Micro Exam 3 (Ch. 13-16)

Front 1

_______ is the complete removal or killing of all vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses from the targeted item or environment.

Back 1

Sterilization.

Front 2

_______ inactivates most microbes on the surface of a fomite by using anti-microbial chemicals or heat. It reduces or destroys microbial load of an item through application of heat or antimicrobial chemicals.

Back 2

Disinfection.

Front 3

_______ technique is necessary to prevent contamination of sterile surfaces. _______ technique involves a combination of protocols that collectively maintain sterility thus preventing contamination of the patient with microbes and infectious agents.

Back 3

Aseptic.

Front 4

________ : Reduces microbial load on skin or tissue through the application of an antimicrobial chemical.

Back 4

Antiseptic.

Front 5

________ chemicals are antimicrobial chemicals safe for use on living skin or tissues. Ex: hydrogen peroxide & isopropyl alcohol. The process of applying an ______ is called antisepsis.

Back 5

Antiseptic; antiseptic.

Front 6

______ is a systemic inflammatory response to an infection that results in a high fever, increased heart and respiratory rates, shock, and possibly death.

Back 6

Sepsis.

Front 7

______ is a systemic inflammatory response to an infection that results in a high fever, increased heart and respiratory rates, shock, and possibly death.

Back 7

Sepsis.

Front 8

________ is the cleansing of fomites to remove enough microbes to achieve levels deemed safe for public health.

Back 8

Sanitization.

Front 9

______ is a systemic inflammatory response to an infection that results in a high fever, increased heart and respiratory rates, shock, and possibly death.

Back 9

Sepsis.

Front 10

________ is the cleansing of fomites to remove enough microbes to achieve levels deemed safe for public health.

Back 10

Sanitization.

Front 11

_______ reduces microbial load of an inanimate item to safe public health levels through application of heat or antimicrobial chemicals.

Back 11

Sanitization.

Front 12

______ is when microbial numbers are significantly reduced by gently scrubbing living tissue, most commonly skin, with a mild chemical to avoid the transmission of pathogenic microbes. Ex: hand washing.

Back 12

Degerming.

Front 13

______ means it kills bacteria.

Back 13

Bactericidal.

Front 14

______ treatments inhibit the growth of bacteria.

Back 14

Bacteriostatic.

Front 15

_______ is the amount of time it takes for a specific protocol to produce 90% death of the population in a number of organisms.

Back 15

D time.

Front 16

The ______ is the time it takes to kill 90% of the population when exposed to a specific microbial control protocol.

Back 16

D time, or the decimal reduction time.

Front 17

What are some mechanisms of action/agents that denature proteins?

Back 17

Physical: boiling, dry heat, autoclave, pasteurization, & high pressure processing. Chemical: phenolics & alcohols.

Front 18

What are some mechanisms of action that destroys cell membranes?

Back 18

Physical: boiling, dry heat, autoclave, and pasteurization. Chemical: phenolics, alcohol, surfactant, and bisbiguanides.

Front 19

What are some mechanisms of action that destroy DNA/RNA of the cell?

Back 19

Radiation.

Front 20

(Heat) ______ heat typically is more effective than dry heat because it penetrates cells better than dry he does.

Back 20

Moist.

Front 21

What are some examples of moist heat?

Back 21

Boiling and autoclaves.

Front 22

Heat can kill microbes by…

Back 22

Altering their membranes and denaturing proteins.

Front 23

_______ is a form of moist heat that is typically effective at killing vegetative cells and some viruses. It is less effective at killing endospores. Not considered useful sterilization technique in the lab or clinical setting.

Back 23

Boiling.

Front 24

_______ is a moist heat method to control microbes. It relies on moist heat sterilization. It is used to raise temperatures past the boiling point of water to sterilize items such as surgical equipment from vegetative cells, viruses, and especially endospores, without damaging the items. They are considered the most effective method of sterilization.

Back 24

Autoclaves.

Front 25

What are some physical methods to control microbes involving heat?

Back 25

Moist heat, dry heat, pasteurization, and boiling.

Front 26

Aseptic technique in the lab typically involves some ______ heat sterilization protocols using direct application of high heat, such as sterilizing inoculating loops.

Back 26

Dry heat.

Front 27

Sterilizing inoculating loops as an example of a _____ heat method to physically control microbes.

Back 27

Dry heat.

Front 28

(Control of microbes.) A form of dry heat, ______ at very high temperatures destroys all micro organisms.

Back 28

Incineration.

Front 29

(Control of microbes.) A form of dry heat, ____ _____ ____ applies dry heat for a relatively long period of time. Example: oven.

Back 29

Dry heat sterilizer.

Front 30

(Control of microbes.) ______ kills pathogens and reduces the number of spoilage causing microbes while maintaining food quality. ______ is a form of microbial control for food that uses heat but does not render the food sterile.

Back 30

Pasteurization.

Front 31

What are two different methods of pasteurization?

Back 31

HTST high temp short time, and UHT ultra high temp.

Front 32

_______ is one of the oldest methods of moist-heat control of microbes, and is typically quite effective at killing vegetative cells and some viruses. However, ______ is less effective at killing endospores.

Back 32

Boiling.

Front 33

What are the three types of cold physical methods to control microbes?

Back 33

Refrigeration, freezing, and lyophilization.

Front 34

________ maintains temperatures between 0 Celsius - 7 Celsius. This temperature range inhibits microbial metabolism, slowing the growth of micro organisms significantly and helping preserve products such as food and medical supplies.

Back 34

Refrigeration.

Front 35

When temperatures are set below -2°C to stop microbial growth and even kill susceptible organisms the physical method of controlling microbes called _______ is being utilized.

Back 35

Freezing.

Front 36

Bacterial cultures and medical specimens requiring long-term storage or transport are often frozen at ultra low temps of -70°C or lower. How?

Back 36

By storing specimens on dry ice and an ultra low freezer or in special liquid nitrogen tanks.

Front 37

__________ or “freeze drying” is another method of desiccation (dehydration) in which an item is rapidly frozen (snap frozen) and placed under a vacuum so that water is lost by sublimation.

Back 37

Lyophilization.

Front 38

Lyophilization combines ___ & ___, making it quite effective for controlling microbial growth.

Back 38

Cold temperatures & dehydration.

Front 39

(Control of microbes.) _________ is a type of radiation strong enough to pass into the cell, where it alters molecular structures and damages cell components. This type of radiation leads to mutations in DNA that result in cell death. It’s commonly used to sterilize materials that cannot be autoclaved such as Petri dishes and plastic gloves. Ex: Gamma rays, x-rays.

Back 39

Ionizing radiation.

Front 40

(Control of microbes.) _________ is a type of radiation that is commonly used for disinfection and uses less energy than ionizing radiation. It does not penetrate cells or packaging. An example of this type of radiation is UV light. It leads to DNA mutations which result in cell death.

Back 40

Nonionizing radiation.

Front 41

__________ are nonionizing and are even weaker waves of radiation. No microbes are killed by _______ directly. The heat caused by them will kill.

Back 41

Microwaves.

Front 42

(Control of microbes.) ______ is a method of physically separating microbes from samples.

Back 42

Filtration.

Front 43

(Control of microbes.) ______ is a method of physically separating microbes from samples.

Back 43

Filtration.

Front 44

(Control of microbes.) What are some examples/types of filtration?

Back 44

HEPA filters and membrane filters.

Front 45

_________ is a type of filtration that controls microbes by removing microbes, endospores, and viruses as air flows through them. The poor sizes are .3 µm.

Back 45

HEPA filters.

Front 46

(Control of microbes.) _______ is a type of filtration used to remove microbes from liquid samples. The poor sizes of this filtration method or .2 µm.

Back 46

Membrane filters.

Front 47

(Control of microbes.) what are two types of “osmotic pressure” methods?

Back 47

High pressure processing and hyperbaric oxygen therapy.

Front 48

(Control of microbes.) ____ ____ ____ or “pascalization” kills bacteria, yeast, moles, parasites, and viruses in foods while maintaining food quality and extending shelflife. It involves the application of high pressure between 100 to 800 MPA. It is sufficient to kill vegetative cells by protein denaturation, but endospores may survive these pressures.

Back 48

High pressure processing.

Front 49

True or false: high pressure processing is sufficient to kill vegetative cells by protein denaturation and endospores.

Back 49

False. High pressure processing is the application of high pressure between 100 to 800 MPA and is sufficient to kill vegetative cells by protein denaturization, but endospores may survive these pressures.

Front 50

(Control of microbes.) ____ ____ ____ is a type of osmotic pressure physical method that is used to treat infections in clinical settings. Air pressure is three times higher than normal and inhibits metabolism and growth of anaerobic microbes.

Back 50

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy.

Front 51

(Control of microbes.) ________ , or dehydration/drying, Is a method that has been used for millions of years to preserve foods. Drying controls microbial growth but may not kill all microbes or the endospores.

Back 51

Desiccation.

Front 52

What are two types of desiccation? (Control of microbes.)

