaminated water

Front 202

Toxicshock-like syndrome is associated with

Back 202

both Staphylococcuspyogenes and Streptococcus aureus.

Front 203

Vegetationsare associated with which of the following disease processes?

Back 203

endocarditis

Front 204

Unprotectedcontact with the bodily fluids of an infected animal may result in

Back 204

brucellosis. cows

Front 205

The chief diagnostic sign ofbrucellosis is

Back 205

fever which recurs at 24 hour intervals.

Front 206

Fever,difficulty breathing, extreme fatigue, and elevated heart rate arecharacteristic of

Back 206

endocarditis.

Front 207

The normal habitat of________ is rodents, but humans bitten by fleas carrying the pathogen havefever, severely inflamed lymph nodes, and headache. Later, areas of black,necrotic tissue may develop.

Back 207

Yersinia pestis

Front 208

Whichof the following is characteristic of Yersinia pestis infections?

Back 208

buboes

Front 209

Howdoes Borrelia burgdorferi (lyme) evade the body's defenses?

Back 209

It is capable of antigenic variation and hasmanganese-containing enzymes.

Front 210

Primaryinfection with Epstein-Barr virus (herpes) is known as

Back 210

infectious mononucleosis.mono

Front 211

Epstein-Barr virus infectionsare typically asymptomatic in ________ because of incomplete development ofadaptive immunity.

Back 211

young children

Front 212

214) Cycles of fever, chills,anemia and headache along with passage of dark colored urine are the symptomsof infection with

Back 212

dengue virus.

Front 213

)Schizogony is an important aspect of which of the following pathogens?

Back 213

Plasmodium species

Front 214

Dengue hemorrhagic fever isthe result of

Back 214

a hyperimmune response toreinfection with dengue virus.

Front 215

Ayoung woman develops a fever after a recent trip to a Caribbean island. Shealso experiences severe headache and pain "in the bones." After a fewdays, she also develops a rash. Which of the following did she most likelycontract?

Back 215

dengue virus-aka break-bone fever

Front 216

One summer, bird watchers andzookeepers in a major city notice that more birds than usual are dying. At thesame time reports of human encephalitis cases increase sharply. Thecerebrospinal fluid of human patients is clear. Similar enveloped RNA virusparticles are detected in samples from both birds and humans. Which of thefollowing might be responsible for this outbreak?

Back 216

an arbovirus-birds live in arboles/trees

Front 217

The illustration is of aGram-negative bacterium frequently responsible for meningitis. What virulencefactor(s) of the bacterium is/are illustrated?

#219 pic

Back 217

a capsule, fimbriae, and amembrane containing LOS

Front 218

Thedisease known as cryptococcal meningitis

Back 218

results from exposure to bird droppings and begins asa lung infection.

Front 219

Whichof the following is classified as a spongiform encephalopathy?

Back 219

variant Creutzfeldt-Jakobdisease-prions make holes how we get it

Front 220

The optic nerves are anexample of which of the following?

Back 220

sensory nerves

Front 221

Encephalitis is an infectionof

Back 221

the brain.

Front 222

The Gram-negative diplococcus________ is resistant to phagocytosis and releases Lipid A to causeinflammation.

Back 222

Neisseria meningitidis

Front 223

The Gram-positive diplococcus________ is commonly found in the pharynx but may invade the central nervoussystem inside cells where it survives after endocytosis.

Back 223

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 224

The pleomorphic bacterium________ is an obligate parasite due to its requirement for NAD+ andheme.

Back 224

Haemophilus influenzae

Front 225

Newborns exposed to theGram-positive bacterium ________ during vaginal birth are at risk of developingneonatal meningitis.

Back 225

Streptococcus agalactiae

Front 226

Contaminatedfood is the source of ________, which causes meningitis in the elderly andsusceptible persons

Back 226

Listeria monocytogenes

Front 227

Bacterial agents ofmeningitis which can survive phagocytosis include

Back 227

both Neisseriameningitidis and Streptococcuspneumoniae.

Front 228

Thetype of bacterial meningitis that becomes epidemic among young adults is causedby

Back 228

Neisseria meningitidis. MOST COMMONMENING

Front 229

Botulism toxin disrupts motorcontrol by

Back 229

blocking the release of acetylcholine by motor neurons.

Front 230

Howdoes tetanospasmin in tetanus affect motor control? (Rigid paralysis

Back 230

It blocks the release ofinhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS.All excitatory

Front 231

Ababy arrives at an emergency room suffering from violent muscles spasms anddifficulty breathing. The baby's body is so rigid a proper exam is difficult,but the staff note the baby is only a few weeks old and the umbilicus has nothealed properly. The signs are consistent with which of the followingdiseases?

Back 231

tetanus

Front 232

Whichof the following diseases is the result of a bacterial infection of peripheralnerves?

Back 232

Hansen's disease

Front 233

Which of the following causesof viral meningitis is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?

Back 233

echovirus

Front 234

Necrotizingfasciitis is caused by

Back 234

both Streptococcus pyogenesand Staphylococcus aureus.