Back 52

Simple desiccation, which is drying. & Reducing water activity- the addition of salt or water.

Front 53

(Control of microbes.) ______ is rapid freezing under a vacuum.

Back 53

Lyophilization

Front 54

(Control of microbes.) ________ are stable, long acting disinfectants that denature proteins and disrupt membranes. They are commonly found in household cleaners, mouthwashes, and hospital disinfectant’s, and are also used to preserve harvested crops.

Back 54

Phenolics.

Front 55

(Control of microbes.) ________ are stable, long acting disinfectants that denature proteins and disrupt membranes. They are commonly found in household cleaners, mouthwashes, and hospital disinfectant’s, and are also used to preserve harvested crops.

Back 55

Phenolics.

Front 56

_______ is a phenolic compound found an antibacterial soap‘s, plastics, and textiles. It is technically an antibiotic because of its specific mode of action of inhibiting bacterial fatty acid synthesis.

Back 56

Triclosan.

Front 57

(Control of microbes.) ________ are stable, long acting disinfectants that denature proteins and disrupt membranes. They are commonly found in household cleaners, mouthwashes, and hospital disinfectant’s, and are also used to preserve harvested crops.

Back 57

Phenolics.

Front 58

_______ is a phenolic compound found an antibacterial soap‘s, plastics, and textiles. It is technically an antibiotic because of its specific mode of action of inhibiting bacterial fatty acid synthesis.

Back 58

Triclosan.

Front 59

Alcohols, including _____ ____ & _____ ______, Are commonly used antiseptic the act by denaturing proteins and disrupting membranes.

Back 59

Ethyl alcohol & isopropyl alcohol.

Front 60

(Control of microbes.) ________ are stable, long acting disinfectants that denature proteins and disrupt membranes. They are commonly found in household cleaners, mouthwashes, and hospital disinfectant’s, and are also used to preserve harvested crops.

Back 60

Phenolics.

Front 61

_______ is a phenolic compound found an antibacterial soap‘s, plastics, and textiles. It is technically an antibiotic because of its specific mode of action of inhibiting bacterial fatty acid synthesis.

Back 61

Triclosan.

Front 62

Alcohols, including _____ ____ & _____ ______, Are commonly used antiseptic the act by denaturing proteins and disrupting membranes.

Back 62

Ethyl alcohol & isopropyl alcohol.

Front 63

True or false: alcohol dissolves bacteria’s cellular membrane, lipids freely dissolve.

Back 63

True.

Front 64

(Control of microbes.) ______ , including chlorine, flourine, and iodine, are also commonly used for disinfection.

Back 64

Halogens

Front 65

________ compounds, such as sodium hypochlorite, chloramines, and chlorine dioxide, are commonly used for water disinfection.

Back 65

Chlorine.

Front 66

Give three examples of halogens.

Back 66

Chlorine, fluorine, and iodine

Front 67

(Control of microbes.) __________ are strong oxidizing agents that produce free radicals in cells, damaging their macromolecules. They are environmentally safe and are highly effective disinfectants and antiseptics. Ex: hydrogen peroxide, peracetic acid, benzoyl peroxide.

Back 67

Oxidizers / Peroxygens.

Front 68

_________ are soaps and detergents. They lower the surface tension of water to create emulsions that mechanically carry away microbes. Soaps are a long chain fatty acids, whereas detergents are synthetic surfactants.

Back 68

Surfactants.

Front 69

______ are long chain fatty acids, whereas ________ are synthetic surfactants.

Back 69

Soap; detergents.

Front 70

_____ _____ including silver, mercury, copper, and zinc, have long been used for disinfection and preservation, although some have toxicity and environmental risks associated with them.

Back 70

Heavy metals.

Front 71

What are two gaseous agents that are used in the control of microbes?

Back 71

Pressurized carbon dioxide and super critical carbon dioxide.

Front 72

______ carbon dioxide in the form of supercritical fluid easily permeates packaged materials and cells, forming carbonic acid and lowering intracellular pH. ______________ carbon dioxide is non-reactive, non-toxic, non-flammable and effective at low temperatures for sterilization of medical devices, implants, and transplanted tissues.

Back 72

Pressurized; super critical.

Front 73

______ carbon dioxide in the form of supercritical fluid easily permeates packaged materials and cells, forming carbonic acid and lowering intracellular pH. ______________ carbon dioxide is non-reactive, non-toxic, non-flammable and effective at low temperatures for sterilization of medical devices, implants, and transplanted tissues.

Back 73

Pressurized; super critical.

Front 74

(Control of microbes.) ____ ____ are used for cleaning up prions.

Back 74

Prion enzymes.

Front 75

The CDC classifies infectious agents into 4 bio safety levels based on potential risk to laboratory personnel and the community. What are these four levels?

Back 75

BSL-1, BSL-2, BSL-3, & BSL-4.

Front 76

The CDC classifies infectious agents into 4 bio safety levels based on potential risk to laboratory personnel and the community. What are these four levels?

Back 76

BSL-1, BSL-2, BSL-3, & BSL-4.

Front 77

(Biosafety levels.) _______ : microbes are not known to cause disease in healthy hosts and pose minimal risk to workers and the environment.

Back 77

BSL-1.

Front 78

(Biosafety levels.) ______ : microbes are typically indigenous and are associated with diseases of varying severity. They pose moderate risk to workers and the environment.

Back 78

BSL-2.

Front 79

(Biosafety levels.) ______ : microbes are indigenous or exotic and cause serious or potentially lethal diseases through respiratory transmission.

Back 79

BSL-3.

Front 80

(Biosafety levels.) ______ : microbes are indigenous or exotic and cause serious or potentially lethal diseases through respiratory transmission.

Back 80

BSL-3.

Front 81

(Biosafety levels.) ______ : microbes are dangerous and exotic, posing a high risk of aerosol-transmitted infections, which are frequently fatal without treatment or vaccines. Few labs are at this level.

Back 81

BSL-4.

Front 82

The effectiveness of a control method is determined by what six factors?

Back 82

1) location of micro organisms. 2) Time of exposure. 3) Temperature. 4) pH. 5) Number of microbes present. 6) types of microbes present.

(Location, time, temp, ph, number, type.)

Front 83

HEPA filters are required for which biological safety level?

Back 83

BSL4

Front 84

The autoclave uses ______ and _________ for sterilization.

Back 84

Pressure and temperature.

Front 85

The autoclave uses ______ and _________ for sterilization.

Back 85

Pressure and temperature.

Front 86

Autoclaves are designed to kill what heat resistant microbe?

Back 86

Endospores.

Front 87

The decimal reduction time, d-value, is how long it takes to kill what percentage of a microbial population?

Back 87

90%

Front 88

Placing a bacterial culture in a 80°C freezer is bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Back 88

Bacteriostatic.

Front 89

Placing a bacterial culture in a 80°C freezer is bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Back 89

Bacteriostatic.

Front 90

X-rays and gamma rays are examples of which type of radiation?

Back 90

Ionizing radiation.

Front 91

Ultraviolet light is an example of which type of radiation?

Back 91

Non-ionizing radiation.

Front 92

Ultraviolet light is an example of which type of radiation?

Back 92

Non-ionizing radiation.

Front 93

Ionizing radiation introduces ____ _____ breaks into DNA.

Back 93

Double stranded

Front 94

Ultraviolet light is an example of which type of radiation?

Back 94

Non-ionizing radiation.

Front 95

Ionizing radiation introduces ____ _____ breaks into DNA.

Back 95

Double stranded

Front 96

________ does not rely on denaturing proteins and or disrupting the integrity of the cell membrane and involves rapid freezing under a vacuum.

Back 96

Lyophilization

Front 97

Contact lenses are cleaned with ______ which is a type of chemical agent used to control microbial growth.

Back 97

Peroxygen.

Front 98

______ was influential in the discovery of compound 606, and anti-microbial agent that prove to be an effective treatment for syphilis. The magic bullet! An arsenic compound that killed microbes. “Salvarsan”.

Back 98

Paul Erhlich.

Front 99

______ was influential in the discovery of compound 606, and anti-microbial agent that prove to be an effective treatment for syphilis. The magic bullet! An arsenic compound that killed microbes. “Salvarsan”.

Back 99

Paul Erhlich.

Front 100

________ Was the first to discover a naturally produced antimicrobial , Penicillin, in 1928.

Back 100

Alexander Fleming.

Front 101

______ was influential in the discovery of compound 606, and anti-microbial agent that prove to be an effective treatment for syphilis. The magic bullet! An arsenic compound that killed microbes. “Salvarsan”.

Back 101

Paul Erhlich.

Front 102

________ Was the first to discover a naturally produced antimicrobial , Penicillin, in 1928.

Back 102

Alexander Fleming.

Front 103

_________ mass scaled penicillin production. They then figured out how to purify it and showed it efficacy as an anti-microbial an animal and human trials.

Back 103

Ernst Chain & Howard Florey.

Front 104

_______ discovered sulfanilamide.

Back 104

Gerhard Domagk.

Front 105

_________ credited with the discovery of antibiotics. Discovered several antimicrobials. Antimicrobial agents produced naturally by organisms.

Back 105

Selma n Waksman.

Front 106

________ refers to any use of chemicals or drugs to treat disease. Drugs that act against diseases.

Back 106

Chemotherapeutics.

Front 107

________ refers to any use of chemicals or drugs to treat disease. Drugs that act against diseases.

Back 107

Chemotherapeutics.

Front 108

_________ are drugs that treat infections. They target infectious microorganisms.

Back 108

Antimicrobials.

Front 109

________ refers to any use of chemicals or drugs to treat disease. Drugs that act against diseases.

Back 109

Chemotherapeutics.

Front 110

_________ are drugs that treat infections. They target infectious microorganisms.

Back 110

Antimicrobials.

Front 111

An ________ is active against bacteria.

Back 111

Antibacterial.

Front 112

________ refers to any use of chemicals or drugs to treat disease. Drugs that act against diseases.

Back 112

Chemotherapeutics.

Front 113

_________ are drugs that treat infections. They target infectious microorganisms.

Back 113

Antimicrobials.

Front 114

An ________ is active against bacteria.

Back 114

Antibacterial.

Front 115

_______ Inhibits the growth or destroys micro organisms.

Back 115

Antibiotics.

Front 116

________ refers to any use of chemicals or drugs to treat disease. Drugs that act against diseases.

Back 116

Chemotherapeutics.

Front 117

_________ are drugs that treat infections. They target infectious microorganisms.

Back 117

Antimicrobials.

Front 118

An ________ is active against bacteria.

Back 118

Antibacterial.

Front 119

_______ Inhibits the growth or destroys micro organisms.

Back 119

Antibiotics.

Front 120

Chemically altered antibiotics that are more effective, longer lasting, or easier to administer the naturally occurring ones are called ________.

Back 120

Semi synthetic.

Front 121

Antimicrobials that are completely synthesized in a lab are called ______.

Back 121

Synthetic.

Front 122

___ ____ is when an antibiotic selectively kills or inhibit the growth of microbial targets while causing minimal or no harm to the host.

Back 122

Selective toxicity.

Front 123

The ______ ______ is used to compare the therapeutically effective dose to the toxic dose of a pharmaceutical agent. The blank is a statement of relative safety of a drug. It is the ratio of the dose that produces toxicity to the dose needed to produce the desired therapeutic response.

Back 123

Therapeutic index (TI)

Front 124

(Therapeutic index) TD50 = ____ ____, & ED50 = _____ ____.

Back 124

Toxic dose; effective dose.

Front 125

What is the formula for the therapeutic index?

Back 125

TI = (TD50/ED50)

Front 126

What is the formula for the therapeutic index?

Back 126

TI = (TD50/ED50)

Front 127

A high therapeutic index indicates that a dose is _______ toxic. A low therapeutic index indicates that a dose is _______ toxic.

Back 127

Less; more.

Front 128

Static = _____ / Cidal = _____

Back 128

Stop ; Kill.

Front 129

______ drugs cause a reversible inhibition of growth, with bacterial growth restarting after illumination of the drug.

Back 129

Bacteriostatic.

Front 130

______ drugs cause a reversible inhibition of growth, with bacterial growth restarting after illumination of the drug.

Back 130

Bacteriostatic.

Front 131

_______ drugs kill their target bacteria. They do this by preventing the bacteria from making a cell wall.

Back 131

Bactericidal.

Front 132

______ drugs cause a reversible inhibition of growth, with bacterial growth restarting after illumination of the drug.

Back 132

Bacteriostatic.

Front 133

_______ drugs kill their target bacteria. They do this by preventing the bacteria from making a cell wall.

Back 133

Bactericidal.

Front 134

_______ antibiotics slow the growth of bacteria by interfering with the processes the back to you need to multiply, these processes include; DNA replication, metabolism, and protein production.

Back 134

Bacteriostatic.

Front 135

A ______ _____ antibiotic targets a wide variety of bacterial pathogen‘s, including gram-positive and gram-negative species, it is frequently used as an empiric therapy to cover a wide range of potential pathogens. It affects many different bacteria in your body, including helpful and useful bacteria in your gut.

Back 135

Broad spectrum.

Front 136

A ______ _____ antibiotic targets a wide variety of bacterial pathogen‘s, including gram-positive and gram-negative species, it is frequently used as an empiric therapy to cover a wide range of potential pathogens. It affects many different bacteria in your body, including helpful and useful bacteria in your gut.

Back 136

Broad spectrum.

Front 137

A ____ ____ antibiotic targets only specific subset of bacterial pathogens. As an example- it may only target gram-positive or gram-negative. It’s best to use when a pathogen causing an infection has been identified, to minimize collateral damage.

Back 137

Narrow spectrum.

Front 138

_____ spectrum: affective against few. ______ spectrum: affective against many.

Back 138

Narrow; broad.

Front 139

True or false: broad-spectrum antibiotics may allow for a secondary or super infections to develop and may kill normal flora which reduces microbial antagonism.

Back 139

True.

Front 140

What are the 4 antimicrobial routes of administration.

Back 140

Topical, oral, intramuscular, and intravenous.

Front 141

What are the 4 antimicrobial routes of administration.

Back 141

Topical, oral, intramuscular, and intravenous.

Front 142

What are “routes of administration”?

Back 142

The method used to introduce a drug into the body.

Front 143

The _______ route of administration of an antibiotic involves application of drug for external infections.

Back 143

Topical.

Hint 143

External.

Front 144

The _______ route of administration of an antibiotic requires no needles and is self-administered. Taken by mouth.

Back 144

Oral.

Front 145

The _______ route of administration of an antibiotic delivers the drug via needle into muscle.

Back 145

Intramuscular.

Front 146

The _______ route of administration of an antibiotic delivers drug directly to the bloodstream.

Back 146

Intravenous.

Front 147

(Features of antibiotics.) Based in how a drug is ______ in the body, route of administration is decided.

Back 147

Metabolism.

Front 148

The rate at which 50% of a drug is eliminated from the plasma is called the ____________ of a drug.

Back 148

Half life.

Front 149

_______ is the rare of elimination of a drug.

Back 149

Excretion.

Front 150

What are two specific types of drug interactions?

Back 150

Synergistic interactions and antagonistic interactions.

Front 151

A _________ interaction is when two antibacterial drugs are administered together for efficiency. (Ex: individually two different drugs may be bacteriostatic, but together are bactericidal.)

Back 151

Synergistic.

Front 152

A _________ interaction is when two antibacterial drugs are administered together for efficiency. (Ex: individually two different drugs may be bacteriostatic, but together are bactericidal.)

Back 152

Synergistic.

Front 153

__________ interactions between drugs produce harmful results/effects. It can be between 2 antimicrobials or between antimicrobials and non-antimicrobials.

Back 153

Antagonistic.

Front 154

_______ resistance is when some pathogens are naturally resistant or have their own original defenses.

Back 154

Innate resistance.

Front 155

_______ resistance is when some pathogens are naturally resistant or have their own original defenses.

Back 155

Innate resistance.

Front 156

_____ resistance is when bacteria obtain resistance in 2 ways: new mutations of chromosomal genes, & acquisition of R plasmids via transformation, transduction, & conjugation.

Back 156

Acquired resistance.

Front 157

________ renders penicillin inactive by breaking the lactam ring bonds.

Back 157

Beta-lactamase (b-lactamase)

Front 158

Describe some mechanisms of microbial resistance.

Back 158

Producing enzymes that destroy or Deactivate drugs.

Slow or prevent entry of drugs into cells.

Alter target of drug so it binds less effectively.

Alter their own metabolic chemistry.

Pump antimicrobial drug out of the cell before it can act.

Bacteria and biofilms can resist antimicrobials.

Front 159

Antibiotic resistance can be acquired from bacteria to bacteria via horizontal or vertical gene transfer. What is horizontal gene transfer?

Back 159

Transformation, transduction, & conjugation.

Front 160

Antibiotic resistance can be acquired from bacteria to bacteria via horizontal or vertical gene transfer. What is horizontal gene transfer?

Back 160

Transformation, transduction, & conjugation.

Front 161

Antibiotic resistance can be acquired from bacteria to bacteria via horizontal or vertical gene transfer. What is vertical gene transfer?

Back 161

Reproduction. (Parent—> offspring.)

Front 162

Name the antibacterial drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis.

Back 162

B-lactams : Penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactams, & carbapenems. Glycopeptides. Bacitracin.

Front 163

Name the antibacterial drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis.

Back 163

B-lactams : Penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactams, & carbapenems. Glycopeptides. Bacitracin.

Front 164

B-lactams : Penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactams, & carbapenems are all antibacterial drugs that do what?

Back 164

They inhibit cell wall biosynthesis.

Front 165

Name the antibacterial drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis.

Back 165

B-lactams : Penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactams, & carbapenems. Glycopeptides. Bacitracin.

Front 166

B-lactams : Penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactams, & carbapenems are all antibacterial drugs that do what?

Back 166

They inhibit cell wall biosynthesis.

Front 167

Penicillin is one of several antibacterials within a class called ________. This group of compound includes the penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, and carbapanems, and is characterized by the presence of a B-lactam ring found within the central structure of the drug molecule.

Back 167

B-lactams.

Front 168

The b-lactam antibacterials. Block the _____ _____ _____ _____ during the biosynthesis of new PTG in the bacterial cell wall.

Back 168

Cross linking of peptide chains.

Front 169

The b-lactam antibacterials. Block the _____ _____ _____ _____ during the biosynthesis of new PTG in the bacterial cell wall.

Back 169

Cross linking of peptide chains.

Front 170

How do b-lactam antibacterials block the cross-linking of peptide chains during the biosynthesis of new PTG in a bacterial cell wall?

Back 170

The B-lactam structure is similar to the structure of the PTG subunit component that is recognized by the cross-linking transpeptidase enzyme.

Front 171

True or false: The inhibitors of cell wall synthesis (B-lactams) are only effective on growing cells.

Back 171

True.

Front 172

True of false: The inhibitors of cell wall synthesis (B-lactams) effect the existing PTG layers.

Back 172

FALSE. Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis have no effect on the existing PTG layers.

Front 173

Beta-lactam interferes with the linking enzymes, & NAM subunits remain unattached to their neighbors. However, the cell continues to grow and as it adds more NAG & NAM subunits... what results?

Back 173

The cell bursts from osmotic pressure because the integrity of the PTG is not maintained.

Front 174

Beta-lactam interferes with the linking enzymes, & NAM subunits remain unattached to their neighbors. However, the cell continues to grow and as it adds more NAG & NAM subunits... what results?

Back 174

The cell bursts from osmotic pressure because the integrity of the PTG is not maintained.

Front 175

Beta-lactam interferes with the linking enzymes, & NAM subunits remain unattached to their neighbors. However, the cell continues to grow and as it adds more NAG & NAM subunits... what results?

Back 175

The cell bursts from osmotic pressure because the integrity of the PTG is not maintained.

Front 176

What are the two inhibitors of cell wall synthesis that are not beta lactam drugs?

Back 176

Vancomycin and bacitracin.

Front 177

_______ is a glycopeptide that inhibits cell wall biosynthesis by binding to the end of the peptide chain of cell wall precursors, creating a structural blockage that prevents the cell wall subunits from being incorporated into the growing NAM & NAG backbone of the PTG structure. It is also bactericidal to Gram+ cells.

Back 177

Vancomycin.

Front 178

_________ is a non-Beta-lactam drug that blocks the activity of a specific cell-membrane molecule that is responsible for the movement of PTG precursors from the cytoplasm to the exterior of the cell, preventing their incorporation into the cell wall. (In neosporin.)

Back 178

Bacitracin.

Front 179

Name the inhibitors of cell wall synthesis.

Back 179

B-lactams: penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, carbapenems.

Glycopeptides: vancomycin.

Bacitracin.

Front 180

How does vancomycin interfere in cell wall synthesis?

Back 180

Large molecules that bind to the peptide chain of PTG subunits, blocking transglycosylation and transpeptidation.

Front 181

How does vancomycin interfere in cell wall synthesis?

Back 181

Large molecules that bind to the peptide chain of PTG subunits, blocking transglycosylation and transpeptidation.

Front 182

How does bacitracin inhibit cell wall synthesis?

Back 182

By blocking transport of PTG subunits (NAG & NAM) across cytoplasmic membrane.

Front 183

Isoniazid and ethambutol are both antibacterial drugs that ...

Back 183

Prevent/disrupt mycolic acid formation/synthesis in mycobacterium.

Front 184

Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, macrolides, and chloramphenicol are antibacterial drugs that inhibit _____ _____.

Back 184

Protein synthesis.

Front 185

Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, macrolides, and chloramphenicol are antibacterial drugs that inhibit _____ _____.

Back 185

Protein synthesis.

Front 186

Antibacterial drugs that inhibit protein synthesis usually target what? And why is this problematic at times?

Back 186

The target ribosomes and ribosomal subunits. These are drugs that can selectively target translation. The mitochondria of animals and humans contain 70 S ribosomes, which can be harmful because prokaryotic (bacteria that may be targeted) ribosomes are 70S as well.

Front 187

Fluoroquinolones and rifamycins are antibacterial drugs that inhibit ...?

Back 187

They inhibit nucleotide replication/transcription.

Front 188

Antibacterial drugs: _______ inhibits DNA gyrase activity, blocking DNA replication. _____ inhibits bacterial DNA polymerase activity and blocks transcription; killing the cell.

Back 188

Fluoroquinolones & rifamycins.

Front 189

Sulfonamide & trimethoprim are antibacterial drugs that are __________ (compromise metabolic pathways) that interfere with bacterial folic acid synthesis by blocking purine and pyrimidine biosynthesis, this inhibiting bacterial growth.

Back 189

Antimetabolites.

Front 190

Some antibacterial drugs are _____, acting as competitive inhibitors for bacterial metabolic enzymes.

Back 190

Antimetabolites.

Front 191

Some antibacterial drugs, such as POLYMYXIN, form channels through ________ membrane and damage it’s integrity.

Back 191

Cytoplasmic.

Front 192

Nucleoside & nucleotide analogs (acyclovir), AZT, and ribavirin all inhibit _________________, and ______ _____ inhibitors are a method that antivirals use.

Back 192

Nucleic acid synthesis; viral enzyme inhibitors.

Front 193

Antiviral drugs such as amantadine & rimantadine work by...?

Back 193

Preventing virus attachment and entry.

Front 194

Antiviral drugs such as amantadine & rimantadine work by...?

Back 194

Preventing virus attachment and entry.

Front 195

The most common mode of action for anti fungal drugs is the disruption of the ____ _____.

Back 195

Cell membrane.

Front 196

________ are antifungal /synthetic fungicides that disrupt/inhibit ergosterol biosynthesis.

Back 196

Azoles

Front 197

Echinocandins are an antifungal that inhibit _________________.

Back 197

Cell wall synthesis.

Front 198

True or false: Antifungals operate by inhibiting the formation of the plasma membrane, inhibiting cell wall synthesis, and inhibiting cell division.

Back 198

True.

Front 199

Griseofulvin is an antifungal that operates by inhibiting ....?

Back 199

Cell division.

Front 200

Metronidazole & chloroquine are _________ drugs.

Back 200

Antiprotozoan.

Front 201

Metronidazole is an antiprotozoan drug that inhibits _______________.

Back 201

Inhibits dna synthesis.

Front 202

Metronidazole is an antiprotozoan drug that inhibits _______________.

Back 202

Inhibits dna synthesis.

Front 203

Chloroquine is an antiprotozoan drug that inhibits _______________.

Back 203

Heme detoxification.

Front 204

The efficacy of antimicrobial is assessed by three different tests, what are they?

Back 204

Diffusion Susceptibility Test, Minimum inhibitory concentration test (MIC), & Minimum bactericidal concentration test (MBC).

Front 205

The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) test : The lowest concentration of drug that inhibits ________________. Uses broth cultures in test tubes, looks at turbidity.

Back 205

Visible bacterial growth.

Front 206

Minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC) test : the lowest drug concentration test that _________________ of the starting inoculum. Uses agar media.

Back 206

Kill more than on equal to 99.9%.

Front 207

The Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test is as starting point for determining the susceptibility of specific microbes to various _______________.

Back 207

Antimicrobial drugs.

Front 208

Using the Kirby-Bauer method, the antibacterial activity is observed as a clear circular _________________ around the drug-impregnated disk. The _________ determines the susceptibility or resistance of the bacterial pathogen to the drug.

Back 208

Zone of inhibition; diameter.

Front 209

The E-Test combines aspects of the ________ and ______ tests. It is commercially available, plastic strips are used, elliptical zone of inhibition, and only MIC is determined.

Back 209

Kirby-Bauer & MIC.

Front 210

Who is credited for first finding an antimicrobial agent?

Back 210

Paul Ehrlich

Front 211

Who is credited for first finding a naturally occurring antimicrobial agent?

Back 211

ALEXANDER Fleming.

Front 212

A __________ is a type of secondary infection that can develop when antibiotics kill much of a patient’s natural flora.

Back 212

Superinfection.

Front 213

How does penicillin work?

Back 213

Penicillin binds to penicillin-binding proteins, that’s inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction during cell wall synthesis.

Front 214

The penicillins act on which type of bacteria?

Back 214

Mostly gram-positive bacteria and some Graham negative bacteria.

Front 215

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as AZT, can be used to target which virus?

Back 215

HIV.

Front 216

True or false: if antibiotic treatment is needed for immunocompromised individuals who develop infections, the medication should be bacteriocidal rather than bacteriostatic.

Back 216

True.

Front 217

Or false: both vancomycin and penicillin target the bacterial cell wall and have the same mode of activation.

Back 217

False.

Front 218

True or false: the Kirby Bauer disk diffusion test can distinguish between bacteriostatic and bactericidal agents.

Back 218

False.

Front 219

________ : Any condition in which the normal structure or functions of the body are damaged or impaired.

Back 219

Disease.

Front 220

________ : Any condition in which the normal structure or functions of the body are damaged or impaired.

Back 220

Disease.

Front 221

________ : means the ability to cause disease.

Back 221

Pathogenicity.

Front 222

________ : Any condition in which the normal structure or functions of the body are damaged or impaired.

Back 222

Disease.

Front 223

________ : means the ability to cause disease.

Back 223

Pathogenicity.

Front 224

________: refers to the steps or mechanisms involved in the development of a disease.

Back 224

Pathogenesis.

Front 225

________ : Any condition in which the normal structure or functions of the body are damaged or impaired.

Back 225

Disease.

Front 226

________ : means the ability to cause disease.

Back 226

Pathogenicity.

Front 227

________: refers to the steps or mechanisms involved in the development of a disease.

Back 227

Pathogenesis.

Front 228

__________: A bacterium, virus, or other micro organism that can cause disease.

Back 228

Pathogen.

Front 229

_______ : The study of the causes of disease.

Back 229

Etiology.

Front 230

________ : Is commonly used as a synonym for “infectious disease.”

Back 230

Infection.

Front 231

________ : Is commonly used as a synonym for “infectious disease.”

Back 231

Infection.

Front 232

________________ : A disease caused by a microbe.

Back 232

Infectious disease.

Front 233

Microbes that cause infectious disease is are collectively referred to as __________.

Back 233

Pathogens.

Front 234

Microbes that cause infectious disease is are collectively referred to as __________.

Back 234

Pathogens.

Front 235

_______ results if the invading pathogens alters normal body functions.

Back 235

Disease.

Front 236

Disease is also referred to as ______.

Back 236

Morbidity.

Front 237

_______ is the number of deaths due to disease.

Back 237

Mortality.

Front 238

Infection is _____ by a pathogen.

Back 238

Colonization.

Front 239

Infection is _____ by a pathogen.

Back 239

Colonization.

Front 240

True or false: a person can be infected with a pathogen, but not have an infectious disease.

Back 240

True.

Front 241

The _______ other disease are objective and measurable, and can be directly observed by a clinician.

Back 241

Signs.

Front 242

_____ _____ are used to measure the bodies basic functions, including body temperature, heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure. Changes in __________ May indicate disease.

Back 242

Vital signs.

Front 243

________ are felt or experienced by the patient, but cannot be clinically a confirmed or objectively measured. Examples: nausea, loss of appetite, and pain.

Back 243

Symptoms.

Front 244

A ________ is a specific group of signs and symptoms characteristic of a particular disease.

Back 244

Syndrome.

Front 245

Asymptomatic or subclinical means that a patient ...

Back 245

... Does NOT present with any noticeable signs or symptoms.

Front 246

_______ = pathological conditions resulting from infection, disease, injury, therapy, or other trauma. (Residual, lingering symptoms.)

Back 246

Sequelae.

Front 247

______ = subjective characteristics of disease felt only by the patient.

Back 247

Symptoms

Front 248

______ = subjective characteristics of disease felt only by the patient.

Back 248

Symptoms

Front 249

____= Objective manifestations of disease observed or measured by others.

Back 249

Signs

Front 250

______ = subjective characteristics of disease felt only by the patient.

Back 250

Symptoms

Front 251

____= Objective manifestations of disease observed or measured by others.

Back 251

Signs

Front 252

_______= symptoms and signs that characterize a disease or abnormal condition.

Back 252

Syndrome

Front 253

______ = subjective characteristics of disease felt only by the patient.

Back 253

Symptoms

Front 254

____= Objective manifestations of disease observed or measured by others.

Back 254

Signs

Front 255

_______= symptoms and signs that characterize a disease or abnormal condition.

Back 255

Syndrome

Front 256

_______/_______ = infections lack of symptoms but may still have signs of infection.

Back 256

Asymptomatic/sub clinical

Front 257

Any disease caused by the direct effect of the pathogen is called a(n)...

Back 257

Infectious disease

Front 258

Any disease caused by the direct effect of the pathogen is called a(n)...

Back 258

Infectious disease

Front 259

Infectious disease is capable of being spread from person to person through either direct or indirect mechanisms is called a ____________ disease.

Back 259

Communicable.

Front 260

Explain the term “contagious”.

Back 260

Infectious communicable diseases is that are easily spread from person to person.

Front 261

Explain the term “contagious”.

Back 261

Infectious communicable diseases is that are easily spread from person to person.

Front 262

A ______ infectious disease is NOT spread from one person to another.

Back 262

Non-communicable.

Front 263

Explain the term “contagious”.

Back 263

Infectious communicable diseases is that are easily spread from person to person.

Front 264

A ______ infectious disease is NOT spread from one person to another.

Back 264

Non-communicable.

Front 265

A _______ infectious disease is not caused by a pathogen.

Back 265

Non-infectious.

Front 266

Explain the term “contagious”.

Back 266

Infectious communicable diseases is that are easily spread from person to person.

Front 267

A ______ infectious disease is NOT spread from one person to another.

Back 267

Non-communicable.

Front 268

A _______ infectious disease is not caused by a pathogen.

Back 268

Non-infectious.

Front 269

A _____ disease is when certain infectious diseases are transmitted from animals to humans. Example: malaria.

Back 269

Zoonotic.

Front 270

Explain the term “contagious”.

Back 270

Infectious communicable diseases is that are easily spread from person to person.

Front 271

A ______ infectious disease is NOT spread from one person to another.

Back 271

Non-communicable.

Front 272

A _______ infectious disease is not caused by a pathogen.

Back 272

Non-infectious.

Front 273

A _____ disease is when certain infectious diseases are transmitted from animals to humans. Example: malaria.

Back 273

Zoonotic.

Front 274

_____ Diseases are acquired in hospital settings.

Back 274

Noscomial.

Front 275

Explain the term “contagious”.

Back 275

Infectious communicable diseases is that are easily spread from person to person.

Front 276

A ______ infectious disease is NOT spread from one person to another.

Back 276

Non-communicable.

Front 277

A _______ infectious disease is not caused by a pathogen.

Back 277

Non-infectious.

Front 278

A _____ disease is when certain infectious diseases are transmitted from animals to humans. Example: malaria.

Back 278

Zoonotic.

Front 279

_____ Diseases are acquired in hospital settings.

Back 279

Noscomial.

Front 280

________ diseases are contracted as a result of a medical procedure.

Back 280

Iatrogenic.

Front 281

Explain the term “contagious”.

Back 281

Infectious communicable diseases is that are easily spread from person to person.

Front 282

A ______ infectious disease is NOT spread from one person to another.

Back 282

Non-communicable.

Front 283

A _______ infectious disease is not caused by a pathogen.

Back 283

Non-infectious.

Front 284

A _____ disease is when certain infectious diseases are transmitted from animals to humans. Example: malaria.

Back 284

Zoonotic.

Front 285

_____ Diseases are acquired in hospital settings.

Back 285

Noscomial.

Front 286

________ diseases are contracted as a result of a medical procedure.

Back 286

Iatrogenic.

Front 287

Periods of disease: what are the stages following infection?

Back 287

(Infection,) Incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, & convalescence.

Front 288

Periods of disease: what are the stages following infection?

Back 288

(Infection,) Incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, & convalescence.

Front 289

Periods of disease: ______ occurs after the initial entry of the pathogen into the host. The pathogen begins multiplying in the host. There are no signs or symptoms yet, and the length of this period varies depending on the pathogen.

Back 289

Incubation.

Front 290

Periods of disease: what are the stages following infection?

Back 290

(Infection,) Incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, & convalescence.

Front 291

Periods of disease: ______ occurs after the initial entry of the pathogen into the host. The pathogen begins multiplying in the host. There are no signs or symptoms yet, and the length of this period varies depending on the pathogen.

Back 291

Incubation.

Front 292

Periods of disease: _________ period occurs after the incubation period. The pathogen continues to multiply, the host begins to experience general signs and symptoms of illness which will usually activate the immune system and you may see things like fever, pain, sore throat, etc.

Back 292

Prodromal.

Front 293

Periods of disease: The stage after the prodromal period is called ______ and it is when the signs and symptoms of disease are most obvious and severe.

Back 293

Illness.

Front 294

Periods of disease: ________ occurs after the illness period. During this period the number of pathogen particles begin to decrease and the signs and symptoms begin to go away. Patients may become susceptible to developing secondary infections due to weak immune system.

Back 294

Decline.

Front 295

Periods of disease: ________ occurs after the illness period. During this period the number of pathogen particles begin to decrease and the signs and symptoms begin to go away. Patients may become susceptible to developing secondary infections due to weak immune system.

Back 295

Decline.

Front 296

Periods of disease: _____ is the final period. During, the patients generally return to normal functions, although some diseases may inflict permanent damage.

Back 296

Convalescence.

Front 297

Periods of disease: ________ occurs after the illness period. During this period the number of pathogen particles begin to decrease and the signs and symptoms begin to go away. Patients may become susceptible to developing secondary infections due to weak immune system.

Back 297

Decline.

Front 298

Periods of disease: _____ is the final period. During, the patients generally return to normal functions, although some diseases may inflict permanent damage.

Back 298

Convalescence.

Front 299

True or false: It doesn’t matter what period of disease a patient is in, until they are 100% recovered they are infectious to others.

Back 299

True.

Front 300

_________ is a disease in which symptoms develop rapidly and that runs its course quickly/in a short time. (Hours-weeks.)

Back 300

Acute disease.

Front 301

__________ is a disease that’s time, course, and symptoms are between acute and chronic.

Back 301

Subacute disease.

Front 302

__________ is a disease that’s time, course, and symptoms are between acute and chronic.

Back 302

Subacute disease.

Front 303

__________ is a disease with usually mild symptoms that develop slowly and last a long time. (Months-years.)

Back 303

Chronic disease.

Front 304

_______________ is a disease that appears a long time after the infection. The pathogen goes dormant for extended period of time with no active replication.

Back 304

Latent disease.

Front 305

Acute, chronic, subacute, or latent. Which one is the following describing? :: “rapid onset, followed by a relatively rapid recovery. Example: measles, mumps, and influenza.”

Back 305

Acute.

Front 306

Acute, chronic, subacute, or latent. Which one is the following describing? :: “rapid onset, followed by a relatively rapid recovery. Example: measles, mumps, and influenza.”

Back 306

Acute.

Front 307

Acute, chronic, subacute, or latent. Which one is the following describing? :: “ slow onset and lasts a long time. Example tuberculosis, leprosy, and syphilis.”

Back 307

Chronic.

Front 308

Acute, chronic, subacute, or latent. Which one is the following describing? :: “rapid onset, followed by a relatively rapid recovery. Example: measles, mumps, and influenza.”

Back 308

Acute.

Front 309

Acute, chronic, subacute, or latent. Which one is the following describing? :: “ slow onset and lasts a long time. Example tuberculosis, leprosy, and syphilis.”

Back 309

Chronic.

Front 310

Acute, chronic, subacute, or latent. Which one is the following describing? :: “comes on more suddenly than a chronic disease, but less suddenly than an acute disease. Example: bacterial endocarditis.”

Back 310

Subacute.

Front 311

Acute, chronic, subacute, or latent. Which one is the following describing? :: “rapid onset, followed by a relatively rapid recovery. Example: measles, mumps, and influenza.”

Back 311

Acute.

Front 312

Acute, chronic, subacute, or latent. Which one is the following describing? :: “ slow onset and lasts a long time. Example tuberculosis, leprosy, and syphilis.”

Back 312

Chronic.

Front 313

Acute, chronic, subacute, or latent. Which one is the following describing? :: “comes on more suddenly than a chronic disease, but less suddenly than an acute disease. Example: bacterial endocarditis.”

Back 313

Subacute.

Front 314

Acute, chronic, subacute, or latent. Which one is the following describing? :: “infectious diseases that go from being symptomatic to asymptomatic, and then, later, go back to being asymptomatic. Example: syphilis, the herpes virus.”

Back 314

Latent.

Front 315

What is septicemia?

Back 315

When blood contains actively dividing bacteria.

Front 316

______ is (the study of) the causation of disease.

Back 316

Etiology.

Front 317

________ is the degree of pathogenicity. More _____ —> more deadly.

Back 317

Virulent.

Front 318

________ is the degree of pathogenicity. More _____ —> more deadly.

Back 318

Virulent.

Front 319

Pathogenicity is the ability of a microorganism to...?

Back 319

To cause disease.

Front 320

Two important indicators of virulence are the _____________ (___) and the ___________ (___).

Back 320

Median infectious dose (ID50) & median lethal dose (LD50).

Front 321

The ID50 is the number of pathogen cells or virions required to cause ...?

Back 321

Active infection in 50% of inoculated animals.

Front 322

The LD50 is the number of pathogenic cells, virions, or amount of toxin required to...?

Back 322

Kill 50% of infected animals.

Front 323

__________ infection/pathogens - normal microbiota that cause disease under certain circumstances. (Circumstance examples: introduction of normal microbiota into unusual site in body, immune suppression, changes in the normal microbiota.)

Back 323

Opportunistic.

Front 324

_________ infection/pathogen can cause disease in a host regardless of the host’s resident microbiota or immune system. Had more than one virulence factor.

Back 324

Primary.

Front 325

________ infections are infections that follow a primary infection; often by opportunistic pathogens.

Back 325

Secondary infection.

Front 326

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) What are some examples of the “portal of entry”?

Back 326

These are locations where the host cells are in direct contact with the external environment. Mucous membranes, skin, parenteral routes (needle sites), Eyes, ears, mouth, anus, vagina, urethra, broken skin, etc.

Front 327

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) Attachment: _______ refers the the capacity of pathogenic microbes to attach to the cells of the body using _____ factors.

Back 327

Adhesion.

Front 328

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) Attachment: Molecules (proteins & carbohydrates) called _______ are found on the surface of certain pathogens and bind to specific _________ (glycoproteins) on host cells.

Back 328

Adhesins ; receptors.

Front 329

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) _________ or spread of the pathogen involves the dissemination of a pathogen throughout local tissues of the body.

Back 329

Invasion.

Front 330

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) For a pathogen to persist, it must put itself in a position to be ___________ to a new host, leaving the infected host through a _____________.

Back 330

Transmitted; portal of exit.

Front 331

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) For a pathogen to persist, it must put itself in a position to be ___________ to a new host, leaving the infected host through a _____________.

Back 331

Transmitted; portal of exit.

Front 332

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) Give some examples of a portal of exit.

Back 332

Skin, respiratory system, urogenital and gastrointestinal tracts. Coughing and sneezing.

Front 333

Successful _________ of a pathogen leads to infection. Infections can be described as local, focal, or systemic depending on the extent of the infection.

Back 333

Multiplication.

Front 334

Successful _________ of a pathogen leads to infection. Infections can be described as local, focal, or systemic depending on the extent of the infection.

Back 334

Multiplication.

Front 335

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) Multiplication of the pathogen: A _______ infection is confined to a small area of the body, typically near the portal of entry.

Back 335

Local.

Front 336

Successful _________ of a pathogen leads to infection. Infections can be described as local, focal, or systemic depending on the extent of the infection.

Back 336

Multiplication.

Front 337

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) Multiplication of the pathogen: A _______ infection is confined to a small area of the body, typically near the portal of entry.

Back 337

Local.

Front 338

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) Multiplication of the pathogen: In a ________ infection, a localized pathogen, or the toxins it produces, can spread to a secondary location.

Back 338

Focal.

Front 339

Successful _________ of a pathogen leads to infection. Infections can be described as local, focal, or systemic depending on the extent of the infection.

Back 339

Multiplication.

Front 340

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) Multiplication of the pathogen: A _______ infection is confined to a small area of the body, typically near the portal of entry.

Back 340

Local.

Front 341

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) Multiplication of the pathogen: In a ________ infection, a localized pathogen, or the toxins it produces, can spread to a secondary location.

Back 341

Focal.

Front 342

(Pathogenesis of infectious diseases.) Multiplication of the pathogen: When an infection becomes decimated throughout the body it is called _______ infection.

Back 342

Systemic.

Front 343

The _______ infection is caused by ONE pathogen (primary), and can lead to a _______ infection by ANOTHER pathogen.

Back 343

Initial; secondary.

Front 344

_________ ________ some pathogens evade the immune system by changing their surface antigens.

Back 344

Antigenic Variation.

Front 345

_________ ________ some pathogens evade the immune system by changing their surface antigens.

Back 345

Antigenic Variation.

Front 346

_____ ______ presence of capsule aid in immune evasion by preventing phagocytosis.

Back 346

Preventing phagocytosis.

Front 347

_____ & ____ ____ some organisms conceal their foreign nature by coating themselves with host proteins- like camouflage.

Back 347

Camouflage & molecular mimicry.

Front 348

______________________ : some pathogens produce IgA protease, an enzyme that destroys some of the host’s antibodies.

Back 348

Destruction of antibodies.

Front 349

_______ ______ are attributes that enable pathogens to attach, escape destruction, and/or cause death. They are phenotypic characteristics that are dictated by the organism’s genotype.

Back 349

Virulence factors.

Front 350

______ ______ attributes that enable pathogens to attach, escape destruction, and/or cause death. They are phenotypic characteristics that are dictated by the organism’s genotype.

Back 350

Virulence factors.

Front 351

Adhesion factors, biofilms, toxins, extracellular enzymes, and antiphagocytic factors are all ______ _____ that contribute to virulence.

Back 351

Virulence factors.

Front 352

__________ are secreted by pathogens, can be pyogenic or pus forming, can cause septicemia, toxemia, viremia, and bacteremia. They help the pathogen maintain infection, invade, and avoid body defenses.

Back 352

Exoenzymes.

Front 353

_______ are poisonous substances released by various pathogen’s. There are two general types: endotoxins and exotoxins.

Back 353

Toxins.

Front 354

_________ are part of the cell wall structure of Graham negative bacteria. They can cause serious, adverse physiological effects such as fever and shock. Their composition: lipid A component of Lipopolysaccharide.

Back 354

Endotoxin.

Front 355

_________ are part of the cell wall structure of Graham negative bacteria. They can cause serious, adverse physiological effects such as fever and shock. Their composition: lipid A component of Lipopolysaccharide.

Back 355

Endotoxin.

Front 356

________ are poisonous proteins secreted by a variety of pathogens by both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, however primarily gram-positive.

Back 356

Exotoxins.

Front 357

Antigenic ______ are mutations in the genes for the surface proteins neuraminidase and/or hemagglutinin and results in small anti-genic changes over time.

Back 357

Antigenic drift.

Front 358

Antigenic ______ are mutations in the genes for the surface proteins neuraminidase and/or hemagglutinin and results in small anti-genic changes over time.

Back 358

Antigenic drift.

Front 359

Antigenic _______ : simultaneous infection of a cell with two different influenza viruses results and mixing of the genes. The resultant virus possess as a mixture of the proteins of the original viruses. Influenza pandemics can often be traced to antigenic ________. (Hint: pig nose!)

Back 359

Antigenic Shift.

Front 360

Antigenic ______ are mutations in the genes for the surface proteins neuraminidase and/or hemagglutinin and results in small anti-genic changes over time.

Back 360

Antigenic drift.

Front 361

Antigenic _______ : simultaneous infection of a cell with two different influenza viruses results and mixing of the genes. The resultant virus possess as a mixture of the proteins of the original viruses. Influenza pandemics can often be traced to antigenic ________. (Hint: pig nose!)

Back 361

Antigenic Shift.

Front 362

True or false: fungal and parasitic (helminths) pathogen’s use pathogenic mechanisms and violence factors that are similar to those of bacterial pathogen‘s.

Back 362

True.

Front 363

Antigenic ______ are mutations in the genes for the surface proteins neuraminidase and/or hemagglutinin and results in small anti-genic changes over time.

Back 363

Antigenic drift.

Front 364

Antigenic _______ : simultaneous infection of a cell with two different influenza viruses results and mixing of the genes. The resultant virus possess as a mixture of the proteins of the original viruses. Influenza pandemics can often be traced to antigenic ________. (Hint: pig nose!)

Back 364

Antigenic Shift.

Front 365

True or false: fungal and parasitic (helminths) pathogen’s use pathogenic mechanisms and violence factors that are similar to those of bacterial pathogen‘s.

Back 365

True.

Front 366

__________ ________ are able to avoid the immune system by coating their exteriors with glycan molecules that make them look like host cells or by suppressing the immune system.

Back 366

Helminthic worms.

Front 367

Antigenic ______ are mutations in the genes for the surface proteins neuraminidase and/or hemagglutinin and results in small anti-genic changes over time.

Back 367

Antigenic drift.

Front 368

Antigenic _______ : simultaneous infection of a cell with two different influenza viruses results and mixing of the genes. The resultant virus possess as a mixture of the proteins of the original viruses. Influenza pandemics can often be traced to antigenic ________. (Hint: pig nose!)

Back 368

Antigenic Shift.

Front 369

True or false: fungal and parasitic (helminths) pathogen’s use pathogenic mechanisms and violence factors that are similar to those of bacterial pathogen‘s.

Back 369

True.

Front 370

__________ ________ are able to avoid the immune system by coating their exteriors with glycan molecules that make them look like host cells or by suppressing the immune system.

Back 370

Helminthic worms.

Front 371

Antigenic ______ are mutations in the genes for the surface proteins neuraminidase and/or hemagglutinin and results in small anti-genic changes over time.

Back 371

Antigenic drift.

Front 372

Antigenic _______ : simultaneous infection of a cell with two different influenza viruses results and mixing of the genes. The resultant virus possess as a mixture of the proteins of the original viruses. Influenza pandemics can often be traced to antigenic ________. (Hint: pig nose!)

Back 372

Antigenic Shift.

Front 373

True or false: fungal and parasitic (helminths) pathogen’s use pathogenic mechanisms and violence factors that are similar to those of bacterial pathogen‘s.

Back 373

True.

Front 374

__________ ________ are able to avoid the immune system by coating their exteriors with glycan molecules that make them look like host cells or by suppressing the immune system.

Back 374

Helminthic worms.

Front 375

Protozoa adhere to target cells through complex mechanisms & can cause cellular damage through release of ______ ______. Some Protozoa avoid the immune system through _____ ______ & production of _________.

Back 375

Cytopathic substances; antigenic variation; capsules.

Front 376

Antigenic ______ are mutations in the genes for the surface proteins neuraminidase and/or hemagglutinin and results in small anti-genic changes over time.

Back 376

Antigenic drift.

Front 377

Antigenic _______ : simultaneous infection of a cell with two different influenza viruses results and mixing of the genes. The resultant virus possess as a mixture of the proteins of the original viruses. Influenza pandemics can often be traced to antigenic ________. (Hint: pig nose!)

Back 377

Antigenic Shift.

Front 378

True or false: fungal and parasitic (helminths) pathogen’s use pathogenic mechanisms and violence factors that are similar to those of bacterial pathogen‘s.

Back 378

True.

Front 379

__________ ________ are able to avoid the immune system by coating their exteriors with glycan molecules that make them look like host cells or by suppressing the immune system.

Back 379

Helminthic worms.

Front 380

Protozoa adhere to target cells through complex mechanisms & can cause cellular damage through release of ______ ______. Some Protozoa avoid the immune system through _____ ______ & production of _________.

Back 380

Cytopathic substances; antigenic variation; capsules.

Front 381

Fungi initiate infections through interactions of ________ with receptors on host cells. Some fungi produce toxins & ______ involved in disease production & ______ that provide protection of phagocytosis.

Back 381

Adhesins; exoenzymes; capsules.

Front 382

“ obtaining a respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital” is an example of a _______ disease.

Back 382

Nosocomial disease.

Front 383

“ obtaining a respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital” is an example of a _______ disease.

Back 383

Nosocomial disease.

Front 384

“ obtaining a respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital” is an example of a _______ disease.

Back 384

Nosocomial disease.

Front 385

Sickle cell anemia is a ________ disease!

Back 385

Non infectious.

Front 386

“ obtaining a respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital” is an example of a _______ disease.

Back 386

Nosocomial disease.

Front 387

Sickle cell anemia is a ________ disease!

Back 387

Non infectious.

Front 388

“ obtaining a respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital” is an example of a _______ disease.

Back 388

Nosocomial disease.

Front 389

Sickle cell anemia is a ________ disease!

Back 389

Non infectious.

Front 390

What period of disease describes when the patient begins to feel general signs and symptoms?

Back 390

Prodromal period.

Front 391

True or false: the higher the ID50 the more virulent the pathogen.

Back 391

False. The higher the ID50 number, the less viral. It means that more pathogen particles are required for a pathogen to be effective. If a pathogen only needs a few pathogen particles to be effective, it is more virulent.

Front 392

True or false: the higher the ID50 the more virulent the pathogen.

Back 392

False. The higher the ID50 number, the less viral. It means that more pathogen particles are required for a pathogen to be effective. If a pathogen only needs a few pathogen particles to be effective, it is more virulent.

Front 393

True or false: the higher the ID50 the more virulent the pathogen.

Back 393

False. The higher the ID50 number, the less viral. It means that more pathogen particles are required for a pathogen to be effective. If a pathogen only needs a few pathogen particles to be effective, it is more virulent.

Front 394

_______ is the ability of a microbial agent to cause disease.

Back 394

Pathogenicity.

Front 395

Molecular Koch’s postulates are used to identify which characteristic of pathogens?

Back 395

Virulence factor genes.

Front 396

What is the toxic component of endotoxin.?

Back 396

Lipid a.

Front 397

True or false: the normal flora and microbiota of an individual can cause disease.

Back 397

True.

Front 398

_____ _____ was a British physician and “the father of epidemiology.” His detailed mapping of cholera incidents led to the discovery of the contaminated water pump on Broad Street responsible for the 1854 Cholera epidemic.

Back 398

John Snow.

Front 399

_____ _____ was a British physician and “the father of epidemiology.” His detailed mapping of cholera incidents led to the discovery of the contaminated water pump on Broad Street responsible for the 1854 Cholera epidemic.

Back 399

John Snow.

Front 400

_____ ______ “The lady with the lamp.” Reported the data she collected as a nurse in the Crimean war. Her diagram, the cocxcomb chart, showed the number of fatalities and soldiers by month of the conflict from various causes. Her work is an example of early epidemiological study.

Back 400

Florence Nightingale.

Front 401

________ : diseases that are constantly present (often at all low level) in a population within a particular geographic region. Occurs at a constant (& often low) level within a population.

Back 401

Endemic.

Front 402

________ : diseases that are constantly present (often at all low level) in a population within a particular geographic region. Occurs at a constant (& often low) level within a population.

Back 402

Endemic.

Front 403

__________ : Diseases for which a larger than expected number of cases occurs in a short time with in a geographic region. (Ex: influenza.)

Back 403

Epidemic.

Front 404

________ : diseases that are constantly present (often at all low level) in a population within a particular geographic region. Occurs at a constant (& often low) level within a population.

Back 404

Endemic.

Front 405

__________ : Diseases for which a larger than expected number of cases occurs in a short time with in a geographic region. (Ex: influenza.)

Back 405

Epidemic.

Front 406

________ : an epidemic that occurs on a worldwide scale.

Back 406

Pandemic.

Front 407

________ : diseases that are constantly present (often at all low level) in a population within a particular geographic region. Occurs at a constant (& often low) level within a population.

Back 407

Endemic.

Front 408

__________ : Diseases for which a larger than expected number of cases occurs in a short time with in a geographic region. (Ex: influenza.)

Back 408

Epidemic.

Front 409

________ : an epidemic that occurs on a worldwide scale.

Back 409

Pandemic.

Front 410

__________ : diseases that are seen only occasionally, & usually without geographic concentration.

Back 410

Sporadic.

Front 411

______ ______ : can be expressed as the number of diseased individuals out of a standard number of individuals in the population, such as 100,000, or as a percent of the population.

Back 411

Morbidity rate.

Front 412

_______ is the state of being diseased.

Back 412

Morbidity.

Front 413

______ _____ can be expressed as the percentage of the population that has died from a disease or as the number of deaths per 100,000 persons.

Back 413

Mortality rate.

Front 414

Mortality = _______.

Back 414

Death.

Front 415

_______ = The number of new cases of a disease in a given area during a given period of time.

Back 415

Incidence.

Front 416

________ = Number of total cases of a disease in a given area during a given period of time.

Back 416

Prevalence.

Front 417

________ = Number of total cases of a disease in a given area during a given period of time.

Back 417

Prevalence.

Front 418

______= the occurrence of disease cases in excess of normal expectancy.

Back 418

Outbreak.

Front 419

________ = Number of total cases of a disease in a given area during a given period of time.

Back 419

Prevalence.

Front 420

______= the occurrence of disease cases in excess of normal expectancy.

Back 420

Outbreak.

Front 421

_______= evaluated in terms of frequency and geographic distribution.

Back 421

Occurrence

Front 422

_______= disease detectives track occurrence of disease is using to measures: incidence and prevalence. They also evaluate morbidity and mortality rates, they investigate etiology and disease transmission.

Back 422

Epidemiologists.

Front 423

_________ is from a reservoir or a portal of exit to another host’ portal of entry.

Back 423

Transmission.

Front 424

_________ is from a reservoir or a portal of exit to another host’ portal of entry.

Back 424

Transmission.

Front 425

________ of human disease can include the human and animal populations, soil, water, and inanimate objects or materials.

Back 425

Reservoir.

Front 426

________ human-carrier : contaminated with the pathogen and can mechanically transmit it to another host, but is not infected.

Back 426

Passive.

Front 427

________ human-carrier : contaminated with the pathogen and can mechanically transmit it to another host, but is not infected.

Back 427

Passive.

Front 428

________ human-carrier : an infected individual who can transmit the disease to others. May or may not exhibit signs or symptoms of infection. Two types: asymptomatic and symptomatic.

Back 428

Active carrier.

Front 429

________ human-carrier : contaminated with the pathogen and can mechanically transmit it to another host, but is not infected.

Back 429

Passive.

Front 430

________ human-carrier : an infected individual who can transmit the disease to others. May or may not exhibit signs or symptoms of infection. Two types: asymptomatic and symptomatic.

Back 430

Active carrier.

Front 431

Active carriers who do not present signs or symptoms of disease despite infection are ____________.

Back 431

Asymptomatic.

Front 432

________ human-carrier : contaminated with the pathogen and can mechanically transmit it to another host, but is not infected.

Back 432

Passive.

Front 433

________ human-carrier : an infected individual who can transmit the disease to others. May or may not exhibit signs or symptoms of infection. Two types: asymptomatic and symptomatic.

Back 433

Active carrier.

Front 434

Active carriers who do not present signs or symptoms of disease despite infection are ____________.

Back 434

Asymptomatic.

Front 435

If you are _______ you do you present signs and symptoms of disease when infected.

Back 435

Symptomatic.

Front 436

What are some non-human reservoirs?

Back 436

Zoonotic reservoirs, and environmental- water bodies.

Front 437

What are some non-human reservoirs?

Back 437

Zoonotic reservoirs, and environmental- water bodies.

Front 438

What are zoonotic reservoirs?

Back 438

Animals that act as reservoirs of human disease and transmitted infections/infectious agent to humans through direct or indirect contact.

Front 439

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission Occurs when pathogens are transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy, birth, or breast-feeding.

Back 439

Vertical direct contact transmission.

Front 440

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission Occurs when pathogens are transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy, birth, or breast-feeding.

Back 440

Vertical direct contact transmission.

Front 441

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission involve other kinds of direct contact transmission, such as contact between mucous membranes.

Back 441

Horizontal direct contact transmission.

Front 442

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission Occurs when pathogens are transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy, birth, or breast-feeding.

Back 442

Vertical direct contact transmission.

Front 443

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission involve other kinds of direct contact transmission, such as contact between mucous membranes.

Back 443

Horizontal direct contact transmission.

Front 444

Contact transmission: ________ : usually involves body contact between hosts. Transmission within a single individual can occur.

Back 444

Direct.

Front 445

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission Occurs when pathogens are transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy, birth, or breast-feeding.

Back 445

Vertical direct contact transmission.

Front 446

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission involve other kinds of direct contact transmission, such as contact between mucous membranes.

Back 446

Horizontal direct contact transmission.

Front 447

Contact transmission: ________ : usually involves body contact between hosts. Transmission within a single individual can occur.

Back 447

Direct.

Front 448

Contact transmission: ________ : pathogens are spread from host to host by fomites.

Back 448

Indirect.

Front 449

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission Occurs when pathogens are transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy, birth, or breast-feeding.

Back 449

Vertical direct contact transmission.

Front 450

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission involve other kinds of direct contact transmission, such as contact between mucous membranes.

Back 450

Horizontal direct contact transmission.

Front 451

Contact transmission: ________ : usually involves body contact between hosts. Transmission within a single individual can occur.

Back 451

Direct.

Front 452

Contact transmission: ________ : pathogens are spread from host to host by fomites.

Back 452

Indirect.

Front 453

Contact transmission: ________ : spread of pathogens and droplets of mucus by exhaling, coughing, and sneezing.

Back 453

Droplet transmission

Front 454

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission Occurs when pathogens are transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy, birth, or breast-feeding.

Back 454

Vertical direct contact transmission.

Front 455

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission involve other kinds of direct contact transmission, such as contact between mucous membranes.

Back 455

Horizontal direct contact transmission.

Front 456

Contact transmission: ________ : usually involves body contact between hosts. Transmission within a single individual can occur.

Back 456

Direct.

Front 457

Contact transmission: ________ : pathogens are spread from host to host by fomites.

Back 457

Indirect.

Front 458

Contact transmission: ________ : spread of pathogens and droplets of mucus by exhaling, coughing, and sneezing.

Back 458

Droplet transmission

Front 459

____________ transmission is the spread of pathogens in and on foods. This is when foods are in adequately processed, cooked, or refrigerated. Or, foods may become contaminated with feces.

Back 459

Food borne transmission.

Front 460

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission Occurs when pathogens are transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy, birth, or breast-feeding.

Back 460

Vertical direct contact transmission.

Front 461

(Spread of disease.) _________ contact transmission involve other kinds of direct contact transmission, such as contact between mucous membranes.

Back 461

Horizontal direct contact transmission.

Front 462

Contact transmission: ________ : usually involves body contact between hosts. Transmission within a single individual can occur.

Back 462

Direct.

Front 463

Contact transmission: ________ : pathogens are spread from host to host by fomites.

Back 463

Indirect.

Front 464

Contact transmission: ________ : spread of pathogens and droplets of mucus by exhaling, coughing, and sneezing.

Back 464

Droplet transmission

Front 465

____________ transmission is the spread of pathogens in and on foods. This is when foods are in adequately processed, cooked, or refrigerated. Or, foods may become contaminated with feces.

Back 465

Food borne transmission.

Front 466

_________ transmission is important in the spread of many gastrointestinal disease is. Fecal oral infection.

Back 466

Waterborne transmission.

Front 467

When bodily fluids such as blood, urine, and saliva, can carry pathogens this is called…

Back 467

Bodily fluid transmission.

Front 468

When bodily fluids such as blood, urine, and saliva, can carry pathogens this is called…

Back 468

Bodily fluid transmission.

Front 469

The parenteral route involving ____ are indirect transmission.

Back 469

Needles.